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Animal Body Systems & Cases > Nervous System > Flashcards

Nervous System Flashcards

1
Q

Define ataxia

A

Incoordination

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2
Q

Define nociception

A

Perception of painful stimuli

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3
Q

Define paresis

A

Weakness due to a nervous system lesion

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4
Q

Sympathetic is…

A

Fight or flight

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5
Q

Parasympathetic is…

A

Rest and digest

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6
Q

Central nervous system branches

A

Brain and spinal cord

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7
Q

Peripheral nervous system branches

A

Cranial nerves and spinal nerves

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8
Q

What are the functional regions of the spinal cord

A
  1. Cervical
  2. Cervical intumescence
  3. Thoracolumbar
  4. Lumbar intumescence
  5. Caudal regions
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9
Q

The left side of the brain controls the…

A

Right side of the body

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10
Q

Dorsal root fibers of the PNS are…

A

Sensory (afferent) fibers

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11
Q

Ventral root fibers of PNS are…

A

Motor (efferent) fibers

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12
Q

What does the somatic nervous system innervate

A

Striated muscle

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13
Q

What does the autonomic nervous system innervate

A

Smooth muscle

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14
Q

What makes myelin

A

Schwann cells

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15
Q

What layers of the covering of the brain make up the meninges

A

Dura matter, arachnoid, & pia mater

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16
Q

What are the parts of the forebrain

A

Cerebrum & thalamus

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17
Q

Frontal lobe: controls

A

Motor cortex and association areas

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18
Q

Parietal lobe: controls

A

Somatosensory

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19
Q

Temporal lobe: controls

A

Audition, learning, memory

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20
Q

Occipital lobe: controls

A

Vision

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21
Q

Rhinencephalon: controls

A

Olfaction, learning, memory

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22
Q

Limbic system: controls

A

Behavior/emotion

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23
Q

Basal nuclei: controls

A

Extrapyramidal motor system

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24
Q

What connects the left and right cerebral hemispheres

A

The corpus callosum

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25
Q

What is the basal nuclei and what does it do

A

A region located at the base of the brain composed of 4 clusters of neurons
It modifies the cortical initiation of voluntary movement

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26
Q

What are the 5 sections of the cerebral cortex

A
  1. Frontal lobe
  2. Parietal lobe
  3. Temporal lobe
  4. Occipital lobe
  5. Rhinencephalon (olfactory)
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27
Q

What are the two divisions of the cerebrum

A
  1. Cerebral cortex
  2. Subcortical structures
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28
Q

All sensory information except for ___ synapse in specific thalamic nuclei

A

Olfaction

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29
Q

Describe the flow to CSF through cerebral ventricles

A

Lateral ventricle -> intraventricular foramen -> third ventricle -> mesencephalic aqueduct -> fourth ventricle -> lateral aperture -> central canal

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30
Q

The ____ is the most prominent structure and makes up the floor of lateral ventricle

A

Hippocampus

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31
Q

What is medial to the two cerebellar hemispheres

A

Cerebellar vermis

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32
Q

What connects the cerebellum to the brainstem

A

The peduncles (three bundles of fibres)

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33
Q

What are the cerebellar hemispheres known as

A

Neocerebellum

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34
Q

What is the cerebellar vermis known as

A

Spinocerebellum

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35
Q

What are the three sections of the brainstem

A

The midbrain, pons and medulla oblongata

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36
Q

The ___ is the rostral part of the brain stem

A

The midbrain

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37
Q

Visual reflexes are located in the ___

A

Rostral colliculus

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38
Q

Auditory reflexes are in located in the ___

A

Caudal colliculus

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39
Q

Where can you find the motor nucleus of the trigeminal nerve

A

The pons

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40
Q

What cranial nerves are located in the medulla oblongata

A

Cranial nerves VI - XII

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41
Q

What is the obex

A

The most caudal point in the fourth ventricle

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42
Q

What cranial nerve nucleus is found in the pons

A

Cranial nerve V

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43
Q

What cranial nerves are found in the midbrain

A

Cranial nerve III and IV

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44
Q

Define what makes up white matter

A

Neuroglia & bundles of axons coated with myelin sheath

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45
Q

Define what makes up gray matter

A

Masses on neuronal bodies and axons and neuroglia

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46
Q

Bundles of axons (of neurons) are called ___ in the PNS and ___ in the CNS

A

Nerves in the PNS
Tracts/pathways in the CNS

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47
Q

Bundles of cell bodies (of neurons) are called ___ in the PNS and ___ in the CNS

A

Ganglia in the PNS
Nuclei in the CNS

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48
Q

Most axons of neurons are myelinated and part of the ___

A

White matter

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49
Q

Most cell bodies of neurons are unmyelinated and part of the ___

A

Gray matter

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50
Q

There are NO ___ neurons in the PNS

A

Somatic motor neurons

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51
Q

Define axon

A

Long cytoplasmic process that transmits impulses (efferent)

