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Infectious disease Flashcards

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1
Q

Higher incidence of CKD is associated with positive antibody serology for which vector borne disease?

A

Ehrlichia

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2
Q

what presenting signs is most common in dogs with Physaloptera infection?

A

chronic v+

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3
Q

what environmental factor in the months prior to diagnosis may increase risk of lyme nephritis?

A

increased precipitation

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4
Q

which fluroquinolone may be efficacious in treatment of lepto?

A

Enrofloxacin-C (Enrofloxacin HCl-2H20))

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5
Q

what clinical progression may be seen in dogs with tick-borne encephalitis?

A

Biphasic (non-specific signs prior to presentaiton with neuro signs)

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6
Q

wich platelet related parameters are different in dogs with parvovirus compared to controls?

A

higher MPV and platelet volume distribution width (but no difference in PLT count between groups) - possible increased PLT activation in Parvo patients?

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7
Q

A 3 year old dog in Arizona presents with a 3 month history of lameness and non specific pain. Temperature within normal limits but spinal hyperaesthesia detected. Thoracolumbar radiographs identify smooth, round central end plate lysis (‘hole punch’ lesions). what is your differential diagnosis?

A

Brucella canis discospondylitis (retrospective in frontiers of dogs in Colorado and Arizona - 94% <5hrs, 72% non specific signs for >3 months, only 14% fever, 86% ‘hole punch’ lesions radiographically)

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8
Q

what factors are associated with a more guarded prognosis in dogs with generalised tetanus?

A

<2yrs and shorter duration clinical signs at time presentaiton, hyperthermia and resp complications

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9
Q

what therapy is unlikely to be sufficient for dogs with suspected blastomycosis in respiratory distress?

A

traditional oxygen therapy

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10
Q

what treatment protocol should be considered in dogs with non resectable pythiosis?

A

itraconazole, terbinafine + prednisolone

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11
Q

what is the most common cause of liver fluke associated chronic hepatitis in cats? What intermediate host precedes infection of cats? what is the infective stage?

A

Platynosomum spp. IH= lizard. Infective stage = metacercariae

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12
Q

what nematode is associated with chronic vomiting in dogs? What is the intermediate host?

A

Physaloptera spp. IH = insects (cockroaches, field crickets, canal crickets, flour beetles)

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13
Q

What is a common gastric nematode of cats?

A

Ollalanus tricuspis

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14
Q

Which parasite is associated with pseudoaddisons?

A

Whipworm (trichuris vulpis)

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15
Q

Adults of which trematode reside in the mesenteric veins with infections most commonly seen in dogs in Texas and Louisiana? What test is most sensitive to diagnose? What intermediate host leads to infection of dogs and how? What is a reservoir host for this parasite?

A

Heterobilharzia americana (causes canine schistosomiasis)
PCR more sensitive than fecal exam for dx
IH - snails - cercariae from infected snails penetrate skin of dogs wading/ swimming in infected water.
RH - racoon

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16
Q

Which primary parasite of the pancreas may be associated with development of EPI in cats?

A

the pancreatic fluke - Eurtytrema procyonis. commonly occurring in the pancreatic duct of raccoons and foxes in the eastern US and occasionally found in the pancreatic duct, bile duct, and gallbladder of domestic cats. Infection may be associated with weight loss and intermittent vomiting. Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency and pancreatitis may be observed. The eggs are medium sized (45–53 × 29–36 mcm), and the life cycle involves a land snail and a second intermediate host thought to be an arthropod. Treatment may be attempted with fenbendazole (30 mg/kg/day, PO, for 6 days)3 or praziquantel/pyrantel/febantel (praziquantel and pyrantel each at 5.8 mg/kg/day and febantel at 28.8 mg/kg/day, PO, for 5 days), although these drugs are not approved for this use.

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17
Q

what is the intermediate host of the lung fluke Paragonimus kellicotti? What lung lobe is pathology most frequently seen in on radiographs? What complication from this infection can result in acute respiratory distress?

A

IH = crayfish. R caudal lung lobe most common. Pneumothorax from rupture of cavitary lesions.

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18
Q

auto-infection increases the risk of ‘superinfection’ with which pulmonary nematode, increasing the risk of severe clinical signs being observed?

A

Filaroides spp. (e.g. F. hirthi or F. milkski)

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19
Q

which immunodeficiencies account for pneumocystis carinii infection in different breeds?

