Respiratory Flashcards

(44 cards)

1
Q

Which dog breeds are over-represented for spontaneous pneumothorax

A

Huskies and golden retriever

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2
Q

what technique is faster for emergency front of neck access when compared to tracheostomy?

A

Cricothyrotomy (frontiers paper)

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3
Q

Development of parapneumonic effusions is reported in what percentage of dogs with presumptive bacterial pneumonia?

A

33.8%

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4
Q

what may be considered during bronchoscpy and BAL that could reduce risk of desaturation in dogs and cats?

A

High flow oxygen therapy

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5
Q

a genetic mutation resulting in disorders bronchiolar epithelium with resultant familial ARDS is recognised in which breed?

A

Dalmatian

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6
Q

what parameters should trigger provision of supplemental o2 therapy and when should positive pressure ventilation be considered?

A
  1. O2 if resp distress/ PaO2 <80mmHg, SpO2 <94%
  2. PPV if initial therapeutics unable to maintain PaO2 <60 mmHg/ PaCo2 >60mmHg or SpO2 <90 %, OR if respiratory fatigue
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7
Q

which feature of BAL culture reports is not appropriate to be used for predicting antibiotic requirement?

A

CFU/ml

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8
Q

What features of BAL may differentiate EB from EBP?

A

EB lower TNCC, lower eos percentage (20% vs 60%) and less likely to have peripheral eosinophilia (7% vs 50%)

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9
Q

what finding can improve during treatment of feline lower airway disease but does not correlate with clinical score?

A

radiographic score

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10
Q

A mutation in which gene, associated with ciliary aplasia in humans, has been reported in a miniature schnauzer with recurrent pulmonary infections?

A

NAT10

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11
Q

what owner reported QoL is most typical for Norwich terriers with upper airway syndrome?

A

excellent QoL

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12
Q

clinical cure of Bordetella infection with inhaled gentamicin is more likely in which scenarios?

A

when undiluted 5% solution used and in dogs with <1000 cells/mcl on lavage

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13
Q

how does CRP differ between dogs with bordetella infection and aspiration pneumonia?

A

CRP significantly lower in dogs with Bb than aspiration and CRP more likely to be normal in Bb dogs in the absence of alveolar lesions on imaging

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14
Q

what protozoal infection should be a differential for pulmonary mass like lesions in cats?

A

Toxoplasma

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15
Q

what percentage of dogs with chronic cough receiving inhaled steroids via AeroDawg had improvement in QoL , cough frequency , duration and severity after 6 weeks of treatment?

A

32/36 (89%)

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16
Q

Which matrix metalloproteinase activities in WHWT with IPF might be useful for diagnosis of IPF but are not prognostic?
Separate paper- which extracellular matrix glycoprottein may serve as a diagnostic biomarker of IPF?

A

serum MMP-7 (sig hgher in CIPF WHWT vs healhty dogs of other breeeds and dogs with CB and EBP); pro-MMP-9 and pro-MMP-2 , activities significantly higher in BALF of WHWT with CIPF than healthy WHWT and pro-MMP-9 higher than CB dogs while pro-MMP2 higher than CB and EBP dogs, but differences not detected in plasma

b) - Osteopontin (SSP1)

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17
Q

which infectious disease has been associated with fatal haemopytsis after bronchoscopic biopsy?

A

D.immitis

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18
Q

what treatment may be considered for polyethylene glycol aspiration?

A

bronchoscopic lavage

19
Q

what condition has been reported in cats as a cause of delayed acute respiratory distress after tracheal intubation? How can this condition be managed?

A

Obstructive fibrinous tracheal pseudomembrane (OFTP) - radiographic evidence tracheal narrowing- resolved by OFTP removal

20
Q

how does calcidiol alter in dogs with CIRD vs healthy shelter dogs?

A

lower in CIRD

21
Q

A client insists on using a pediatric spacer with a custom-made mask instead of the Aerodawg. Should you worry about delvery of inhaled medication?