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52
Q

Define dendrites

A

Cytoplasmic process off the cell body that receive impulses (afferent)

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53
Q

Direction of communication: sensory afferent neurons

A

PNS –> CNS

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54
Q

Direction of communication: motor efferent neurons

A

CNS –> PNS

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55
Q

Direction of communication: interneurons

A

Transmit information between neurons in the CNS

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56
Q

What is the term for neuronal RER

A

Nissl substance

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57
Q

Name 4 glial cells in the central nervous system

A
  1. Astrocytes
  2. Microglia
  3. Oligodendroglia
  4. Ependymal cells
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58
Q

Name 2 glial cells in the peripheral nervous system

A
  1. Schwann cells
  2. Satellite cells
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59
Q

Which glial cells create the BBB

A

Astrocytes

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60
Q

Which glial cells form the myelin sheath

A

Oligodendrocytes

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61
Q

Which glial cells are known as the brain macrophages

A

Microglia

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62
Q

Which glial cells lines the ventricles of the brain and spinal cord

A

Ependymal cells

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63
Q

Which glial cells create a neurilemma around the axons in the PNS

A

Schwann cells

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64
Q

What is different about Schwann cells and oligodendrocytes

A

One Schwann cells creates the myelin sheath around the section of one axon, whereas oligodendrocytes can surround several axons

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65
Q

Which spinal nerves make up the cervical intumescence

A

C6-T2

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66
Q

Which spinal nerves make up the lumbar intumescence

A

L4-S3

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67
Q

Which point is the widest in the cervical intumescence

A

C8

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68
Q

In the spinal cord, the dorsal horn is __ and the ventral horn is __

A

Dorsal = sensory
Ventral = motor

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69
Q

What are the 3 tract divisions of the spinal cord

A

Dorsal funiculus
Lateral funiculus
Ventral funiculus

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70
Q

What are the spinal cord segment numbers in the dog

A

C8, T13, L7, S3

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71
Q

What are the spinal cord segment numbers in the horse

A

C8, T18, L6, S5

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72
Q

The majority of spinal cord segments are positioned __ to their corresponding vertebrae

A

Cranial

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73
Q

What does the cauda equina refer to

A

The spinal roots innervating the sacrum and tail

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74
Q

Where does the spinal cord end in dogs

A

L6/7

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75
Q

Where does the spinal cord end in horses

A

S1/2

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76
Q

Name two locations you can obtain cerebrospinal fluid

A

Altano-occipital joint or lumbosacral area

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77
Q

List the 4 functions of cerebrospinal fluid

A
  1. Protection & buoyancy
  2. Excretion of waste products
  3. Nutrition
  4. Chemical buffer
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78
Q

Where is CSF produced

A

In the leptomeninges and the choroid plexuses of the lateral, 3rd and 4th ventricles

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79
Q

Where is the main site of absorption of cerebrospinal fluid

A

The arachnoid villus

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80
Q

What are the 5 main blood supplies to the brain

A
  1. Rostral cerebral arteries
  2. Middle cerebral arteries
  3. Caudal cerebral arteries
  4. Rostral cerebellar arteries
  5. Caudal cerebellar arteries
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81
Q

In the brain, blood flows from __

A

Ventral to dorsal

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82
Q

Which artery supplies most of the cerebral hemispheres

A

The middle cerebral artery

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83
Q

Which artery is the principle input to the brain

A

The internal carotid artery

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84
Q

What is the rete mirabile

A

A network of vessels located in the cavernous sinus

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85
Q

What are the 3 trunks of arterial supply to the spinal cord

A
  1. Ventral spinal artery
  2. Dorsolateral spinal arteries
  3. Spinal arteries
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86
Q

Define the BBB

A

The selective barrier between the circulating blood and the parenchyma of the nervous system

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87
Q

Name the 3 venous sinuses in the brain

A
  1. Dorsal sagittal sinus
  2. Transverse sinus
  3. Cavernous sinus
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88
Q

Where can you find upper motor neurons

A

In all divisions of the brain

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89
Q

Where can you find lower motor neurons

A

In the brainstem and spinal cord

90
Q

In which cranial nerves are axons from somatic motor neurons NOT found

A

CNI, CNII and CNVIII

91
Q

What do LMNs innervate

A

Skeletal muscle fibers

92
Q

What are the functions of UMNs

A

Initiate, regulated, modify and terminate the activity of LMNs (they control LMNs)

