Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Small Animal Year 4 > Oncology > Flashcards

Oncology Flashcards

1
Q

what is tumour grading?

A

histological features of a tumour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is tumour staging?

A

tumour burden and sites involved

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what does TNM stand for in tumour grading?

A 
T= which primary Tissue is affected
N= metastatic spread to lymph Nodes
M= distant Metastasis sites
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

which lymph nodes do most tumours spread?

A

go to nearest node towards centre of body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

where do cranial abdominal tumours spread (LN)

A

sternal lymph nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

thyroid carcinoma LN spread?

A

retropharyngeal LN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

distal forelimb LN spread?

A

prescapular LN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

proximal forearm LN spread

A

axillary node

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

if on cytology a tumour sample has 3 or more of these, what does this indicate?

nuclear:
multinucleation
karygomegaly
mitoses
nuclear moulding- rapid cell growth
large angular or variably sized nuclioli

hypercellarity
pleomorphism
high and variable N:C ratio

A

criteria of malignancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

histiocytoma, lymphoma, mast cell tumours and plasmacytomas are which kind of tumours?

A

round cell tumours (lymphocyte origin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

trichoblastomas, sebaceous adenomas, hepatoid gland tumour, squamous cell carcinoma and anal sac adenocarinomas are which types of tumour cells?

A

epithelial tumours

malignant forms end in -carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

perivascular, nerve sheath tumours. fibrosarcomas and injection site sarcomas are which type of tumour cells?

A

mesenchymal/ spindle cell tumours

malignant end in -sarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what does

  • excisional biopsy
  • insicional biopsy

mean

A

excisional= whole mass is removed + histopathology
benign masses, small masses

incisional= part of mass removed + histopathology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what surgical margin should a benign mass have

A

1cm surrounding margin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what surgical margin should most carcinomas have

A

1cm surrounding margina dn one fascial plane deep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what surgical margin should soft tissue sarcomas and mast cell tumours have

A

2-3cm margins and one deep fascial plane

this is ‘wide’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is a ‘radical’ surgical margin

A

removal of whole tissue compartment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Define: primary chemotherapy

A

sole anti cancer treatment in highly sensitive tumour types

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

define adjuvant chemotherapy

A

treatment given after surgery to mop up microscopic residual disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

define: neoadjuvant chemotherapy

A

before surgery to shrink tumour size and increase chance of successful resection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

concurrent chemotherapy

A

simulatatious chemo and radiation therapy

  • increases tumour sensitivity to radiation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is the growth fraction of a tumour

A

fraction of cells dividing at any one time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is the mitotic index of a tumour

A

% or number od mitoses per high field power on light microscopy (cells in M phase)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is the mass doubling time of a tumour

A

time it takes for a tumour to double in size

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what does the gompertzian growth model show?

A

increasing number of cells in tumour decreases the growth rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q 
the following drugs are which kind of chemotherapy agents?
cyclophosphamide
melphalan
chlorambucil 
lomustine
A

alkylating agents

affects DNA replication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

the following drugs are which kind of chemotherapy agents?
doxorubicin, epirubicin
mitoxantrone
actinomycin D

A

antitumour antibiotics

affects DNA replication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q 
the following drugs are which kind of chemotherapy agents?
cytosine
arabinoside
methotrexare
5- fluorouracil
A

antimetabolites

affects purine and pyrimidine synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

the following drugs are which kind of chemotherapy agents?
vincristine
vinblastine

A 
vinca alkaloids 
(interfere with mitosis)

useful for mast cell tumours: vincristine + prednisolone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

how can L-asparaginase and corticosteroids be used in cancer tx?

A

both are chemotherapy like drugs

note: do not use steroids if going to start chemo later on as makes resistance higher later on

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

define metronomic chemotherapy

A

continous low dose chemotherapy, more drug dense

drugs: cyclophosphamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

CHOP, CEOP protocols in dog

COP protocol in cat.

are used to tx which tumour type?

A

lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

tumour cell death in radiotherapy occurs due to what?

