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Nervous system 2 Flashcards

(57 cards)

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1
Q

CSF is produced by …….

A

choroid plexus of the ventricles

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2
Q

CSF if found between …. & ……

A

pia mater & arachnoid mater

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3
Q

Unlike the pia mater, arachnoid mater ….. sulci

A

passes over

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4
Q

Dura mater is two layers, …. & …..

Dural folds are ……

A 
meningeal & periosteal 
folds of dura that extend into the septa
1. Falx cerebri
2. Falx cerebelli
3. Tentorium cerebelli
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5
Q

Falx cerebri & tentorium cerebelli separates the cranial cavity into ……….

A

two lateral chambers housing the cerebral hemispheres, and posterior chamber for the cerebellum & brainstem

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6
Q

Sella turcica is covered by …….

A

diaphragm sellae

* In the sphenoid bone

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7
Q

Venous sinuses are formed ……

A

between meningeal & periosteal layers of the dura mater

* Drain into the IJV

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8
Q

Emissary veins connect …….

A

the venous sinuses & the extracranial veins

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9
Q

Diploic veins are ….

A

veins between outer & inner tables of the skull. Connected to the emissary veins

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10
Q

The lateral ventricles are separated from each other by ……, and are connected to the third ventricle by ……..

A

septum pellucidum

foramen of Monro

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11
Q

The third ventricle is located in ……, and is connected to the fourth by …….

A

midline (diencephalon)
Sylvian duct (which passes through the midbrain)
* Blockage of Sylvian leads to hydrocephalus

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12
Q

The fourth ventricle is located between ……, and is connected to the SAS via …….

A

ventral of cerebellum, superior to the medulla, and dorsal to the pons

  • Two lateral foramen “Luschka” & one medial “Magendie”
    • The fourth is continuous with the canal of the medulla & spinal cord (they lack CSF)
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13
Q

The BBB is formed by ……..

The blood CSF barrier is formed by …..

A

capillary endothelium connected by tight junctions

* tight junctions along the choroid cells

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14
Q

In adults, the spinal cord ends at …….

A

L1 or L2

* Lumbar punctures are done at level of L4

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15
Q

Filum terminale is …….

A

a derivative of pia mater, extended below conus medullaris

  • Covered by dura mater at S2
  • At the coccyx, it is called the coccygeal ligament
  • Surrounded by cauda equina (roots of lumbar & sacral nerves)
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16
Q

L1 - S2 is called …… which forms ….. & innervates ….

A

lumbar enlargement
sacral plexus
legs

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17
Q

In humans, there are …… vertebra, while there are …….. spinal nerves

A

33
7, 12, 5, 5, 4
* There 31 nerves (8, 12, 5, 5, 1)
* Coccygeal & S5 nerves are unimportant

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18
Q

The gray matter contains …….

A

cell bodies & neuropil

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19
Q

The cell bodies of the general visceral efferent in the spinal cord are located at ……..

A

intermediolateral nucleus of the lateral horn (for pregan. sympathetic nervesو T1 - L2), and in lamina VII for pregan. parasympathetic nerves

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20
Q

Lamina IX is located at …… & contains …..

A

anterior horn

neurons for the general somatic efferent (alpha & gamma)

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21
Q

Afferent pathway of the spinal cord arises from ….

A

the DRG

* for both general visceral & & somatic

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22
Q

Renshaw cells are …….

A

interneurons that receives an afferent (collateral) like the one to the alpha neuron.

  • Causes inhibition of the alpha neuron and activate the antagonist muscle
  • Targeted by C. tetani antitoxin
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23
Q

Muscles involved in fine movement contain high number of ……..

Study These Flashcards
A

muscle spindles

  • They monitor length & rate of change of length.
  • Responsible for stretch reflex
24
Q

The function of GTO is to monitor …….

