Neurology Flashcards by Edward Shelton

Which gene is implicated in episodic falling syndrome in CKCS?

BCAN gene

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suspicion for canine epileptoid cramping syndrome can be confirmed with what test?

Measurement of anti-gliadin and -transglutaminase-2 antibodies (BEFORE diet change to a gluten-free diet)

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Mutation of which gene is implicated in paroxysmal dyskinesia in soft coated wheaten terriers?

PIGN gene

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Non-epileptic myoclonus is associated with infection with what virus in dogs?

Distemper

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What gene is implicated in Lafora disease in dogs? Which breeds affected?

Gene = EPM25 gene. Miniature wire-haired dachshund, beagle, miniature and standard poodle

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Which gene is involved in juvenile onset myoclonal epilepsy in Rhodesian ridgebacks?

DIRAS1 gene

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What would your top differential diagnosis be for a 15 year old DSH presenting with hearing disturbances, withdrawn behaviour and myoclonic episodes?

levetiracetam responsive reflex myoclonic audiogenic seizures

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What frequency of EMG discharges are seen in primary orthostatic tremor? Which signalment reported? Treatment?

13-18Mhz , young adult Great Danes and Scottish deerhounds, 1st line pheno, 2nd gabapentin

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Which part of the spinal cord would be involved in a dog with syringomyelia and phantom scratching?

ipsilateral dorsal horn

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What is associated with development of lumbar syringomyelia/

A more caudal spinal cord termination

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Which EMG findings are seen in dogs with LS foraminal stenosis?

cord dorsum potential onset latency, f-wave onset latency and increased f-ratio

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What factors increase risk of fecal incontinence of dogs with t3-l3 ANNPE?

lack of NSAID administration, spinal shock, intramedullary hyperintensity >40% cross section of spinal cord on t2-w images

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What findings are common on post-mortem examination of pugs with long-standing thoracolumbar myelopathy?

Meningeal fibrosis with associated focal spinal cord destruction and neighbouring vertebral column lesions

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Finding a completely degenerate disc in the T10-L3 region (in addition to the operated site) at time of surgery increases the risk of what?

Recurrence of clinical signs (hazard ratio of 2.92)

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Decreases in which parameter on diffusion tensor imaging of the spinal cord has potential as a biomarker for degenerative myelopathy?

Fractional ansiotropy

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Which acute phase protein is not useful for predicting outcome or severity of IVDE?

CRP

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what serum biomarker may be used to predict development of progressive myelomalacia if measured 24h post-op?

phospharylated neurofilament heavy chain

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the absence of hydromyelia (dilation of central canal) in IVDE indicates what?

chronicity

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Which breed have a high prevalence of intervertebral disc-associated epidural haemorrhage?

French bulldog

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Which cytokines are upregulated in epidural adipose tissue of dogs with cauda equina syndrome?

TNF-a and IL10

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What CT imaging finding is most common in dogs with discospondylitis?

Endplate involvement which is most frequently bilateral

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More than half of pugs with thoracolumbar myelopathy are affected by what disease?

constrictive myelopathy

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Short-term prophylactic use of which treatment did not decrease cliically detectable GI complications in dogs with acute TL-IVDE?

omeprazole

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What is the most common reported site for discospondylitis in dogs?

L7-S1

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What bacterial species is prevalent as a cause of discospondylitis ?

Staphyloccocus

What is associated with an increased risk of relapse in discospondylitis? What is associated with an increased risk of progressive neurological dysfunction?

a) Trauma B) previous steroid use

What anaesthesia related factor is negatively associated with outcome in dogs with TL IVDH?

duration of anaesthesia

What percentage of dogs with spinal cord injury may develop chronic neuropathic pain?

15%

What is the most common identifiable cause of muscle cramps?

hypocalcaemia secondary to primary hypoparathyroidism

What intervention may resolve paroxysmal dyskinesia in Maltese dogs?

switch to gluten free diet

which factors are associated with increased likelihood of clinical signs associated with hemivertebrae?

pug breed, severe kyphosis, ventrolateral subtype, fewer hemivertebrae

What is associated with chiari-like malformation/ syringomyelia signs in chihuahuas?

Number and size of persistent fontanelles

A variant in which gene has been associated with development of hereditary sensory and autonomic neuropathies in a family of mixed breed dogs?

RETREG1 gene

What mean age of onset of signs is reported for beagles with Lafora disease?

8.3 years (vs wire haired dachshund 6.9yrs )

Congenital muscular dystrophy has been reported in association with a variant in which gene?

