Neurology Flashcards

(95 cards)

1
Q

what is the max amount of CSF fluid you can remove for a sample?

A

1ml/kg

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2
Q

what is the site of sampling for CSF

A

cerebellomedullary cistern- easier more risk

lumbar cistern - more difficult less risk

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3
Q

contraindications for CSF sample?

A

increased ICP
coagulopathy
cerebellomedullary cistern contraindicated in some conditions eg cervical trauma

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4
Q

are the following evaluation of MRI or myelography in spinal diagnostics?

more soft tissue detail
more likely to be diagnostic

more expensive/ equipment
takes 1 hour
expertise necessary for interpretation

A

MRI

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5
Q

are the following evaluation of MRI or myelography in spinal diagnostics?

risk of seizure, neuro degen, dysrthmia, resp arrest, infection, death
cervical or lumbar punctures challenging
intra-axial lesions not shown

standard x-ray eqiupment only or CT
quicker

A

myelography

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6
Q

what spinal condition does AChR ab in blood indicate

A

acquired myasthenia gravis

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7
Q

what spinal condition does 2M Ab in blood indicate

A

masticatory myositis

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8
Q

what is the neostigmine response test used for?

A

test for junctionopathies eg myasthenia gravis

prolongs action of acetylcholine- see if improves condition

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9
Q

what are electrodiagnostics used for?

A

identify denervated muscles- extent and severity

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10
Q

what does electromyography test for

A

if spontaneous activity, is abnormal muscle nervation

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11
Q

what is motor neuron conduction velocity used to test

A

assess conduction along a nerve (minimum 2 sites)

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12
Q

what is F wave electrodiagnostics used for

A

assess nerve roots, help identify conditions such as polyradiculoneuritis

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13
Q

what is repetitive nerve stimulation used to test?

A

assess neuromuscular junction for myosethenia gravis

repeatedly stimulate nerve 3-5 times

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14
Q

what neurological condition is this?
Px: sympathetic denervation
Cx: miosis, ptosis of upper eyelid, protrusion 3rd eyelid, enophthalmus, conjunctival hyperaemia
Dx: +/- radiographs (neck, chest, bullae), MRI (brain, c-spine, brachial plexus),CSF
- 1% Phenylephrine topical administration to the cornea
o 1 st order – dilation in 60-90 minutes
o 2 nd order – dilation in 20-45minutes
o 3 rd order – dilation in

A

horners syndrome

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15
Q

seisures are due to dysfunction of what area of the brain

A

forebrain

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16
Q

paresis of all or ipsilateral limbs, decerebate rigidity, depression stumpour and coma, cranial nerve deficits and possible vestibular signs

indicate dysfunction of which area of the brain?

A

brainstem

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17
Q

intention tremors, abnormal menace with normal vision and PLR, delayed initial then hypermetric postural responses indicate lesion in which part of brain

indicate dysfunction of which area of the brain?

A

cerebellum

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18
Q

disorientation with contralateral blindness, normal gait and circling with decrease postural responses in contralateral limbs

indicate dysfunction of which area of the brain?

A

forebrain

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19
Q

how is intracranial pressure calculated? (ICP)

A

vestibular eye movements/ nystagmus good early indicator of increased ICP as swelling blocks front and back of brain so eyes dont follow head movement

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20
Q

clinical signs of increased ICP?

A
mental status changes: depression, stupor, coma
bradycardia and hypertension 
altered PLR
vestibular eye movements/ nystagmus 
abnormal postures
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21
Q

What brain condition is this:

fine tremor – rapid, low amplitude, worse with stress/excitement,
+/- other deficits: head tilt, reduced menace response, ataxia

Dx: CSF – very mildly inflammatory, +/- MRI to rule out other problems

how would you treat

A
idiopathyic tremor syndrome 
Tx: 
-	corticosteroids for 4-6m 
-	+/- other immunosuppressive drugs 
-	diazepam initially 

Pgx: fair to good prognosis but possibility of relapse

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22
Q

What brain condition is this
how would you treat

infection:

Cx: usually acute CNS signs (obtundation and CN deficits most common), neck pain , pyrexia

CSF: increased protein concentration and pleocytosis; phagocytosed organisms in CSF rare

CSF/blood culture (positive sometimes) inside abscess or in small amounts

A

bacterial meningitis

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23
Q

intoxication with
Organophosphates, pyrethrin and pyrethroids, lead, ivermectin, metaldehyde, tremorgenic mycotoxins, medications (antidepressants, amphetamines, metronidazole, etc)

often leads to which clinical signs?

A

brain condition

reactive seisures

acute (<24h) onset, often GI, cardiovascular or respiratory signs before or at same time

§muscle tremors and fasciculations often seen

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24
Q

how would you assess severity of head trauma in a patient?

A

modified glasgow coma scale (higher score= better prognosis)

this is a serial neurological assessment

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25
how would you treat severe head trauma?
Fluid therapy: restore intravascular volume to ensure adequate CPP (resuscitation then maintenance) Isotonic or hypertonic crystalloids, colloids and blood products o Avoid glucose containing fluids: as hyperglycaemia is associated with a poorer outcome o 7,5% saline: reverses shock, decreases ICP, increases CBF and oxygen delivery Reduce raised ICP o Mannitol: ↓ blood viscosity, ↑ CBF and oxygen delivery, free radical scavenger, osmotic effect follow with crystalloid therapy to prevent dehydration  contraindicated in hypovolemia o Hypertonic saline hyperosmotic agent, free radical scavenger: Contraindicated: hyponatraemia, cardiac or respiratory disease
26
how to calculate CPP (cerebral perfusion pressure)
CPP= MABP- ICP
27
can you give steroids in head trauma cases?
NEVER | asc with hyperglycaemia and lactic acid production (inc infection risk)
28
Hydrocephalus
abnormal dilation of ventricular system within cranium Sx: toy breeds, young age Cx: domed shaped head, persistent fontanelle, abnormal behaviour, cognitive dysfunction, obtundation, circling/pacing, seizures, vestibular sig
29
Hydranencephaly + Porencephaly
communicating with subarachnoid space and/or lateral ventricles Cx: signs in 1st few months (circling, abnormal behaviour) or up to years few years (seizures)
30
Hepatic encephalopathy
any aetiology of acute or chronic liver failure - most commonly portosystemic shunt (PSS) reversible neurological manifestations secondary. Cx: - Vague signs - failure to thrive; weight loss; PU/PD; GI sign - Forebrain signs: behaviour changes; pacing; blindness; seizures - Rare brainstem or cerebellar signs reported in older dogs Dx: relies on bile acid stimulation test, fasting ammonia, ultrasound or CT angiography Tx: normal hepatic treatment but also neurological seizure control WITHOUT HEPATIC METABOLISM levetiracetam, KBr, PB, propofol
31
Hypoglycaemia
aet: insulinoma, liver disease, insulin overdose, juvenile hypoglycaemia Cx: - Lethargy, ravenous appetite and anxiety - weakness and tremors - Reduced vision and seizures Dx: low glucose levels (typically less than 3 mmol/l) – check insulin at same time BRAIN USES MORE GLUCOSE THAN ANY OTHER ORGAN
32
what element derangement would cause altered mentation, blindness, seizures, coma and death why be careful when correcting?
sodium | rapid replacement will cause swelling
33
Storage disease
brain condition- defect of a lysosomal hydrolase enzyme early onset, diffuse neurological dysfunction, progressive course, leading to death Px: accumulation and storage of substrate(s) within the cytoplasm of neurons, as well as in cells in other organs
34
changes in behaviour, memory, and learning ability: disturbances in sleeping, staring into space, getting stuck in corners, loss of housetraining ability, pacing, or vocalizing at night, newly developed behaviour problems cause by: accumulation of beta-amyloid, with senile plaque formation and neurofibrillary tangles what is this condition? how treated?
Cognitive dysfunction= pathological deterioration of the brain Tx: Selegiline, nutritional supplementation with antioxidants and other brain protective compounds and behaviour modification/environmental enrichment
35
``` cerebrovascular disease MUOs+ FIP metronidazole toxicity hypothyroidism and thiamine deficiency brain tumours ``` peripheral or central vestibular disease?
central
36
otitis media/ interna idiopathic vestibular disease facial nerve paralysis central or peripheral vestibular disease?
peripheral vestibular disease
37
which breeds are predisposed to congenital deafness?
dog+ cat breeds with white pigmentation and blue eye colour
38
what are 2 hearing tests used in veterinary
``` BAER= brainstem auditory evoke response OAEs= otoacoustic emissions ```
39
define seizure
one off event, occurrence of symptoms due to abnormal excessive or synchronic neuronal activity in the brain
40
define epilepsy
multiple seizures
41
3 causes of seizures how would you differentiate?
reactive: metabolic or toxic - usually concurrent neuro signs + history idiopathic: genetic, no inter ictal neuro signs epilepsy: pathology of intercranial or cerebral origin- concurrent neuro signs
42
which stage of a seizure is this any prediicting events, hours to seconds before actual seizure varies- animal may just be acting a bit odd
prodome
43
which stage of a seizure is this | intial manifestation of a sezure
Aura
44
which stage of a seizure is this seizure event 60-90 seconds involuntary muscle tone +/- abnormal sensations/ behaviour
ictal
45
which stage of a seizure is this lasts minutes to days , unusual behaviour or neuro deficits. after seizure episode. bilaterally symmetrical