Study These Flashcards
A

the muscle tension

* They are encapsulated, connected in series

25
Muscle tone is dependent on input from ...... & output from ......
muscle spindles alpha motor neurons * Lesion in either the ventral root or the dorsal abolishes muscle tone
26
The somatic nervous system has one neuron between the CNS & the muscle, called ......
LMN | * The ANS has 2 neurons (prega. lightly mylinated. Postga. unmylinated)
27
The vagus supplies parasympathetic input to the viscera up to the ........
splenic flexure | * From the splenic flexure down, the sacral division supplies the parasym. innervation
28
SSA includes ........ SVA includes ....... GSA includes ....... GVA includes .......
vision & hearing/balance taste & smell proprioception general sensation
29
Myelencephalon contains the nuclei of ....... | while metencephalon contains ..........
* 9,10,11,12 | * 5,6,7,8
30
The nuclei of ....... is in the telencephalon, while for CN II is in .......
CN I diencephalon * Note: 3,4 in mesencephalon
31
Levator palpebrae superioris function is .....
elevation of the upper eyelid | * Innervated by CN III
32
The white rami contains .......
preganglionic sympathetic GVA & GVE | * The gray rami contains GVE only
33
The olfactory bulb is .......
an evagination of the telencephalon
34
Compression of CN III causes ......
loss of parasymp. innervation first | * Vascular disease (i.e DM) causes loss of GSE only
35
The trigeminal ganglion is located in .....
middle cranial fossa | * The ganglion contains cell bodies of all CN V afferents except proprioceptive (to the mesencephalic)
36
Of the three division of the trigeminal N., the ...... is the most affected with HZV
ophthalmic division * Note: the Maxillary division is most affected by trigeminal neuralgia * These two are pure sensory, the mand. branch is mixed
37
The Mand. division relays sensory input from ......
the external ear, lower lip/teeth/gum, ant 2/3 of tongue, and chin
38
Lesion of corticobulbar tract supplying the trigeminal causes ...... of jaw jerk reflex
hyperactivity
39
The sensory part of the facial N. carries .......
taste from ant. 2/3 | cutaneous sensation from back of ear & external auditory meatus
40
Edingar Westfal nucleus is located .... to the motor nucleus, while for the superior salivatory nucleus it is located ....... to the motor
medial | lateral
41
The solitary nucleus (tract) receives ....
taste sensation SVA from 7,9,10 * rostaral nucleus is the gustatory. Works with the 7, 9 &10 nerves (SVA) * Caudal portion deals with afferents from baroreceptors (GVA)
42
The geniculate ganglion contains ......
cell bodies of the SVA only (pseudounipolar) | * Located in the facial canal
43
The facial N. makes a loop around ....... called ........
abducens N. | internal genu
44
The 7th & 8th cranial nerves both pass through ....... to enter ......
internal auditory meatus | middle ear
45
The motor portion of the facial N. leaves the skull through .......
the stylomastoid foramen | * The motor portion divides into branches in the parotid
46
Loss of taste sensation in the ant 2/3 of tongue suggests .........
a lesion of the facial N. proximal to the stylomastoid foramen * because the chorda joins the facial in the middle ear
47
When the stapedius muscle is paralyzed, ......
individual experiences hyperacusis | * occurs with bell's palsy
48
Facial N. UMN lesions will affect ........
contralateral lower face only | * LMN lesion affects ipsilateral upper & lower face
49
The vestibular ganglion is located in ......, and contains ...... The central axons form ....., which ends in ....
``` inner ear bipolar neurons vestibular nerve vestibular nuclei(some fibers end in flocculonodular lobe of the cerebellum) * The 8th nerve carries SSA afferents ```
50
The cochlear nuclei are located at ......
the level of the lower peduncle (junction of pons & medulla) | * There is dorsal & ventral nuclei
51
Nucleus ambiguus consists of .......
1. rostral part: to stylopharyngeus through 9 2. middle part: to muscle of larynx & pharynx through 10 3. caudal part: to intrinsic laryngeal muscles, through the cranial part of 11 (later joins 10) * All SVE. Located in the medulla (reticular formation)
52
The vagus N. exits the cranium via .......
the jugular foramen | * Same for Cn XI
53
The spinal portion of the Cn XI is formed by ...... , and it supplies .......
anterior gray horn of the first 5 cervical nerves | * SCM & trapezius
54
Cn. XII supplies ..... fibers to all muscles of the tongue except ...... It exits the skull via .....
GSE palatoglossus hypoglossal foramen in the occipital bone
55
UMN lesion of the hypoglossal causes ......
paralysis without fasciculation & atrophy (only happens in LMN lesions) * UMN lesions causes contralateral defect
56
Genioglossus contraction causes ........
protrusion of the tongue | * It is the largest muscle
57
Which artery is the most susceptible to rupture causing stroke??
The lenticulostriate artery (branch of middle cerebral artery)

Anatomy (10 decks)

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