A

proton beam inducting apoptosis, permanent cell cycle arrest or mitotic catastrophe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what are the 4 Responses to radiotherapy

A

Repair
Repopulation- cells recruited from G0
Redistribution
Reoxygenation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what is fractionation radiation therapy?

A

2 doses of radiation therapy given at different times

gives time for healthy tissue to repair, but also time for tumour cells to repair :(

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

which tumour characteristics are more sensitive to radiation therapy?

A

smaller more rapidly dividing

carcinomas> sarcomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

list 3 highly radiosensitive tumours

A

lymphoma
transmissible venereal tumour
gingival basal cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

are these tumours moderately or poorly radiosensitive?

  • Oral SCC (dogs)
  • Oral malignant melanoma (dogs)
  • Nasal tumours
  • Perianal adenocarcinoma
  • MCTs
  • Rhinarial SCC (cats)
  • Thyroid carcinomas
  • Brain tumour
A

moderate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

are these tumours moderately or poorly radiosensitive?

  • Fibrosarcoma
  • Haemangiopericytomas
  • Oral SCC in cats
  • Osteosarcomas
  • Rhinarial SCC in dogs
A

poor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

most common oral tumours in dog

A

malignant melanoma> squamous cell carcinoma> fibrosarcoma

m>s>f

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

most common oral tumours of cat

A

SCC> fibrosarcoma

S>F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

which dog oral tumour is this
Sp/br: smaller older dogs, golden retriever, cocker spaniel, miniature poodle, chow chow
Px: very locally invasive, high metastatic rate
Dx: melanin containing mesenchymal cells, elevated mitotic index
Tx:
- Surgery: Mandibulectomy preferred
- Radiation therapy
- Anti-metastatic treatment- chemo does not extend survival, plasmid vaccine immunotherapy (stimulates response to melanocytes)

A

malignant melanoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

which dog oral tumour is this

low metastatic rate, varies with grade.
Tx:
mandibulectomy preferred, RT a lot better survival than melanoma
Medical: piroxicam, piroxicam +carboplatin

tonsil from is highly metastatic

A

SCC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

which dog oral tumour is this

Sp/br: golden retriever and lab, middle aged
Px: often caudal maxilla in younger large breed dogs
B: locally invasive, low/ moderate metastatic risk
Tx: local control mainly- surgery>multimodal >RT alone, smaller tumour better outcome

A

fibrosarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what are epiludes?

A

non metastatic lesions arising from gingiva

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

which cat oral tumour is this
Sp/br: middle age/older ctas
Px: tends to be base of tongue but can be any location
Risk: ETS, flea collars, canned tuna
B: locally invasive, lower metastatic rate
Tx: none good. Mandible better prog than maxilla. Radiotherapy – accelerated hypofractionated radiation therapy protocols best. Surgery- if resectable better outcome. Electrochemotherapy- emerging.
Prog: best is rostral mandibular, worst is soft tissue lesions affecting tongue

A

SCC

47
Q

which oral cat tumour is this
Sp/br: middle aged or older
B: locally invasive, metastatic rate unknown
Tx: surgery

A

fibrosarcoma

48
Q

what tumour are these risk factors for?

entire female, older, obese, poodles, chihuahua, daschund, maltese

A

mammary tumour

49
Q

how would mammary tumours present?

what is the pgx for tumour>3cm

A

palpable fixed tumour, usually more than one.

poor pgx

50
Q

when would you surgically treat a mammary tumour with

a) single mastectomy
b) regional mastectomy
c) bilateral resection
d) chain mastectomy

A

a) single mastectomy - low risk
b) regional mastectomy - high risk
c) bilateral resection- young intact bitches with multiple tumours
d) chain mastectomy - cats

51
Q

which chemo drug used in mammary tumours?

A

doxorubicin (+/- cylophosphamide in cats)

prolongs few months

52
Q

with soft tissue sarcomas, what is the cardinal method of sampling ?

A

3 sections, relies on mass being sphere (tumour cut in half then half again)

53
Q

with soft tissue sarcomas, what is the bread loafing method of sampling ?

A

cut all the way along in slices

54
Q

with soft tissue sarcomas, what is the pathologist shaved margins method of sampling ?