LAMA2

Inherited spinocerebellar degeneration in the Bouvier des Ardennes is caused by a missense variant in which gene?

KCNJ10

Congenital insensitivity to pain is associated with a variant in which gene?

SCN9A

A nonsense variant in the gene encoding what has been identified in a cat with L-2-hydroxyglutaric aciduria and multicystic cerebral lesions?

L-2-hydroxyglutarate dehydrogenase

What features show genetic correlations with congenital sensineural deafness in Dalmatians?

Blue irises and pigmented head patch

What can be considered as a treatment for patients with obstructive hydrocephalus caused by tumors located within the third ventricle?

Ventriculoperitoneal shunting

Which treatment for raised intracranial pressure is associated with increases in plasma sodium and chloride concentrations ?

Hypertonic saline

Occurrence of paradoxical pseudomyotonia in spaneils is associated with what?

Exercise

what outcome is possible for cats with acquired myasthenia gravis with no detectable mediastinal mass?

spontaneous remission without treatment

Congenital myastthenic syndrome in Golden Retrievers has been linked to a mutation in which gene?

COLQ gene

What genetic variant is associated with demyelinating polyneuropathy? What clinical signs are expected and what is the disease progression?

MTRM13/SBF2 genetic variant. MegaO and aphonic bark, clinical signs generally remain stable over the long term and prognosis good with preventative feeding measures and symptomatic tx.

What factors are associated with clinical remission of acquired myasthenia gravis in dogs and what factors are negatively associated with clinical remission?

Positive- younger age and comorbid endocrine dz. Negative- initial Achr Ab concentration and regurgitation

What physical examination finding may be a potential clinical sign of hereditary polyneuropathy in an Alaskan malamute?

tongue atrophy

A 10 month old male neutered DSH presents with a history of progressive muscular weakness. What is a ddx?

Immune-mediated polyneuropathy

What treatment may be appropriate initially in a cat with immune-mediated polyneuropathy?

Monitoring (as outcome similar in cats with no tx vs steroids or L-carnitine supplementation)

What feature of CSF analysis correlates with relapse rate in SRMA?

TNCC

What percentage of North American dogs with acute SRMA suffer at least one relapse?

48%

which neuronal cell surface antigen has been detected in CSF from dogs with MUA?

NMDAR1

what proportion of dogs with inflammatory brain disease have elevated CSF lactate?

47%

What percentage of dogs with MUE develop post-encephalitic epilepsy (PEE) and what percentage of these prove drug-resistant? What are risk factors for development of PEE ?

23% develop of which 21% drug resistant. Risk factors for developing PEE are presence of acute symptomatic seizures and MRI lesions in the hippocampus

what feature differentiates dicerebellate from decerebrate posture?

diCEREBERATE affects consciousness, decerebellate does not

absence of the oculocephalic reflex in a comatose patient suggest a lesion where?

brainstem

what value for CSF IgG index suggests increased intrathecal IgG production?

>/= 0.272

What can act as a marker of both inflammatory and neoplastic disease when measured in CSF?

Vascular endothelial growth factor

What is a potential biomarker for diagnosis MUE and evaluating response to treatment?

Neurofilament light chain

Pugs at higher risk of NME have lower levels of which cell and higher levels of which interleukin?

Lower levels CD4+ T cells and higher levels IL-10

What neutrophil lymphocyte ratio had a sensitivity of 71.7% and specificity 83.9% for differentiating dogs with MUE from dogs with other forebrain diseases?

4.16

what electrodiagnostic feature predicts recovery in animals with brachial plexus injury

radial compound electric potential >5mV

What impact does trazodone have on neurological exam findings in healthy dogs?

New or progressive proprioceptive defects in 20% dogs

What are the 2 most common causes of non-traumatic spinal haemorrhage?

1. Angio 2. SRMA

What is the response rate of dogs with seizures administered rectal levitiracetam?

94%

which AED may be used for noise phobia?

imepitoin

when IV access is not available, which route of adminsitration can be successful in stopping seizures?

intranasal midazolam

what seizure type is most common in dogs with seizures triggered by eating?

Focal progressing to generalised

which arteries is most commonly implicated in cerebrovascular accidents in dogs?

Rostral cerebellar artery

Which gene is implicated in Dandy Walker Syndrome (Eurasier dog)

VLDR

CSF lactate is higher in which groups of dogs?

Higher in dogs with focal vs generalised seizures, higher in dogs with inflammatory or neoplastic dz than dogs with IE or unknown epilepsy

what marker of neuroinflmmation is higher in epileptic dogs than non-epileptic?