93
Q

Loss of inhibitory UMN function results in…

A

Increased muscle tone and spinal reflexes

94
Q

Loss of facilitatory UMN function results in…

A

Paresis or paralysis

95
Q

Function of alpha motor neurons

A

Innervate extrafusal muscle fibers (contraction ones)

96
Q

Function of gamma motor neurons

A

Innervate intrafusal muscle fibers (stretch receptor ones)

97
Q

What are the 4 important somatic reflexes of the neurological exam

A
  1. Patellar
  2. Palpebral
  3. Flexor
  4. Cutaneous trunci
98
Q

What are the 3 signs of a lower motor neuron lesion

A
  1. Poor/absent reflexes
  2. Neurogenic muscle atrophy
  3. Decreased muscle tone
99
Q

What are the 3 neurons of a sensory system

A
  1. Spinal ganglion
  2. Nucleus in brain stem/spinal cord
  3. Thalamic nuclei (contralateral)
100
Q

Which sensory system has a separate pathway from temperature, touch, and special senses

A

Nociception

101
Q

What are sensory receptors?

A

Dendrites of sensory neurons

102
Q

What are the 3 neurons in the 3 neuron pathway of vision

A
  1. Bipolar cell in retina
  2. Ganglion cell of retina
  3. Lateral geniculate nucleus
103
Q

What are the 3 neurons in the 3 neuron pathway of audition

A
  1. Spiral ganglion of CNVII
  2. Cochlear nuclei
  3. Nucleus in thalamus
104
Q

What is the sensory pathway for nociception

A

The spinothalamic pathway

105
Q

Define proprioception

A

The sense of relative position of the head, neck and limbs

106
Q

Define the location of conscious proprioception

A

Contralateral cerebral cortex

107
Q

Define the location of subconscious proprioception

A

Motor coordination in the cerebellum

108
Q

Define the location of vestibular proprioception

A

Balance in the inner ear and vestibular nuclei in the brainstem

109
Q

Where do afferent tracts of conscious proprioception receptors end

A

The forebrain

110
Q

Where do afferent tracts of subconscious proprioception receptors end

A

The cerebellum

111
Q

The cerebellum is a ___ structure

A

Sensory

112
Q

What are the 3 primary inputs to the cerebellum

A
  1. Proprioceptive information from spinal cord (from muscle spindles and golgi tendon organs)
  2. Vestibular system
  3. Forebrain motor planning centers
113
Q

Where are the 2 outputs of the cerebellum to

A
  1. UMN nuclei of brain stem
  2. Forebrain motor centres
114
Q

What are the only two neurons in each spinocerebellar pathway

A
  1. Neuron in spinal ganglion
  2. Neuron in spinal cord dorsal grey column
115
Q

Muscle spindles respond to __

A

Stretch

116
Q

Golgi tendon organs respond to __

A

Force (muscle tension)

117
Q

Where is the vestibular ganglion located

A

The petrous temporal bone

118
Q

What are the two types of fluid found in the vestibular labryrinth

A

Perilymph and endolymph

119
Q

What are the two groups of receptors in the vestibular labyrinth

A
  1. Saccule & utricle
  2. Crista ampullaris
120
Q

Macula in the saccule detect __

A

Vertical position and movement

121
Q

Macula in the utricle detect __

A

Horizontal position and movement

122
Q

The vestibular system facilitates ___ and inhibits ___

A
  1. Ipsilateral antigravity muscles
  2. Contralateral antigravity muscles
123
Q

What is the central pattern generator

A

A network of neurons (or even single neuron) that is able to exhibit rhythmic activity in the absence of sensory input

124
Q

In what two ways can neural rhythmicity arise

A
  1. Interactions among neurons
  2. Interactions among currents in individual neurons
125
Q

How do CPGs drive spinal motor neurons

A

By raising and lowering their membrane potentials rhythmically

126
Q

What are the functional areas of the neocortex

A

Visual, motor, auditory, and olfactory

127
Q

CN I location

A

Rhinencephalon

128
Q

CN II location

A

CNS

129
Q

CN III location

A

Midbrain

130
Q

CN IV location

A

Midbrain

131
Q

CN V location

A

Motor nucleus in pons
Sensory part in brainstem column

132
Q

CN VI location

A

Rostral medulla oblongata

133
Q

CN VII location

A

Rostral medulla oblongata

134
Q

CN VIII location

A

Medulla oblongata

135
Q

CN IX location

A

Column in medulla oblongata

136
Q

CN X location

A

Column in medulla oblongata

137
Q

CN XI location

A

Column in medulla oblongata

138
Q

CN XII location

A

Column in medulla oblongata

139
Q

What is the lateral geniculat nucleus

A

A category of sensory projection nuclei of the thalamus that plays an essential role in normal visual processing