A

Variable immunodeficiency - dachshund, Pomeranian
IgG deficiency - CKCS
CD40 ligand deficiency - Shih Tzu

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20
Q

what parasites can cause tracheal granulomas in dogs and cats respectively?

A

Dog = filaroides (Oslerus) osleri
cat = Curtebra

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21
Q

What effect does histoplasmosis have on calcidiol, haptoglobin and CRP?

A

calcidiol decreased (positively correlated with albumin), CRP and haptoglobin increased (negatively correlated with calcidiol)

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22
Q

which disease has been associated with tachypnoea and chorioretinitis in chiahuhua puppies

A

pneumocystis (also a separate case report of 2x sibling chihuahuas with oculosystemic pneumocystis)

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23
Q

what is the mechanism of action of amphotericin B, terbinafine and what about azole anti-fungals? Which amphotericin B formulation may be less nephrotoxic? Which azole is often first choice, which would you go for if better CNS penetration required? Which azalea is similar to fluconazole but with better activity against moulds including aspergillum and fusarium spp.? Which azole inhibits synthesis of cortisol in adrenal gland?

A

Amphotericin B - binds to sterols in fungal cell membrane creatinine pores and allowing leakage contents

Terbinafine - inhibits ergosterol synthesis by inhibiting squalene epoxidase (enzyme that is part of fungal cell wall synthesis pathway)

Azoles - inhibit cytocrhome systems involved in ergosterol synthesis in fungal cell membranes via inhibition of 14-alpha-demethylase - increase celll wall permeability and lead to leakage cellular contents
- Itraconazole often first choice
- Fluconazole best if need CNS penetration
- Ketoconazole inhibits synthesis cortisol in adrenal gland
- Voriconazole - similar to fluconazole but with better activity against moulds (fluconazole not good against moulds) (however short t1/2 in dogs and ocular and neurotoxicosis in cats)

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24
Q

which breeds of dog and cat respectively are predisposed to sinonasal aspergillosis?

A

DOGS - dolichocephalic large breeds and bull terriers/ staffies/ min scnauz (GSD disseminated)
CATS- brachycephlic pure breeds (persians/ himilayns, exotics, scottish/ BSH/ ragdolls) - normally FeLV/FIV negative but DM may be a risk factor