Serum high-mobility group box 1

Seizure control is reported in what percentage of dogs with cluster seizures or status epilepticus receiving a midazolam Cri?

77.4% dogs overall (85% of dogs with IE, 74% with structural, 75% unknown epilepsy, 57% reactive seizures)

What factors are associated with short-term mortality in dogs with status epilepticus?

Increased patient age, shorter duration of hospitalisation, development of SE pre arrival, SE caused by potentially fatal aetiology

What impact does blood brain barrier dysfunction have in dogs with MUO?

More likely to seizure

Bruxism in the awake state in combination with other neurological deficits may be seen with which neurolocalisation?

forebrain

What is the predominant seizure type in pomeranians with epilepsy?

focal

What biochemical parameter should be monitored in dogs receiving cannabidiol for drug resistant epilepsy?

liver enzymes

Use of which diet is recommended in dogs with drug resistant epilepsy?

Medium chian triglyerice dietary supplement

which sites are most commonly implicated in juvenile cervical spondylomyelopathy?

c5-6, c6-7

What findings may indicate an increased likelihood of a structural cause for episodic head tremor and what structural cause is most commonly identified?

Older age and concurrent neuro signs. Most common= pituitary mass. Intracranial lesion can't be excluded in dogs with no neuro signs.

Which serum immune-system related molecules are significantly higher in dogs with IE?

C3 and C4

which biochemical parameters show mild increases in cats receiving zonisamide for management of seizures?

ALT and ALP

nerve root signature is most frequently seen with IVDH at which site?

C6-C7

What factors are not associated with congenital sensorineural deafness in client-owned white devon rex cats?

Sex and blue irises

what serum biomarker may aid differentiation of structural epilepsy from idiopathic?

Serum neurofilament lightchain

What factors are associated with a) survival to 6 months and b) relapse in dogs with MUO?

a) being a pug, epileptic seizures, paresis and higher neurodisability scale score at presentaiton. B) incomplte resolution of clinical signs during 6 months after dx, higher NDS score, longer duration clinical signs (63.5% alive at 6 months, 50.6% relapse during tx)

what finding on initial diagnostics may suggest a reduced disease-related death in dogs with MUO?

Absence of abnormalities on MRI

what median survival time is reported for juvenile dogs with MUO?

84 days

what corticosteroid treatment regime does not carry an increased risk of relapse compared to traditional treatment length for SRMA?

6-week prednisolone protocol

What percentage of dogs on zonisadmie monotherapy for newly dx idiopathic epilepsy achieve seizure freedom?

55%

what daily dose of levetiracetam is needed to achieve a serum concentration known to be therapeutically effective in humans, especially when administered with concurrent phenobarbital (which can lower serum lev concentration)?

99-216mg/kg/day

which genetic defect associated with globoid cell eukodystrophy in dogs?

GALC

what antibiotic group may be associated with exacerbation of acquired myasthenia gravis?

Fluoroquinolones

which dogs with idiopathic epilepsy have an increased risk to die of probable sudden unexpected death in dogs with elilepsy (pSUDED) ?

Brachycephalic and those with cluster seizures

boluses of which drug at a dose of 5mg/kg may be effective for management of refractory status epilepticus?

ketamine

which test that can be performed by owners at home can be used in aiding detection of caine cognitive dysfunction syndrome?

The sustained gaze test (correlated with the canine dementia scale)

What physical exam finding may be a common cilnical sign in dogs with neuronal degeneration , for example in lysosomal storage disease?

Positioning h ead tilt (head tilt triggered in response to head movement)

higher doses of KBr may be required in dogs living in which geographical location?

closer to the sea

Border Collies with idiopathic epilepsy are more likely to have more severe epilepsy with what signalment feature?

onset at younger age

what factor on presentation may suggest that medical management of spinal empyema is appropriate?

ambulatory

what recommendation should be considered for a boxer satisfying Tier I confidence level dx of IE?

MRI of brain (due to frontiers paper documenting low prevalence of IE in boxers vs neoplastic dz - 6.8% vs 93.2%)

No differences in success were observed in dogs treated with what prior to tx with cyclosporine and prednisolone for MUA?

cytarabine

what novel therapy may be a consideration for improvement of behavioural comorbidities in dogs with idiopathic epilepsy?

fecal microbiota transplantation

which AEL drug affects metabolism of phenobarbital and causes an increase in PB serum concentrations over time?

zonisamide

Neurology Flashcards

(105 cards)