140
Q

The ___ pupillary light reflex is stronger

A

Direct

141
Q

What is the menace response

A

Consists of the animal blinking in response to a gesture

142
Q

Which nerves control the extraocular muscles

A

CN III, IV, and VI

143
Q

Which extraocular muscles are supplied by CN III

A

Levator palabrae superiosis, dorsal/medial/ventral recti, and the ventral oblique muscles

144
Q

Which extraocular muscles are supplied by CN IV and what is the function

A

Dorsal oblique
Intorts eyeball

145
Q

Which extraocular muscles are supplied by CN VI and what are their functions

A

Lateral rectus m (lateral movement)
Retractor bulbi (retracts bulb)

146
Q

What cranial nerves are involved in the vestibulo-ocular reflex

A

CN III, IV, and VI

147
Q

Which nerve (and which part) supplies the hearing apparatus

A

The cochlear portion of CN VIII

148
Q

What stimulates the cochlear nerve

A

Pressure waves in the fluid in the inner ear stimulate the hair cells in the cochlea

149
Q

Which nerve(s) innervate the masticatory muscles

A

The motor nucleus of CN V and the mandibular branch of CN V

150
Q

Which nerve(s) innervates the muscles of facial expression

A

The motor nucleus of CN VII

151
Q

CN III ___ the eye

A

Opens (levator palpebrae superioris)

152
Q

CN VII __ the eye

A

Closes (orbicularis oculi)

153
Q

Which cranial nerves are found in the nucleus ambiguus

A

CN IX, X, XI

154
Q

What do the cranial nerves of the nucleus ambiguus supply

A

The striated muscles of the pharynx, larynx and esophagus

155
Q

The recurrent laryngeal nerve is a branch of which cranial nerve

A

CN X

156
Q

Which nerve innervates the intrinsic and extrinsic muscles of the tongue

A

The hypoglossal nerve

157
Q

Which nerve(s) is responsible for taste

A

CN VII and IX

158
Q

Which nerve(s) is responsible for tongue sensation

A

CN V

159
Q

What do LMNs regulate

A

Muscle tone and bulk

160
Q

Name 3 signs of paresis due to LMN dysfunction

A
  1. Decreased muscle tone
  2. Decreased reflexes
  3. Neurogenic muscle atrophy
161
Q

How does the cerebellum coordinate tone and movement of the head, body and limbs

A

By modulating the activity of upper motor neurons

162
Q

What do most ataxic cases have?

A

A spinal cord lesion and compression of conscious proprioceptive and spinocerebellar tracts

163
Q

Name two areas of the cerebellum you would see lesions that would cause UMN/LMN issues

A

Purkinje cells and floculonodular lobe

164
Q

List 4 clinical signs of cerebellar disease

A
  1. Ataxia
  2. Hypermetria & increased tone
  3. Tremor
  4. Normal mentation
165
Q

In nystagmus, slow eye movement is in the direction __ to head movement

A

Opposite

166
Q

Damage to ascending proprioceptive tracts causes __

A

Ataxia

167
Q

Damage to descending motor tracts causes __

A

Increased reflexes/UMN paresis

168
Q

List 3 functions of the forebrain

A
  1. Interpretations of sensory impulses
  2. Motor function
  3. Planning & organization
169
Q

What does ARAS stand for

A

ascending reticular activating system

170
Q

What does the ARAS do

A

Determines arousal levels, regulates sleep
AND functions as a triage system to rank the incoming information in terms of importance

171
Q

List signs of forebrain lesions

A
  1. Behavior changes
  2. Changes in mentation
  3. Central blindness
  4. Conscious proprioceptive deficit
  5. Circling/head aversion towards side of lesion
  6. Seizures
172
Q

List signs of brainstem lesions

A
  1. Conscious, subconscious proprioceptive & UMN deficits
  2. Nociception reduction in the head
  3. Decreased arousal
  4. Cranial nerve dysfunction
173
Q

Where do you find the ARAS system

A

The brainstem

174
Q

Define seizure

A

A paroxysmal transitory disturbance of brain function that originates in the forebrain, starts suddenly, ceases spontaneously and has a tendency to reoccur

175
Q

What is the difference between conscious and reflex responses to a nociceptive stimulus

A

A reflex response does not mean the patient has good nociception, lack of conscious nociception is when there is a problem