A

samples all way round tumour- best but harder.

55
Q

what are outcomes of tumour removal

A

complete incision
incomplete excision
excision with narrow margins

56
Q

prognosis of soft tissue sarcoma removal without metastatic disease?

A

> 4 years

57
Q

what is the 321 rule for feline injection site sarcomas?

ALWAYS INCISIONAL BIOPSY 
wide margins (3-5cm with 2 fascial plane deep)
A

mass for >3 months
greater than 2cm diameter
continues to increase in size > 1month after injection

58
Q

how to prevent injection site sarcoma issues

A

inject in leg and tail rather than neck

59
Q

which tumour type is infiltrative, locally invasive and dont tend to metastasise (excpet sometimes to lung)

A

soft tissue sarcoma

60
Q

which dogs predisposed to oesteosarcomas

A

middle age-older large breed dogs, frontlimb> hindlimb

61
Q

what does pamidronate do in osteosarcoma treatment?

A

it is a bisphosphate, slows bone destruction

62
Q

why is raised ALKP levels an issue after leg amputation to treat osteosarcoma?

A

ALKP is indirect measure of bone isoenzyme ALKP. suggests metastasis if still raised after removal of leg.

63
Q

boxers and boston terriers are most likely to get which type of tumour?
MCT
Mammary tumour
Histiocytoma

A

MCT

64
Q

what is the most common type of skin tumour in dogs?

where else do these form

A

MCT

subcutaenous tissue, conjunctiva, oral mucosa and GIT

65
Q

what are common sites of metastasis for MCT?

A

LN, liver, spleen

check with US

66
Q

what is the use of the patnaik grading system?

A

to grade MCTs

67
Q

which grade (I-III) on the patnaik grading system is this tumour

benign, low recurrence, unlikely to cause death

A

grade I

68
Q 
which grade (I-III) on the patnaik grading system is this tumour?
variably metastatic, cause of death in 17-50% of patients, nodal metastasis -poor pgx
A

Grade II

69
Q 
which grade (I-III) on the patnaik grading system is this tumour 
highly metastatic and likely to be cause of death
A

grade III

70
Q

what is the kiupel grading system used for?

A

MCT- graded low or high

often used alongside patnaik system

71
Q

what surgical margin should be left for grade III MCTs?

A

3cm and 1 fascial plane deep , not to be used as sole modality

72
Q

what surgical margin should be left for grade I+II MCTs?

A

1-2cm lateral margins may be enough

73
Q

what are vinblastine/prednisolone, lomustine or TKIs used to treat?

A

MCTs

74
Q

what tumour would erythema, oedema, pruritis, haemorrhage (dariers signs)
with systemic signs of vomiting, melaena indicate?

A

MCT

75
Q

in a cat, which form of MCT is this

a) multiple raised hairless masses, rarely metastatic and surgical excision is usually curative?
b) intestinal palpable abdominal mass, metastasis common, site on spleen common, poor pgx

A

cutaneous MCT

visceral MCT

76
Q

which breed of dogs do Transitional cell carcinomas most likely occur?

A

scottish terrier

77
Q

which tumour presents with low urinary tract signs (haematuria, stranguria, polakuria)

Occasionally metastasises to bone
high metastatic rate to medial iliac lymph node

and can be wrongly identified as complicated UTIs?

A

Transitional cell carcinoma

78
Q

what is the common site of TCC tumours

A

transitional cell carcinoma = urinary bladder tumour

bladder trigone
urethra and prostate in males

79
Q

best way to biopsy TCC?

A

urinary catheter and prostatic wash> cytology

80
Q

prognosis of TCC?

A

several months with palliative care (NSAIDS, ABs from C and S)

surgery often impossible due to site, radiotherapy lots of complications

81
Q

which presentation of canine lymphoma is this?

Clinical signs: Vomiting, diarrhoea, weight loss, anorexia, pan-hypoproteinaemia (hypoalbuminemia), evidence of malabsorption. Abdominal masses or diffuse.

Sp/Br: Tends to be aggressive in dogs:

Dx: Diagnosis often delayed.

