Neuro Flashcards

(53 cards)

1
Q

What eye movement is limited with a CN IV palsy?

A

Cannot converge eyes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the classic complaint of a patient with a CN IV palsy?

A
  • Cannot read a book

- Trouble walking down stairs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Why is CN VI considered a false localizing sign?

A

Increased ICP can cause a palsy, rather than an anatomically specific lesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the CNs that are associated with the midbrain?

A

1, 2, 3, 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the CNs that are associated with the pons?

A

5, 6, 7, 8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the CNs that are associated with the medulla?

A

9, 10, 11, 12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the presentation of a patient that has a stroke in the pons?

A

Locked in with pinpoint pupils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the three major areas of bleeding in the brain?

A
  • Deep nuclei
  • Pons
  • Cerebellum
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Where is the most common location for a intracranial artery aneurysm?

A

Anterior communicating artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is difference in the appearance of a traumatic vs spontaneous subarachnoid hemorrhage on CT scan?

A

Spontaneous will be blood diffusely throughout the brain, whereas a traumatic will be localized to area of trauma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When is xanthochromia reliably present on LP for diagnosing SAH?

A

12 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the CCB used to treat SAH?

A

nimodipine–specifically for brain vasculature, and only given orally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What type of fluids should NEVER be given to stroke patients? Why?

A

Hypotonic fluids, since this will worsen any cerebral edema.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Why should all patients with a stroke be reversed on their anticoagulation (even those with mechanical valves)?

A

Risk of bleeding very high in ischemic area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the major difference between lacunar strokes vs cortical strokes?

A

Lacunar have either motor or sensory, whereas cortical strokes have both.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the tests that all patients with TIAs need to help prevent future strokes?

A
  • PFO/ECHO study
  • EKG/holter for a-fib
  • Carotid dopplers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How does the presentation of a venous sinus thrombosis differ from a stroke?

A

Venous clots can cause bilateral symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the “delta sign” on a non-contrast head CT that is diagnostic of venous sinus thrombosis?

A

Bright white appearance (clot) in the posterior confluence of sinuses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the treatment for a carotid artery dissection?

A

AC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the scoring system for predicting a stroke following a TIA?

A

ABCD2 scoring system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the role of steroids in the treatment of meningitis?

A

Should be given before abx are given

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the four indications to obtain a head CT prior to performing an LP?

A

Old
Immunocompromised
AMS
Focal neuro findings

23
Q

What are the three major abx given to adult meningitis pts?

A

Ceftriaxone
Vanco
Ampicillin

24
Q

Why can you not give infants less than 1 month old ceftriaxone? What can you give instead?

A
  • Can cause kernicterus

- Cefotaxime

25
What are the major viruses that cause aseptic meningitis (4)
- Enterovirus - West nile - HSV2 - VZV
26
Where does TB infect the brain, typically? Why?
Brainstem since this is the highest oxygenated area
27
What can clinically differentiate TB meningitis from other bacterial meningitis? What treatment benefits TB meningitis the most outside of abx?
- CN s/sx | - Steroids early
28
India ink stain = ?
Cryptococcal meningitis
29
What is the most common cause of a mass lesion in AIDS pts?
Toxoplasmosis
30
What blood test is pretty sensitive for CNS spinal cord infections?
ESR
31
What is the myotome level for the: biceps?
C5
32
What is the myotome level for the: Triceps?
C7
33
What is the myotome level for the: Quads?
L4
34
What is the myotome level for the: ankle?
S1
35
What is the myotome level for the: abdominal muscles
T8-T12
36
What is the myotome level for the: cremaster
L1-L2
37
What is the myotome level for the: anus
S2-S4
38
How many CCs of urinary retention is supportive of diagnosing cauda equina?
100-150 cc
39
Is having bilateral symptoms more or less specific for cauda equina?
More, since it has to be higher than a peripheral nerve root
40
What are the symptoms of syringomyelia?
Loss of pain/temp in hands
41
Why are chiari malformations associated with recurrent headaches?
Tonsillar "herniation" blocks CSF flow intermittently
42
What are the two major infections that precipitate Guillain barre syndrome?
Mycoplasma pneumonia and campylobacter diarrhea
43
What is the treatment for Guillain barre?
Plasmapheresis
44
What is the difference between tick paralysis and Guillain barre syndrome?
GBS has sensory deficits, whereas tick paralysis does not
45
What are the three major cause of ptosis?
Horner's syndrome Third nerve palsy Myasthenia Gravis
46
Which muscles are primarily affected with myasthenia gravis: proximal or distal?
Proximal
47
What is the diagnostic test for myasthenia gravis?
Edrophonium test or ice pack test
48
What are the major risks of edrophonium?
Cardiac arrhythmias and heart blocks
49
How do you differentiate between myasthenia gravis and lambert-eaton syndrome?
Myasthenia gravis gets worse with repetitive action, whereas Lambert-Eaton syndrome gets worse
50
What is Lambert-Eaton syndrome associated with?
Cancer (it's a paraneoplastic syndrome)
51
Who is usually affected with acute periodic paralysis?
Young men with thyroid disorders
52
Why must you be careful with replacing potassium in patients with acute periodic paralysis?
Not a problem of total body loss, rather of maldistribution. Thus you may overshoot potassium if giving too much
53
What is the pharmacologic long term treatment for acute periodic paralysis?
Beta blockers