176
Q

List 4 functions of the brainstem

A
  1. Motor & sensory
  2. Afferent & efferent tracts
  3. Role in regulating cardiac respiratory function
  4. Consciousness & sleep cycle (ARAS)
177
Q

The direction of a nystagmus is defined as the direction of the ___

A

Fast phase

178
Q

How are transitions between different gaits generated

A

By varying the network’s driving signal and/or by altering internal oscillator parameters

179
Q

The rubrospinal tract is responsible for which phase of locomotion

A

The protraction phase

180
Q

Stimulation of what evokes walking, trotting and galloping

A

The mesencephalic motor region

181
Q

Define the autonomic nervous system

A

A system which includes the enteric nervous system, has upper and lower motor neurons and sensory and motor pathways

182
Q

How many neurons are their in the autonomic nervous system

A

3 (1 UMN, 2 LMN)

183
Q

Where are the two LMNs in the autonomic nervous system

A

1st in CNS (presynaptic)
2nd in ganglion (postsynaptic)

184
Q

In the autonomic nervous system, presynaptic LMNs are ___ and post synaptic LMNs are ___

A

Presynaptic are myelinated
Postsynaptic are unmyelinated

185
Q

What are the divisions of the autonomic nervous system

A

Sympathetic and parasympathetic

186
Q

What is the enteric nervous system

A

Postsynaptic parasympathetic neurons

187
Q

What neurotransmitter causes pupil dilation

A

Noradrenaline

188
Q

What neurotransmitter causes pupil constriction

A

Ach

189
Q

What are 4 clinical signs of horner’s syndrome

A
  1. Pupil constriction
  2. Retraction of globe
  3. Drooping
  4. Protrusion
190
Q

Which cranial nerve supplies parasympathetic signals to the pupil

A

CN III

191
Q

What is the ‘boss’ of the ANS

A

The hypothalamus

192
Q

What are the two noradrenaline receptors

A

Alpha (constricts) and beta (dilates)

193
Q

What are the two ach receptors

A

Nicotinic (presynaptic) and muscarinic (postsynaptic)

194
Q

What is the innervation to the detrusor muscle

A

The pelvic nerve (parasymp)

195
Q

What is the innervation to the inner urethral sphincter

A

Hypogastric nerve (symp)

196
Q

What is the innervation to the external urethral sphincter

A

Pudendal nerve (somatic)

197
Q

Which animal does not have cilia

A

The cat

198
Q

Which extraocular muscles are innervated by CN III

A

Dorsal, ventral and medial recuts
Ventral oblique

199
Q

Which glands produce the lipid part of tears

A

Meibomian glands

200
Q

Which glands produce the aqueous part of tears

A

Lacrimal and nictitans glands

201
Q

Which cells produce the mucus part of tears

A

Conjunctival goblet cells

202
Q

What is found in the outer layer of the ocular tunic

A

The sclera and cornea

203
Q

What is found in the middle layer of the ocular tunic

A

The iris, ciliary body and choroid

204
Q

What are the 4 layers of the cornea

A
  1. Epithelium
  2. Stroma
  3. Descemet’s membrane
  4. Endothelium
205
Q

__ drugs dilate the pupil

A

Mydriatic

206
Q

___ drugs constrict the pupil

A

Miotic

207
Q

Dilator muscles of the eye are under ___ innervation

A

Sympathetic

208
Q

Constrictor muscles of the eye are under ___ innervation

A

Parasympathetic

209
Q

What secretes aqueous

A

Ciliary processes

210
Q

What is the iridocorneal angle

A

Where the majority of the aqueous humor leaves the eye

211
Q

The lens fibers meet each other to form ___

A

Suture lines

212
Q

Define homeothermic

A

Body temperature maintained within narrow limits

213
Q

Define poikilothermic

A

Body temperature varies with that of surroundings

214
Q

Heat energy moves __ temperature gradients

A

Down

215
Q

Small animals have ___ heat loss per unit mass

A

Greater

216
Q

Define the thermoneutral zone

A

The ambient temperature range where a mammal can maintain constant core temperature without expending extra energy

217
Q

What mediates the control of blood flow to dermal capillaries to help regulate heat loss

A

SNS

218
Q

What is non-shivering thermogenesis

A

Increasing heat production by increasing metabolic rate (action on brown adipose tissue)

219
Q

What is the only effective means of heat loss if ambient temperature is greater than body temperature

A

Evaporation

220
Q

Fever occurs when…

A

The set point of the hypothalamic thermoregulatory center is increased

Animal Body Systems & Cases (10 decks)

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