post ictal
46
what does the ictal event most commonly occur | why?
sleep or rest | easier for neurones to become hyper-synchronised as already quite synchronised while sleeping
47
which phenotypic category of ictal seizure is this? consciousness impaired- dog has no awareness tonic-clonic phases most common involvement of both hemispheres
generalised ictal
48
which phenotypic category of ictal seizure is this? mostly conscious often involves jaw chomping, twitching, picks display fly catching (licking) behaviour involvement of one cerebral hemisphere can have autonomic, motor or behavioural forms
focal ictal seizure
49
what causes audiogenic reflex seizures in cats? old or young cats?
response to specific noise type of generalised myoclonic seizure older cats>15 year
50
What is a tonic phase in a seizure
Tonic: Muscle contraction or stiffening
51
what is a clonic phase in a seizure
Clonic: Involuntary rapid and rhythmic muscle contractions or jerking
52
what is a myoclonic phase in seizure
Myoclonic: Sporadic jerks or movements on both sides of the body
53
what is atonic phase in seizure
Atonic: Often called 'drop attacks' these seizures will sudden cause the dog to collapse
54
what is tonic- clonic phase in seizure
Tonic-Clonic: Tonic phase followed immediately by a clonic phase
55
what seizure is a audiogenic reflex seizure usually?
Myoclonic progressing to generalised tonic clonic
56
definition of status epilepicus
Status Epilepticus: Either a single seizure lasting longer than 5 minutes, or a number of seizures over a short period of time without regaining full consciousness between each seizure.
57
what is levetiracetam used to treat
audiogenic relex seizures in cats
58
what are some dds for epilepsy
``` Narcolepsy/ cataplexy Neuromuscluar collapse Syncope Movement disorder o Idiopathic head tremor syndrome o Episodic falling of CKCS- Cx: deer stalking posture, Px: paroxysmal hypertonicity, often after exercise. ``` Metabolic disease o Paroxsysmal dyskinesia in border terriers mainly, aet: gluten intolerance. Cx: canine epiloid cramping Vestibular disease
59
what age dogs are mostly affected by idiopathic epilepsy
6 months- 6 years old MRI for other causes if out of these age ranges
60
which of these is not a reason to start epileptic treatment Structural or metabolic epilepsy Status epilepticus or cluster seizures An interictal period of 6 months or less Post-ictal signs are severe or last longer than 24 hours The seizure frequency and/or duration is increasing and/or seizure severity is deteriorating over 3 interictal periods No post ictal signs The 1st seizure is within 1 month of a traumatic event
no post ictal signs
61
list 3 licensed anti-epleptic drugs in dogs
phenobarbitone KBr Imepitoin - only licensed as monotherapY
62
which anti-epleptic drug has side effects of bromism and it is important to keep a consistent diet? CANNOT BE USED IN CATS
KBr bromism= sedation, ataxia and pelvic limb weakness
63
which anti-epileptic drug is a GABA inhibitor
phenobarbitone
64
which anti-epileptic drug inhibits Ma+ hyperpolarisation and therefore raises seizure threshold?
KBr
65
which anti-epileptic drug has hepatoxicity and haematologucal abnormalities, PUPD (as well as ataxia, sedation) as side effects
phenobarbitone imepitoin- fewer side effects, but can only be used in milder seizures
66
are there any licensed anti-epileptic drugs in cats?
no
67
match the side effects with the antiepleptic drug in cats ``` eosinophilic bronchitis hepatic necrosis (only give in emergency) ```
``` eosinophilic bronchitis: KBr hepatic necrosis (only give in emergency): phenobarbitone ```
68
list 2 other anti-epleptic drugs than are unlicensed in dogs when would they be useful?
Levetiracetam- if have liver disease, or use in the 12 weeks KBr takes to build to steady levels Zonisamide- can be used to reduce phenobarbitone doses
69
when are seizures an emergency? when does irreversible neuronal damage occur
status epilepticus stage 2: within 30-60 mins (excessive glutamate release--> cell death)
70
stage 1 of status epilepticus includes what
tachycardia hypertension hyperglycaemia
71
what should you give to immediately stop seizure in status epilepticus
diazepam 1mg/kg per rectum can give owners some for emergencies
72
what are breakthrough seizures how should be managed?
break through of seizure whilst on anti-epileptic medication continuous reinfusions of midazolam propofol NOTE, IMPORTANT TO LOAD WITH PHENOBARBITOL READY FOR WHEN DOG COMES OF CRIs
73
once stable and diagnostic work up done from status epilepticus, what should you treat a dog with?
start AED- phenobarbitone 3mg/kg, can give IV if still status or clusters if not working- levetiracetam
74