A

No - appears performance comparable

22
Q

What chest physiotherapy techniques improved P/F ratio within 48 hours and decreased need for oxygenation in dysponeic dogs with acute airway fluid accumulation?

A

Prolonged slow expiration and assisted cough

23
Q

Which lung lobe is most typically affected by lobar emphysema?

A

RMLL (71% cases)

24
Q

what concurrent diseases may predispose irish wolfhounds to recurrent bacterial pneumonia?

A

focal bronchiectasis, lar par, oesophageal hypomotility

25
what factors predispose to development of aspiration pneumonia in cats?
vomiting, GA, enteral fedding
26
Dogs not surviving aspiration pneumonia are more likely to have what finding on CT?
>5 lobes affected
27
how does age differ between cats with eosinophilic airway inflammation versus neutrophilic/ mixed?
eos cats younger (average 4.4 years vs 8 for neut and 7.5 for mixed)
28
70% of dogs with aspiration pneumonia can have antibiotics discontinued at what time point based on clinical improvement and CRP normalisation?
1 week
29
what are the features of Kartagener's syndrome?
triad of bronchiectasis, situs inverses and chronic rhino sinusitis that may be seen in dogs with primary ciliary dyskinesia
30
what diagnostics can be considered for ciliary dyskinesia
documentation situs inversus (~50% cases), taqman assay (old English sheep dog, ?malamute) , sperm evaluation (asthenoteratospermia), renal tubule fibrosis or dilation, electron microscopy (TEM)
31
what is the most common cause of spontaneous pneumothorax in cats?
feline lower airway disease
32
what lipoprotein may be useful as an adjunctive treatment in veterinary ARDS patients?
Ctyidine diphosphcholine (CDP-choline)
33
in dogs with pyothorax, in which time period after presentation is death most likely?
within 48 hours
34
what percentage of dogs with chronic LP rhinitis have endoscopic GI lesions and what percentage have GI signs?
88% GI lesions, 52% concurrent GI signs. Remission or marked improvement of resp signs observed in majority of dogs tx only for GI signs up to 12 months after endoscopy
35
how does penetration aspiration present in dogs?
Penetration-aspiration; penetration is when food or liquid enters laryng but doesn't pass below them, aspiration occurs when material passes below folds into trachea. Incidence of P-A was 39% on VFSS. No significant differences in CS of dogs with or without P-A. Pharyngeal and oesophageal (but not oral-preparatory) dysphagia was more common in dogs with P-A. Pharyngeal weakness and esophago-oropharyngeal reflux indepednent predictors of P-A
36
how may salivary and BALF bile acids be interpreted in dogs?
Salivary BA can be indicator of extra-oesophageal reflux. Salivary BA conc higher in IPF and brachycephalic dogs compared to healthy dogs. BALF BA conc higher in IPF dogs and healthy WHWT than healthy dogs of other breeds
37
what percentage of dogs with respiratory disease have abnormalities on VFSS? What percentage of dogs presenting specifically for cough have VFSS abnormalities?
75% of dogs with resp did, 81% dogs presenting for cough
38
which factors are associated with risk of endoluminal stent fracture in patients with tracheal collapse?
natural tracheal taper and oversized stent in intrathoracic trachea associated with caudodorsal stent fracture
39
what percentage of dogs have positive bacterial cultures before tracheal stent placement? What were significant risk factors for pathogenic infection?
82% culture positive (no sign difference in prevalence positive culture before or after stent placement). Risk factors - hx of pneumonia and cardiac dz in older dogs, hepatomegaly in young dogs
40
what complication is most common after bronchial stenting in dogs?
pneumothorax
41
What are potential aetiologies of hunting associated respiratory distress in dogs?
alpha and beta adrenergic overstimulation, exercise-induced pulmonary haemorrhage
42
What are risk factors for obstructive sleep disordered breathing in dogs?
Brachycephalic dogs (and those with more severe BOAS), BCS >5/9 (but NOT aging)
43
What is a non-invasive tool for quantifying breathing effort in cats and monitoring cats experiencing respiratory distress?
whole-body plethysmography
44