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25
what percentage of dogs with aspergillosis experience relapses? What percentage have ongoing mucopurulent nasal discharge after mycological cure?
relapse rates 11-20% up to 52% dogs ongoing nasal discharge
26
which virulence factor allows blastomycosis budding yeasts to evade host immune response?
BAD1
27
which thoracic imaging finding is seen in ~25% blastomycosis cases?
Tracheobronchial LN enlargement
28
what can be expected to reduce with effective treatment of blastomycosis ?
Urine antigen (galactomannan)
29
what are negative prognostic indicators for blastomycosis and histoplasmosis?
CNS involvement and more severe respiratory disease (need for O2 supplementation, presence of abnormal lung sounds, dyspnoea, greater percentage of total lung or primary lung lobe affected). For history, indicators of BM suppression and liver involvement are also negative px indicators. Antigen concentration in urine at time of dx is prognostic in dogs iwht blast (one study all odds with antigen conc <5.0 ng/ml alive at 6 months vs only 59% >/= 5.0 ng/mL). Great Pyrenees dogs with histo don't do well...
30
how does clinical presentation of histoplasmosis differ in cats and dogs ?
both equally susceptible (vs blasto which is more common in dogs - dogs 2-5yrs, weigh 20-30kg, sporting/working and liver <4-500m from waterways at risk blasto) Histo dogs - GI and resp signs, organomegaly, cutaneous/ gingival lesions => working breeds more likely disseminated, toy breeds GI Cats - non-specific, 40% resp signs, 25% ocular , 20% skeletal involvement
31
what thoracic lymph node is most commonly enlarged in dogs with coccidiomycosis?
Hilar
32
what serologic antibody titre is confirmatory for coccidiodes infection?
>/= 1:16 (positive but <1:16 suspicious, wait other supportive dx tests)
33
A colleague approaches you to discuss two unfortunate cases, which treatment do you advise in each? A) A cat imported from Brazil with active sporothrix brasiliensis infection, the owner is immunocompromised B) A cat imported from Mexico with active Sporothrix schenckii infection , the cat cannot tolerate antifungals but only has localised skin lesions
A) consider euthanasia B) consider local hyperthermia
34
which stain will highlight the capsule of cryptococcus?
India ink on cytology (or Mayer's mucicarmine stains capsule rose on histopath)
35
which breeds of dog appear at higher risk of cryptococcosis in USA (and Australia) ? How about cats?
DOGS: USA - American Cocker Spaniels Australia- GSD, Doberman , Great Dane Cats - in Australia - Siamese, Birman and Ragdoll, but breed predisposition not been noted in USA
36
How can cryptococcus be treated in cats and in dogs?
Cats and dogs with disseminated dz or CNS involvement- use amphotericin B (poor ocular/ CNS penetration normally but cryptococcal meningitis = disruptions in BBB) - lipid complexed less nephrotoxic. 5-flucytosine synergistic with amphotericin B - tx with both for 4 weeks in cats ideally (never use 5-flucytosine as sole agent as risk development resistance). 5-flucytosine NOT recommended in dogs- risk toxic epidermal necrolysis within 2 weeks tx. If 5-flucticasone not available or recommended, fluconazole can be used in combo with amphotericin B. After 4 weeks of induction tx, azalea mono therapy continued Localised nasal infection in cats- can consider flucaonzole monotherapy (as better CNS/ ocular penetration than itraconazole) , newer azalea drugs (voriconazole / posaconazole) needing further research and voriconazole not advised in cats due to ocular/ neurotoxicosis. If not responding to fluconazole consider itraconazole to improve outcomes. Terbinafine anecdotally may help in combination with azole.
37
how long should you continue treatment for cryptococcus and what are indicators of treatment response?
may see marked inflammatory response with worsening neurological status - if happens in first 4d tx is NOT a negative px indicator.
38
how do the 2 serotypes of feline coronavirus that can lead to FECV or FIPV differ?
Difference in antigenic and genetic properties of their viral spike (S) protein -> FCoV1 more prevalent clincically but harder to grow in cell culture, FCov-2 easily propagated in cell culture but less common clinically. Aminopeptidate N (APN) is receptor for Fcov-2 but receptor for fcov-1 not identified. FCov1 contains notable insertion of a proteolyticcleavage site (S1/S2) that is important for infection and lacking in fcov2
39
why do FIP cats get lymphopaenia?
cytokine mediated depletion of cluster of differentiation CD8+ and CD4+ T cells
40
what allows for emigration of FIPV infected monocytes into tissues?
- enhanced expression of the integral adhesion molecules CD18 and CD11a facilities enhanced emigration into tissues where form granulomatous lesions
41
what accounts for increased vascular permeability in FIP?
Monocyte and macrophage derived vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) and matrix meetalloproteinases (MMPs) --> systemic vasculitis, immune mediated tissue destruction, organ failure and death
42
How does immune response to FIP infection determine disease phenotype?
Wet/effusive FIP = cats that mount a predominantly Th2 mediated humoral immune response Dry/non-effusive FIP = cats that mount mixed Th1/Th2 response Ocular/neuro - mixed Th1/th2 response, ay clear virus from visceral organs but immune response fails to penetrate BBB so enters brain / eyes Th1- macropahge/ CTL activation - cellular immunity - destroy phagocytosed antigen Th2 - activate B cells for Ab secretion (humoral immunity)
43
what antigen test is available for FeLV?
P27 antigen
44
what proteins do FeLV vaccinations target?
Surface glycoprotein (Su/ gp70) and/or P45 protein
45
how does risk of lymphoma vary between FeLV and FIV?
FeLV - 60x risk of lymphoma - ~25% of FeLV infected cats develop within 2yrs of progressive infection - most common mediastinal (thyme) or multi centric FIV- 5-6x increased risk lymphoma but typically high grade, extra nodal B cell
46
How do P27 antigen test findings alter for abortive, regressive, progressive and focal FeLV infections?
- Abortive: antigen negative, would require neutralising antibody testing to confirm - Regressive: apart from in initial transient viraemia (or if re-activates) will be antigen negative, PCR for confirmation Progressive - antigen positive (3-6 weeks after infection) , PCR or viral culture/ IFA to confirm (PCR positive 1-2 wks post infection) Focal - alternating or low positive P27 antgigen , proviral PCR will be negative or low positive
47
what point of care test is available for FIV? What confirmatory test can be followed up with?
ANTIBODY POC test (uses an FIV core or envelope protein) - highly specific (>99%), and sens (>92%). Confirmatory- western blot or IFA/ PCR (proviral DNA or RNA)
48
what do southern, northern and western blot test for?
S N (O) W D R (O) P (Southern = DNA, northern = RNA, western = protein)
49
which point of care test can distinguish an FIV infected form vaccinated cat?
NOT the IDEXX snap combo FeLV/FIV - can't distinguish vaccines from infected BUT Witness FeLV/FIV combo test and the Antigen Rapid FIV ab/FELV ag test can distinguish FIV infected from vaccinated with 100% specificity BUT may still give false +ve results in FIV uninfected cats that have been recently vaccinated...
50
what is the likely outcome for kittens if queen infected while pregnant with FeLV or FIV?
FeLV - kittens tend to die in-utero or soon after birth - POC testing not impacted by MDA (as antigen test) FIV - abortions/ still births unlikely - consider POC testing at 16 weeks, if +ve then may still be due to MDA- retest at 6 months. Queen to kitten transmission higher if infected while pregnant.
51
what endotoxins does tetanus bacillus secrete?
1. Tetanospasmin - leads to the clinical syndrome of tetanus => retrograde intra-axonal transport, prevents neurotransmitter release by cleaving and inactivating synaptobrevin (member of the SNARE protein family) 2. Tetanolysin - local tissue damage to optimise infection
52
what are the different classes of tetanus infection?
Class I - only facial signs, II- generalised rigidity or dysphagia (+/- class I signs), III- I/II + recumbency or seizures , IV- presence of autonomic dysfunction Survival rate decreases with increased severity class
53
What electrodiagnostic findings are expected in tetanus?
'''doublets''- double discharges, F waves may be abnormal
54
what are the 3 life stages of toxoplasma gondii?
1. Sporozoites - develop in oocysts after 1-5 days of exposure to O2 and appropriate temp/humiditiy 2. Tachyzoites- develop after extra intestinal infection, disseminate in blood/ lymph during active infection and replicate rapidly intracellularly until cell destroyed --> Dx strongly suspected if tachyzoites demonstrated within clinical specimen (but may not be able to distinguish from neospora) 3. Bradyzoites are the slowly dividing persistent tissue stage that form in the extra intestinal tissue of infected hosts as immune responses attenuate tachyzoite replication.
55
how can antibody titres be used to diagnose toxoplasmosis?
Single high (>1:64) IgM or 4 fold increase in IgG in patient with consistent signs is diagnostic
56
what haematology ratio could have prognostic value in canine parvovirus infection?
Platelet to lymphocyte ratio (A cut off of 700 showed a 21.5% sensitivity and 90% specificity for nonsurvival.)
57
what treatment is associated with lower survival times for disseminated aspergillosis?
itraconazole alone compared to multimodal
58
which lipid dysregulations are associated with Babesia canis infection?
decreased cholesterol, phospholipid and a-lipoprotein
59
Which babesia strains can pass between dogs, notably fighting dogs?
gibsoni and vulpes
60
recrudescence of chronic subclinical infections with what organism may occur after Rickettsia rickettsii infection?
Bartonella
61
which recently recognised Bartonella species is associated with infective endocarditis in dogs?
Bartonella rochalimae
62
what inflammatory ocular changes may be seen in cats with blastomycosis?
uveitis, chorioretinitis and retinal detachemnt
63
What clinical presentation is most common in dogs infected with Brucella suis?
subclinical
64
which anti-arrhythmic drug may be combined with itraconazole for treatment of Chagas disease in dogs via disruption of calcium homeostasis in T cruzi?
Amiodarone
65
what ECG changes are most common in dogs with Chagas disease?
ventricular arrhythmia , AV block
66
what azole treatment may be considered in dogs with coccidiomycosis refractory to flu/itraconazole?
posaconazole
67
how does calcidiol differ between dogs with coccidiomycosis and controls?
no difference, although serum calcidiol lower in dogs with IgG titers >/=1:32 (who were also more likely to have disseminated disease)
68
Which point of care cryptococcus test offers 92% sens/93.2% spec?
CrAg LFA
69
Recovery from which viral infection in dogs can be associated with corneal oedema and proteinuria?
Canine adenovirus 1
70
what is responsible for cat scratch disease?
Bartonella clarridgeine, henselae and koehlerae
71
what is the best test available for bartonella?
BAPGM enrichment culture PCR
72
what treatment is advised for bartonella?
Doxy with enro for long term home tx , or rifampicin with doxy/ azithromycin with rifampicin if CNS involvement. Doxy and amikacin for endocarditis or during hospital. Tx for 4-6 weeks (6-12 weeks if endocarditis, 12 weeks if osteomyelitis/ polyarthritis). Start 2nd abc (if patient state) 5-7d later to avoid risk of Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction (lethargy, fever and v+ within week of starting abx due to rapid bacterial death)
73
which breeds of dog are over-represented for Lymes?
Lyme arhtropathy - retrievers and GSD Lyme nephritis- golden retrievers and labradors (they also get A.phagocytophilum more commonly!)
74
what are the species of ehrlichia and anaplasma?
EHRLICHIA: canis- monocytes - dogs and cats chaffeensis- monocytes - dogs and humans ewingii- granulocytes - dogs and humans ANAPLASMA: Phagocytophilum- granulocytes - dogs, cats, horses, rodents , humans Platys- platelets - dogs
75
what is the vector for salmon poisoning disease (Neorickettsia helminthoeca)?
Nanophyetus salmincola (a fluke) -> fluke eggs transform into miracidia which infect small snails (oxytrema silicula) that live in both Fresno and brackish stream water - cercariae leave snail and penetration fish (commonly salmon) -> transform into metacercariae (usually in kidneys) - dogs infected after ingesting parasitised fish where metacercariae then transform into adult flukes and neorickettsia helminthoeca then infects and replicates within cells of the mononuclear-phagocyte system. TREAT: doxy but also praziquantel to tx fluke
76
what needs to happen for hepatozoon infection to occur? How would you treat it?
INGESTION of tick Tx -> H. Americanum (likes to go to mm.) - TMPS and clindamycin and pyrimethamine for 14 days- can be associated with relapse- must follow with long term anti-protozoal . In one study long term administration of decoquinate achieved prolonged remission H.Canis- ? tx like Bcanis- imidocarb dipropprionate
77
what species of leishmania cause visceral vs cutaneous form?
visceral- L.infantum cutaneous- L.braziliensis
78
how does immune response vary between leishmania resistant and susceptible dogs?
Resistant - only mild signs - develop th1 cell mediated immune response - can progress to clinical dz if T cell response exhausted/ concurrent infections/ immunodeficient Susceptible dogs - strong Th2 (humoral) response - weak cell mediated response - B cell and plasma cell expansion - enlarged lymphoid organs - type III hypersensitivity (IC dz)
79
how does cytauxzoon felis appear cytologically?
parasite of erythrocytes, singlet ring-shaped pirosplasms ('signet rings')
80
what is the reservoir host and the vector for cytauxzoon felis? How to treat?
reservoir host = bob cat vector = lone star tick (Ambylobacter americium) and Dermacentor veriabalis - undergo sexual reproduction in tick mid gut, asexual reproduction in host phagocytes - then invade RBC Tx as per B.gibsoni- Atovaquone and azithromycin - 10d course - only 60% cats survive despite tx
81
how are dogs infected with Chagas dz?
kissing bug defecates on them or they ingest it --> myocarditis Tx- not well described - some dogs don't get any Csx... If affected - nifurtimox (GI and neurological adverse effects) and steroids OR benznidazole - for 2 months (OR itraconazole and amiodarone)
82
how do different species of babes appear cytologically
piriform- pear shaped inclusions in RBC - B.canis vogeli (USA) or B.canis Rossi (SA) - large babesia, B.gibsoni small (also get B.conradiae in Southern California- pathogenicity unclear and tick vector not known) Tx- B.canis- imidocarb diproprionate - side effects = SLUD! - consider pre-tx atropine to reduce side effects Tx. B.gibsoni- atovaquone and azithromycin +/- concurrent glucocorticoids if IMHA
83
zygomycosis may be mistaken for the more common pythium insidiosum both clinically and cytologically/ histologically - how may the 2 be distinguished on histo?
thicker hyper diameter in zygomycosis (basidiobolus spp mean 9um, conidiobolus mean 8um vs p.insidiosum mean 4um)
84
mutations in which gene have been associated with Cytauxzoon felis atovaquone resistance?
M128 cytb mutations
85
aspirates from which location are most likely to identify cytauxzoon schizonts?
spleen
86
what proportion of cats with FIP are alive after 12 weeks treatment with GS/remdesivir?
81.30% (different paper- 86% alive at 6 months, another different paper - 84.4% alive at longest follow up point... )
87
what urinary complication should be considered in cats receiving GS441524 treatment?
urolithiasis
88
Responding to remsedivir/ GS441524 treatment of FIP within what time frame is associated with greater chance of long term survival?
30 days
89
of cats achieving remisison of FIP with GS41524 treatment, what percentage relapsed within 12 months?
0%
90
what oral anti-viral is an alternative to GS441524 for treatment of FIP?
molnupiravir
91
which virus is associated with chronic lymphocytic hepatitis in cats?
domestic cat hepadnavirus
92
a 7 year old male neutered Labrador presents with diarrhoea, vomiting, weight loss, hypergloublinaemia, elevated ALT, eosinophilia and hypercalcaemia. Pinpoint hyper echoic foci are noted in the intestines, liver and mesenteric lymph nodes during abdominal ultrasound. What is your differential diagnosis , how would you confirm diagnosis and what treatment would you administer?
Heterobilharzia americana (liver fluke) - dx by fecal PCR, tx praziquantel and fenbendazole (but 17.6% dogs may die)
93
does fungal culture improve diagnostic sensitivity for histoplasma when used alongside cytopathology and antigen detection?
no, but might help identify isolates for which fluconazole is less likely to be effective
94
what has been reported as the sole presentation of leishmaniasis in a cat (case report) ?
chronic diarrhoea diagnosis of granulomatous enteritis secondary to leishmaniosis was made. Gastrointestinal signs resolved after treatment with allopurinol and a dietary supplement of nucleotides and active hexose-correlated compounds (N-AHCC), but seropositivity and gammopathy persisted 8 months later.
95
what clinical signs are most common in cats with leishmania?
cutaneous lesions (75%), ocular disease (37.5%), non regen anaemia (37.5%), renal abnormalities (31.3%). 56.3% had immunosuppressive conditions/ comorbiidites identified.
96
what marker may identify dogs at risk of leptospiral pulmonary haemorrahge syndrome?
sICAM-1
97
what percentage of dogs still had a postiive urine PCR for leptospirosis as long as 18 days after antibiotic treatment?
38%
98
what clinical sign is noted in dogs and cats with Corynebacterium ulcerans ? (which has zoonotic potential)
nasal discharge
99
what fungal disease has been reported as cause of a colonic mass in a French bull dog and may be considered a (very rare) ddx for pythium or zygomycosis?
Basidiobolus ranarum
100
what is the odds ratio of leptospirosis infection when receiving a quadrivalent vs a bivalent vaccine?
OR for L4 = 0.2 vs 2 for L2
101
which systemic mold infection is associated with multisystemic dz of the vertebral column, CNS, kidneys, spleen, LNs, lungs and heart and may be mistaken for other mold when using phenotypical microbiologic methods?
Rasamsonia argillacea
102
which breeds of dog are less likely to be seroreactive for bartonella in the USA?
toy breeds
103
which CK cut off was 95% sensitive and 96% specific for neospora meningoecnephalitis?
>485 U/L
104
which virus has been associated with fatal encephalitis in a Bengal cat?
Feline morbillivirus
105
which fungus has been reported as a cause of anterior uveitis, peripheral lymphadenopathy, hyperglobulinaemia, anaemia and thrombocytopenia in an apparently immunocompetent giant schauzer, treated successfully with itroconazole and terbinafine?
Mycoleptodiscus indicus
106
what parameter at admission is associated with survival in cats with feline parvovirus?
t4
107
what percentage of fecal samples are positive for canine parvovirus on qRT-PCR 10 days after vaccination?
62% fecal (and 31% blood and 12% pharyngeal samples) - proportion of positive pharyngeal samples decreased 20d after vacc and all sites negative 12-28d after 2nd vacc
108
what collection technique has higher odds of positive PCR for tritrichomonas compared to colonic wash?
fecal loop
109
what food borne pathogen has been reported as the cause of mesenteric lymphadenitis in a cat?
Listeria monocytogenes

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