3 types of ataxia: which present as a) subtle, shaking ass b) off balance, rolling, motion sickness, free falling c) drunken gait, clumsy, dysmetria, truncal sway, tequila song
a) proprioceptive/ spinal b) vestibular c) cerebellar
75
is this LMN or UMN injury muscle tone decreased caudal to the lesion spinal reflexes decreased to absent caudal to the lesion normal to decreased stride length possible ‘bunny hopping’, collapse, may seem stiff
LMN
76
is this LMN or UMN injury muscle tone normal to increased caudal to the lesion spinal reflexes normal to increased caudal to the lesion normal to increased stride length spasticity
UMN
77
``` define tetraparesis paraparesis monoparesis hemiparesis ``` how is it graded?
``` tetraparesis = all 4 limbs have paresis paraparesis = pelvic limbs have paresis monoparesis = one limb has paresis hemiparesis = 2 limbs on same side have paresis ``` paresis= weakness, reduced voluntary movement - non ambulatory= can walk if supported - ambulatory= cant walk graded 1-4
78
define plegia
complete loss of voluntary movement
79
intervertebral disc protrusion type I or II? shifting central material> protrusion of annulus fibrosis
type II
80
intervertebral disc protrusion type I or II? herniation of degenerated nucleus through annukus into spinal cord
type I
81
are these spinal conditions asc with pain or not ischaemic myelopathy acute non compressive nucleus pulposus extrusion hydrated nucleus pulposus extrusion - seagull sign vertebral malformations degenerative myelopathy
non painful
82
are these spinal condition asc with pain or not painful ``` steroid responsive meningitis arteritis discospondylitis syringomyelia degenerative lumbosacral stenosis intervertebral disc degeneration intervertebral disc extrusion- type I and II invertebral disc herniation myelomalacia vertebral fracture/ luxation atlantoaxial subluxation wobbles= cervical spondylmyelopathy meningitis of unknown origin spinal neoplasia ```
pain
83
what effect on bladder control bethanecol
increase detrusor muscle contraction useful if bladder large and not able to express
84
what effect on bladder control prazosin diazepam
decrease urethral tone useful if bladder large and not able to express
85
are the following signs asc with neuropathy, junctionopathy or myopathy? Cranial and/or spinal nerve(s) Mono-/multiple mono- /generalised Motor +/- sensory deficits (proprioception, nociception, hypo- or para-esthesia) Severe flaccid paresis, neurogenic atrophy and reduced-absent reflexes
neuropathy
86
are the following signs asc with neuropathy, junctionopathy or myopathy? Generalised Classically exercise intolerance with fatigue Normal sensory function Often intact tendon reflexes unless severe weakness
junctionopathy
87
are the following signs asc with neuropathy, junctionopathy or myopathy? Generalised or focal (usually symmetrical) Atrophy or hypertrophy Specific features: dimple contractures (myotonia); myalgia; restricted joint movement (contracture) Normal sensory function Often normal tendon reflexes but exceptions
myopathy
88
Chronic relapsing polyradiculoneuritis Chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy Protozoal (Neospora/Toxoplasma), Viral (FeLV/FIV) Diabetes mellitus, Cushing’s, hypothyroidism, hypoglycemia (insulinoma) Cats: hyperchylomicronaemia; hyperoxaluria Distal denervating disease, Chronic degenerative axonopathy, distal symmetrical polyneuropathy Breed associated including motor neuron disease, spinal muscular atrophy, neuroaxonal dystrophy, lysosomal storage disease neuro/ juction or myopathies? acute or chronic?
neuro, chronic
89
Polyradiculoneuritis (Distal denervating disease neuro/ juction or myopathies? acute or chronic?
acute neuropathy
90
Myaesthenia gravis (fulminant form) Botulism Organophosphate toxicity (Tick paralysis) (Snake bite) neuro/ juction or myopathies? acute or chronic?
acute junctionopathy
91
neuro/ juction or myopathies? acute or chronic? Congenital/acquired myaesthenia gravis
chronic junctionopathy
92
Polymyositis (severe) immune- mediated or infectious Electrolyte abnormalities Addison’s>hypokalaemia (Hypothyroidism) Congenital/acquired myaesthenia gravis neuro/ juction or myopathies? acute or chronic?
acute myopathy
93
``` Inflammatory polymyositis Infectious polymyositis Metabolic/Endocrine - Hypothyroidism/Cushing’s - Lipid storage/mitochondrial myopathies - Glycogenoses - Nutritional myopathy Paraneoplastic Muscular dystrophies, Congenital myopathies ``` neuro/ juction or myopathies? acute or chronic?
chronic myopathy
94
what in urine and what in blood indicates muscle damage
urine: myoglobinuria blood: CK, creatine kinase
95
what is the most common type of myositis? which type of myositis causes hyper extension of pelvic limbs?
immune mediated most common infectious myositis> hyperextension pelvic limbs