Pr: There may be progression from other GI disease (IBD?).

A

GI

82
Q

which presentation of canine lymphoma is this?
most common form

Path: generalised peripheral lymphadenopathy +/- other CS
CS: moderate to marked lymph node enlargement, some dogs clinically well, rapid deterioration, non specific sign: weight loss etc, specific signs: diarrhoea, vomiting, cough ocular signs
Regional oedema if lymph drainage impaired

A

Multicentric

83
Q

which form of canine lymphoma is this?
Can occur as solitary lesion or as part of multicentric form
Tachypnoea, dyspnoea.
Signs of hypercalcaemia (PU/PD, vomiting/diarrhoea, muscle tremors, anorexia, weight loss).
Occasionally pre-caval syndrome.
Altered position of PMI for cardiac auscultation, displacement of apex beat.

A

craniomediastinal

84
Q

which form of canine lymphoma is this?
2 forms:

Epitheliotrophic: T cell, solitary or generalized
Typical protocols are COP or lomustine + prednisolone. Retinoids have also been used with moderate success for controlling clinical signs (pruritus) or treatment.
Radiation therapy is very useful for localized mucocutaneous disea

Non-epitheliotrophic: More frequently B cell, More likely to have lesions elsewhere
Different appearances. Progression to raised, erythematous plaques/nodules. Variable pruritus.
In general poorly responsive to chemotherapy

A

cutaneous lymphoma

85
Q

what are some extra-nodal forms of canine lymphoma?

A

Hepatosplenic: Aggressive, no peripheral lymphadenopathy.T cell.

CNS: Mass lesion or diffuse. Variable neurological deficits but commonly signs of multicentric or diffuse lesions.

ii. Commonly ocular involvement.
iii. Generally T cell

c. Renal, urinary bladder, heart, muscle etc.

86
Q

define paraneoplastic syndrome

A

a set of symptoms caused by the tumour but not from the tumour being at that site

87
Q

what test is always used to diagnose lymphoma

A

cytology or histopathology

88
Q

these paraneoplastic syndromes are common with which tumour?

hypercalcaemia

A

lymphoma

89
Q

what stages of lymphoma are these

involvement of single lymph node or lymphoid tissue in single organ

A

stage I

90
Q

what stages of lymphoma are these

involvement of lymph nodes in a regional area +/- tonsils

A

grade II

91
Q

what stages of lymphoma are these

generalised LN involvement

A

Stage III

92
Q

what stages of lymphoma are these

hepatic or splenic involement

A

stage IV

93
Q

what stages of lymphoma are these

manifestations in the blood and involvement of bone marrow and or other organs

A

stage V

94
Q

what is the gold standard treatment for lymphoma

A

multidrug chemotherapy

95
Q

what are some common lymphoma chemo protocols

A

high dose COP
discontinuous CHOP, CEOP

CHOP= cyclophosphamide, doxorubicin, vincristine, and prednisone

CEOP= cyclophosphamide, epirubicin , vincristine, and prednisone

COP= cyclophosphamide,, vincristine, and prednisone

96
Q

what are common side effects of CHOP/CEOP/COP

A

GI
cyclophosphamide- sterile haemorrhagic cystitis
doxo/epi- cardiotoxicity

97
Q

what are rescue protocols for lymphoma

A

if first line tx doesnt work

DMAC
LPP

98
Q

what are mean survival times for
high dose COP
discontinuous CHOP, CEOP

A

high dose COP- 6-9 months

discontinuous CHOP, CEOP- 10-12 months

99
Q

what can you use to tx lymphoma if owners dont want to do chemo

A

prednisolone- not cannot then change mind

100
Q

cats with FeLV and FIV are more likely to devlop which tumour?

A

feline lymphoma

101
Q

what is best diagnosis of feline lymphoma

A

excisional biopsy of node > impression smear

wedge biopsy if large

102
Q

can feline lymphoma be staged?

A

nope

103
Q

treatment options for feline lymphoma?

A

corticosteroids

COP/CHOP/CEOP

104
Q

Prognosis of feline lymphoma

  • with treatment of high dose COP
  • without treatment
A

1 or 2 years

4 weeks

105
Q

what are the classifications of feline leukaemia

A

acute lymphoid
acute myeloid
chronic lymphoid
chronic myeloid

106
Q

which classification of feline leukaemia is this

very sick, rapidly progressive and fatal
High WBC counts
Concurrent pancytopenias
Poor prognosis (weeks-months) even with chemotherapy
tx: supportive eg blood transfusion,antibiotics, multiagent protocols: COP, CHOP

A

acute myeloid and acute lymphoid

107
Q

which classification of feline leukaemia is this

proliferation of mature lymphocytes in bone marrow
Rare (T cell > B cell > T-ve, B-ve)
Lymphocyte counts >30x109/L
Decision to treat based on the individual (presence of CS, degree of lymphocytosis)
Treatment with prednisolone/chlorambucil – survival times of 1-3 years reported.

A

chronic lymphoid leukaemia

108
Q

which classification of feline leukaemia is this
proliferation of mature myeloid cells (normally neutrophils) in bone marrow
Even rarer!
Have to exclude other causes of extreme neutrophilia; infection, immune mediated disease; paraneoplastic syndrome
May undergo blast crisis??

A

chronic myeloid leukaemia

109
Q

how is leukaemia diagnosed?

A

haematology and blood smear evaluation
bone marrow biopsy
flow cytometry if peripheral blood

110
Q

what type of feline tumour is this
Aet/path: Systemic neoplastic proliferation of plasma cells results in overproduction of antibody (IgA or IgG)
Can get local disease – extramedullary plasmacytoma which can progress to multiple myeloma

Hyperproteinemia can lead to hyperviscosity syndrome
- Neurological symptoms, retinal detachment, congestive heart failure (cats > dogs), hypertension, coagulopathy

Bone marrow involvement can lead to cytopenias – secondary infections
Renal disease present in 33-50% of dogs (multifactorial due to proteinuria, hypercalcaemia, renal infiltration, urinary infection).

Dx: in dogs must fulfil 2 of the following criteria
1. Monoclonal gammopathy (seen on serum protein electrophoresis)
2. Radiographic evidence of osteolytic bone lesions
3. >5% neoplastic plasma cells or >10-20% plasmacytosis in the bone marrow
4. Bence-Jones proteinuria
Dx in cats: plasma cell infiltration of visceral organs

metastasis: liver spleen (hepatosplenomegaly) and bone marrow (osteolytic bone lesions)

Tx:
Supportive care
• Blood transfusions
• Plasmapheresis
• Antibiotics if secondary infection
• Therapy for hypercalcaemia
Systemic disease
• Prednisolone (~ 40 days)
• Chemotherapy
• Prednisolone 0.5mg/kg SID reducing to EOD – stop after 2 months
• Melphalan 0.1mg/kg SID reducing to 0.05mg/kg SID
• Cumulative myelosuppression is seen – perform haematology q2 weeks then monthly.
• Median survival of 540 days reported (dogs)

Local extramedullary plasma cell disease may be treated surgically if no systemic involvement.

A

Multiple myeloma

very rare

111
Q

basic pln for palliative care of cancer patient

A

1) NSAIDS- meloxicam, carprofen AND paracetamol - DOGS ONLY
2) codeine, tramadol
3) other adjuvants
eg gabapentine- neuropathic pain
oral buprenorphine
tricyclic antidepressant- amitriptyline, clomipramine, fluoextine

NEVER STEROID AND NSAID

112
Q

How to manage GI signs in cancer patient in palliative care
vom/ nausea:
diet

A

vom/ nausea: maropitant, ondansetron

avoid raw food- salmonella, lowered immune system

113
Q

pros and cons of steroids in cancer tx

A

Pros

Useful for round cell tumours (lymphoma, myeloma, mast cell tumour)
Reduce inflammation (brain tumour, radiation therapy side effects)
Can stimulate appetite

Cons

Weak analgesia effect
Preclude use of NSAIDS
Muscle wastage
No effects on carcinoma and sarcoma
Can prevent diagnosis
Can create resistance (lymphoma)

Small Animal Year 4 (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions