NM Flashcards
(208 cards)
1
Q
What is the function of the limbic system?
A
- basic feeding
- aggression
- endocrine aspects of sexual response
- memory
- motivation
- learning
- instincts and emotions
2
Q
What makes up white matter?
A
myelinated axons
3
Q
What sensory nuclei are NOT included in the thalamus?
A
olfactory
4
Q
What does the subthalamus do?
A
assists in controlling functional pathways for motor, sensory, and reticular formation
5
Q
What CNs are located in the midbrain?
A
CN III and IV
6
Q
What does the substantia nigra do?
A
nucleus that connects the basal ganglia and cortex for motor control and muscle tone
location: midbrain
7
Q
What is the superior colliculus a relay station for?
Midbrain
A
vision/visual reflexes
8
Q
What is the inferior colliculus a relay station for?
A
hearing/auditory reflexes
9
Q
What are midline raphe nuclei important for?
location: pons
A
modulation of pain and controlling arousal
10
Q
What CN nuclei are found in the tegmentum of the pons?
A
- V
- VI
- VII
- VIII
11
Q
Where does the medial longitudinal fasciculus originate? What is it important for?
A
a. vestibular nuclei and extends to the upper Cx spinal cord
b. head movement and gaze stabilization (vestibuloocular reflex)
Location: medulla oblongata
12
Q
What is the olivary nuclear complex important for?
A
voluntary movement control
(location: medulla oblongata) - connects the cerebellum to the brainstem
13
Q
What CN nuclei does the medulla oblongata contain?
A
CN IX, X
14
Q
Where is the Reticular activating system (RAS) found?
A
anterior portion of the brainstem
15
Q
What do the 4 nuclei of the RAS system produce?
A
- serotonin
- noepinephrine
- ACh
assists with attention, arousal, and muscle tone modulation
16
Q
What results if the RAS is damaged?
A
- dysfunctional circadian rhythm
- impaired arousal
- impaired attention
17
Q
What does the flocculonodular lobe regulate?
Vestibulocerebellar lobe, arachicerebellum
A
- equilibrium
- muscle tone regulation
- assists in coordination of vestibuloocular reflex
18
Q
What does the spinocerebellum do?
rostral cerebellum, paleocerebellum, anterior lobe
A
- posture
- controls voluntary movements
19
Q
What does the cerebrocerebellum do?
neocerebellum, lateral cerebellar hemispheres, posterior lobe
A
smooth coordination of voluntary movements - ensures accurate force, direction, and extent of the movement
20
Q
What part of the cerebellum is important for motor learning, sequencing of movement, and visually triggered movements?
A
cerebrocerebellum
21
Q
What are the 4 primary ascending columns of white matter? What tracts are included in each?
A
- dorsal columns/medial lemniscal system (fasciculus cuneatus and fasciculus gracilis)
- spinothalamic tracts (anterior and lateral ascending tracts)
- Spinocerebellar tracts (dorsal spinocerebellar tract, ventrospinocerebellar tract)
- spinoreticular tracts
22
Q
What is the function of the dorsal columns/medial lemniscal system?
A
convey sensations of proprioception, vibration, and tactile discrimination
23
Q
What is the function of the fasciculus cuneatus?
Lateral portion of dorsal columns
A
sensations of proprioception, vibration, and tactile discrimination of the UEs (lateral tract)
24
Q
What is the function of the fasciculus gracilis?
Medial portion of dorsal columns
A
sensation of proprioception, vibration, and tactile discrimination within the LEs
25
What is the function of the lateral spinothalamic tract?
sensation of pain and temperature
26
What is the function of the anterior spinothalamic tract?
crude touch
27
What is lassauer's tract? What tracts make this possible?
anterior and lateral spinothalamic tracts ascend 1-2 ipsilateral spinal cord segments and then penetrate the grey matter of the thalamus --> cross --> ascend into the cortex
28
What is the function of the spinocerebellar tracts?
| dorsal spinocerebellar tract, ventrospinocerebellar tract
conveys proprioception information from muscle spindles, GTO, touch receptors, and pressure receptors for control of voluntary movements
29
The ----- spinocerebellar tract ascends ipsilaterally to the inferior cerebellar peduncle
dorsal spinocerebellar tract
30
The ---- spinocerebellar tract ascends contralaterally and ipsilaterally to the superior cerebellar peduncle
anterior spinocerebellar tract
31
What is the function of the spinoreticular tract?
conveys deep and chronic pain to the reticular formation (found in brainstem) via diffuse, polysynaptic pathways
32
What are the 4 descending tracts?
1. corticospinal
2. vestibulospinal
3. rubrospinal
4. tectospinal
33
what is the corticospinal tract important for?
voluntary motor control
## Footnote
**Anterior corticospinal tract** is made up on 10% of fibers that do NOT cross at the pyramidal decussation- travel to the cervical and thoracic spine anterior horn cells (voluntary movement of axial and girdle mm.)
**Lateral corticospinal tract** Crosses over in the medulla (pyramidal decussation) and then travels all the way down the spinal cord and terminates in the anterior horn cells (provides skilled movement of contralateral extremities)
34
What are the vestibulospinal tracts important for?
1. muscle tone
2. antigravity muscles
3. postural reflexes
35
The vestibulospinal tract fibers that travel laterally (are/are not) crossed.
not crossed
| Only the medial vestibulospinal tract contains crossed fibers
36
What are the rubrospinal tracts important for?
motor functioning
37
What are the tectospinal tracts important for?
head-turning in response to stimuli
38
What is the role of the ANS?
maintaining homeostasis within the body
39
What spinal levels are included in the sympathetic portion of the ANS?
C8-L2
40
What does the sympathetic nervous system provide when initiated?
1. fight-or-flight response
2. increases HR and BP
3. constricts peripheral blood vessels
5. redistributes blood
6. inhibits peristalsis
7. relaxes airways
8. stimulates release of epinephrine and noepinephrine from the adrenal medulla
9. relaxes urinary bladder
10. widespread effects
| thoracolumbar region
## Footnote
Peristalsis: the involuntary constriction and relaxation of the muscles of the intestine and other structures
41
What spinal levels are included in the parasympathetic system?
1. CN III
2. CN VII
3. CN IX
4. CN X
5. S2-S4
| craniosacral regions
42
What does the parasympathetic system do when initiated?
1. conserves and restores homeostasis
2. decreases HR and BP
3. increases perstalsis
4. increases glandular activity
5. constricts airways
6. stimulates contraction of the bladder
7. localized effects
43
What do the vertebral arteries arise from? What do they form when they unite?
a. subclavian arteries
b. basilar artery - then branch off to form two posterior cerebral arteries
44
What does the vertebrobasilar system arteries supply?
1. cerebellum
2. brainstem
3. occipital lobe
4. thalamus
45
(true/false) Neuroglia (support cells) transmit signals
FALSE
46
What are neuroglia useful for?
myelin production and neuronal support
47
What is the resting membrane potential? Which side of the membrane is a positive charge? Negative charge?
a. -70 mV
b. outside: positive charge
c. Inside: negative charge
48
What 3 tests are used for CN II?
1. visual acuity
2. snellen eye chart (central vision)
3. confrontation test (peripheral vision)
49
What test is used for CN III?
pupillary response
50
What does CN III provide?
1. convergence
2. accommodation
3. pupillary reflex
4. movement: up/down, in, elevates eyelid
| CN II has **afferent** reponse... CN III has **efferent** response
51
What movements does CN IV provide?
turns ADD eye downward
52
What are the sensory locations of CN V?
- face
- cornea
53
What muscles do CN V innervate?
- temporal muscle
- masseter
54
What are the 3 tests for CN V?
1. pain and light touch at jaw, forehead, and cheeks
2. corneal reflex
3. palpation w/ teeth clenched
55
What are the sensory locations of CN VII?
Taste of anterior 2/3 of tongue
56
What 2 tests are used for CN VII?
1. facial expressions
2. taste on the anterior and lateral aspects of the tongue (using a cotton swab)
57
What 4 tests can be used for CN VIII?
1. Rinne's test
2. VOR
3. auditory acuity
4. Weber's test
58
Describe how to perform the Weber's test. What is it used to test?
a. place tuning fork on the middle of the head and see if the patient can hear the sound equally on both sides
b. CN VIII - lateralization
59
Describe how to perform the Rinne's test. What is it used to test?
a. tuning fork is placed on the mastoid bone and then close to the ear canal... sound should be heard longer in the air than on bone.
b. CN VIII - air and bone conduction
60
What does the glossopharyngeal nerve provide?
| CN IX
- taste on posterior 1/3 of tongue
- sensory of pharynx
- sensory of middle ear
61
What are tests used for CN IX?
taste on the posterior 1/3 of tongue
62
What do CN IX **and** X provide?
1. phonation
2. swallowing
3. gag reflex
4. palatal control
5. control of pharynx
## Footnote
- "ah" test to observe palate movement and uvular movement (should remain at midline)
- stimulating back of the throat
- listen to voice quality
- observe swallowing
63
What does CN XI provide?
- trapezius movement
- SCM movement
| 1.Test with examination of bulk/strength 2. SCM movement while in supine
64
What does CN XII provide?
movement of the tongue
| Tests: listen to articulation, resting and active tongue positioning
65
What CN is responsible for chewing?
CN V
66
What CN is reponsible for swallowing?
CN IX and X
67
What CN is responsible for the alimentary tract, heart, BVs, and lungs?
CN IX and X
68
(true/false) there is no dorsal root for C1.
True
69
A person presents with anosmia.... what CN is affected?
CN I
70
What is myopia?
Impaired far vision
71
What is presbyopia?
Impaired near vision
72
What CN is affected when exotropia or anisocoria are observed?
CN III
73
What is anisocoria?
Unequal pupils
74
A person presents with ptosis and/or dilated pupils... what CN is affected?
CN III
75
A patient presents with loss of ipsilateral corneal reflex... what CN is affected?
CN V
76
Describe sensorineural loss.
loss of sound in the "good ear"
77
Describe conductive hearing loss.
Sound of a tuning fork heard through the bone is equal to or longer than when in the air
78
Describe dysphonia.
voice dysfunction: hoarseness, slurring
79
Hoarseness in a person's voice denotes what?
vocal cord paralysis
80
Altered nasal quality in a person's voice denotes what?
weak palate
81
A pt presents with dysphonia and/or dysarthria... what CN is affected?
CN IX and/or X
82
A pt presents with an absent gag reflex... what CN is damaged?
CN IX
83
A pt presents with paralysis of their palate (unable to elevate)... what CN is damaged?
CN X
84
A pt presents with **unilateral** paralysis of their palate... what CN is damaged?
CN IX and/or X
85
What CN(s) are possibly damaged when a patient presents with dysarthria?
CN IX, X, and/or XII
86
A UMN lesion affecting CN XII results in what?
mild to moderate contralateral weakness of the tongue - can be transient
87
A LMN lesion affecting CN XII results in what?
- paralysis
- atrophy
- fasciculations of the tongue on the **involved** side
- deviation of protrusion is towards the **weak** side
88
(true/false) Bilateral supranuclear/UMN lesions (pseudobulbar palsy) can cause moderate-severe loss of tongue function
True
| Affects CN XII
89
What CNS structure is critical for maintaining autonomous rhythmic movements (swallowing, chewing, walking)?
brainstem
90
what is remote memory?
long-term memory
91
What is a popular, brief, screening test for cognitive dysfunction that includes screening items for orientation, registration, attention/calculation, recall, and language?
MMSE
92
(true/false) the MMSE is not a stand-alone tool for dx of cognitive impairment
true
93
What does the Ranchos los amigos scale assess?
cognitive recovery from a TBI
94
How many levels are there on the ranchos los amigos scale?
8
| Level 1-8
## Footnote
1: no response
2-3: decreased response
4-6: confusion
7-8: appropriate response
95
What portion of the brain causes non-fluent aphasia/expressive aphasia?
Broca's area
| impaired motor capabilities of speech
96
What portion of the brain causes fluent/receptive aphasia?
Wernicke's area
| impaired auditory comprehension
97
What is conduction/association aphasia?
word finding issues and problems with repeating phrases due to damage of the association nerve fibers (arcuate fasciculus) that connect broca's area and wernicke's area.
98
What level of O2 sat is required for those with CNS damage?
> 94%
99
Describe cheyenne stokes respiration.
Period of apnea lasting 10-60 seconds followed by gradually increasing depth and frequency of respirations.
| accompanies depression of frontal lobe and diencephalic dysfunction
100
Describe apneustic breathing.
prolonged inspiration
| accompanies damage to the upper pons
101
Elevated body temperatures can be indicative of damage to what structures?
Brainstem or hypothalamus
102
What are the s/s of meningeal irritation/infection?
- impaired neck mobility
- visual discomfort
- altered consciousness
- severe HA/N/V
- altered vital signs
- generalized weakness
103
What are the s/s of increased ICP/cerebral edema, and brain herniation?
- altered consciousness
- altered vital signs (increased systolic BP, widening pulse pressure, bradypnea, apnea, cheyene-stokes respiration, fever, and bradycardia)
- HA
- Vomiting
- pupillary changes
- motor dysfunction
- Sz activity
104
The lesion causing homonymous hemianopsia is (ipsilateral/contralateral) to the side of the impaired visual field.
contralateral
| ex: right lesion = bilateral left visual field loss
105
What is bitemporal hemianopsia?
loss of the outer half of both visual fields (loss of peripheral vision)
106
Where is the lesion location that causes bitemporal hemianopsia?
optic chiasm
107
A GCS score of 1-8 is indicative of what?
Severe brain injury
108
What does the GCS test?
1. motor response
2. eye opening
3. verbal response
| Assesses acute concussions/TBI
109
The CRSR is used to assess what?
| Coma recovery scale- revised
brainstem reflexes, consciousness, functioning
110
# Description:
Pt is unable to identify body parts or their relationship to each other
somatognosia (body scheme disorder)
111
# Description:
severe denial, neglect, or lack of awareness to severity of condition
anosognosia
112
What is agnosia?
pt is unable to recognize familiar objects
113
What is apraxia?
inability to perform voluntary, learned, movements in the absence of loss of sensation, strength, coordination, attention, or comprehension
114
Describe ideomotor apraxia.
patient cannot perform the task on command but can perform it when alone
115
Describe ideational apraxia.
patient cannot perform a task at all (both on their own and with command)
116
What causes apraxia?
Damage to the prelateral frontal cortex and somatosensory association cortex
117
What is the MAS used for? How many grades are there?
a. grading spasticity
b. 6 grades
## Footnote
0: no increase in muscle tone
1: slight increase in muscle tone w/ minimal resistance at end of PROM
1+ : slight increase in muscle tone with minimal resistance through less than 1/2 of PROM
2: more marked increase in muscle tone through most of PROM
3: considerable increase in muscle tone, PROM is difficult
4: rigidity in FLX or EXT
118
(true/false) sensation is **not** affected in those with PD
true
119
(true/false) rigidity is **not** velocity-dependent
true
120
What DTRs will you see in those with PD?
normal but may be decreased
121
(true/false) spasticity is not velocity dependent
false (it is velocity dependent)
122
What DTRs are seen in those who experienced a stroke?
hyperreflexia
123
What DTRs are seen in those with a cerebellar lesion?
normal or decreased
124
What involuntary movements are seen in those with cerebellar lesions?
none
125
What DTRs will you see in those with SCI?
hyperreflexia
126
# definition
Muscles from a specific myotome are affected
radiculopathy
127
# definition
Distal muscle strength is initially observed and then progresses to proximal muscles
polyneuropathy
128
# definition
posturing seen in comatose patients with brainstem lesions between the superior colliculus and vestibular nucleus
decerebrate ridigity/posturing
## Footnote
Results in increased tone and sustained posturing in rigid EXT of all limbs, trunk, and neck
129
# definition
posturing seen in comatose patients with lesions above the superior colliculus
decorticate rigidity/posturing
## Footnote
Results in increased tone and sustained posturing of the UEs in FLX and the LEs in EXT
130
How do you test abdominal reflexes (T6-L2)? What should be observed with a neurologically intact individual?
Perform lateral --> medial scratching in all 4 quadrants
Should observe movement of the umbilicus in the direction of the stimulation
131
Describe how to perform cesmasteric reflex (L1/L2). What should be observed in neurologically intact individuals?
stroking the skin of the proximal and medial thigh
observation: elevation of the testicle
--> reflex is absent in those with SCI and corticospinal lesions
132
(true/false) intention tremors occur when voluntary movement is attempted in those with cerebellar disorders
true
133
You primarily see (proximal/distal) weakness of extremities when myopathy is present
proximal
134
Describe ataxia
wide-based gait with uncoordinated movements
135
What can improve ataxic gait in those with polyneuropathy?
looking down
| looking down does not improve ataxic gait in those with cerebellar dx
136
What score on the DGI is indicative of fall risk?
score <19
137
Describe myopathic gait.
hyperlordosis and compensated trendelenburg on the WB limb
| cause: pelvic girdle and proximal muscle weakness
138
What diagnostic imaging is useful for detection of abnormal changes in tissue density?
CT
## Footnote
ex: cerebral edema (w/in 3 days post-stroke), cerebral infarction (w/in 3-5 days post-stroke), acute brain bleeds
139
When diagnosing an acute stroke, what diagnostic imaging tool can be used to administer TPA (clot-busting drug) in the absence of hemorrhage within 3-4.5 hours of the thromboembolic stroke?
CT
140
What diagnostic imaging tool allows for imaging of the spinal cord, nerve roots, and meninges?
CT myelography
141
What diagnostic imaging tool is often used in patients with metal or suspected scar tissue in the area of imaging?
CT myelography
142
What are complications of CT myelography?
- allergic reaction to dye
- irritation of meninges
143
What diagnostic test is most sensitive for detecting an acute stroke?
MRI
## Footnote
Allows detection of cerebral edema within 30 minutes after the vascular occlusion
Allows detection of infarction within 2-6 hours
144
What is the primary imaging tool used for examination of tumors, demyelination, and vascular abnormalities?
MRI
144
What does an MRA do?
Images arteries within the brain to identify vascular abnormalities with increased sensitivity and decreased risk
145
What are contraindications of MRI/MRA?
pacemakers, metal
146
What imaging tool allows for visualization of axons, pathways, and microstructural characteristics of water?
Diffuse tensor imaging (DTI)
147
(true/false) MRI has radiation exposure.
FALSE
148
(true/false) DTI does not use radiation
true
149
what diagnostic imaging technique examines changes in deoxygenated Hgb and contrast agent?
functional MRI
| provides good spatial resolution to identify active areas of cortex
150
What diagnostic imaging tool is used for patients who are at risk for stroke?
Cartoid/verteral artery doppler ultrasound
151
When does abnormal spontaneous EMG activity occur after a peripheral nerve injury/compression and correlates with Wallerian degeneration?
7-21 days after
152
What does an EEG do?
measures electrical activity within the brain - collects information on the timing and firing of the neurons in the brain (temporal resolution)
153
Where are lumbar punctures made?
below L1-L2
## Footnote
can measure ICP along with analyzing CSF
154
Elevated CSF proteins can be indicative of what diagnoses?
tumors and/or inflammation
155
(true/false) TIA causes permanent damage
false
156
When does irreversible anoxic damage to the brain occur?
after 4-6 minutes
157
(true/false) controlling secondary cell death is critical for mgmt of stroke, TBI, and SCI
true
158
(true/false) occlusions proximal to the anterior communicating artery produces maximal deficits due to collateral circulation (circle of willis)
false (minimal deficits)
159
What part of the brain does the ACA supply?
anterior 2/3 of the middle cerebral cortex
160
What part of the brain does the MCA supply?
1. lateral cerebral cortex
2. basal ganglia
3. internal capsule
161
What are the characteristics of MCA syndrome?
| internal capsule and cortex lesion
Primary characteristics:
**- contralateral hemiplegia of the face, UE> LE
- contralateral hemisensory loss, UE >LE
- homonymous hemianopsia**
--> other characteristics that can help localize but not always present
- aphasia (dominate hemisphere)
- perceptual deficit (non-dominate hemisphere)
- loss of conjugate gaze to contralateral side
- sensory ataxia
162
What are the characteristics of ACA syndrome?
| cortex and internal capsule lesions
Primary characteristics:
- contralateral hemiplegia, LE>UE
- contralateral hemisensory loss, LE>UE
- urinary incontinence
- problems with bimanual tasks
- apraxia
--> other characteristics that can help localize but are not always present
- akinesia (decreased mobility)
- mutism
163
What are the characteristics of PCA syndrome?
| primary visual cortex, occipital lobe lesions
Primary characteristics:
- contralateral sensory loss
- involuntary movements
- transient contralateral hemiparesis
- homonymous hemianopsia
-->other characteristics that can help localize but ae not always present:
- visual agnosia
- memory deficit
- dyslexia
- central/thalamic pain
- Weber's syndrome
- CN III palsy
164
What are the characteristics of a midbrain lesion?
- contralateral hemiplegia
- possible contralateral CN III palsy
165
What are the characteristics of medial pontine syndrome?
| occlusion of paramedian branch of basilar artery
- ipsilateral cerebellar ataxia
- ipsilateral nystagmus
- ipsilateral paralysis of conjugate gaze
- diplopia
- **contralateral** hemiparesis
- **contralateral** hemisensory loss
166
What are the characteristics of lateral pontine syndrome?
| occlusion of anterior inferior cerebellar artery
- ipsilateral ataxia
- ipsilateral vertigo and nystagmus
- ipsilateral facial paralysis
- ipsilateral paralysis of conjugate gaze
- ipsilateral deafness/tinnitis
- ipsilateral impaired facial sensation
- **contralateral** impaired sensation of pain and temperature
167
What are the characteristics of medial medullary syndrome?
| occlusion of vertebral artery, medullary branch
- **ipsilateral** paralysis of tongue
- contralateral hemiplegia
- contralateral impaired sensation
168
What are the characteristics of lateral medullary (wallenberg's) syndrome?
| occlusion of posterior inferior cerebellar artery/vertebral artery
- ipsilateral ataxia
- ipsilateral vertigo and nystagmus
- ipsilateral sensory loss of UE, Trunk, or LE
- bilateral loss of facial pain and temperature
## Footnote
characteristics that may be present:
- Horner's syndrome (miosis, ptosis, decreased sweating)
- dysphagia
- impaired speech
169
Where are the lesion(s) located when Lacunar (pure motor) stroke is suspected?
- internal capsule- posterior limb
- pons
- pyramids
170
Where are the lesion(s) located when **medial** pontine syndrome is suspected?
- occlusion of paramedial branch of basilar artery
171
Where are the lesion(s) located when **lateral** pontine syndrome is suspected?
occlusion of anterior inferior cerebellar artery
172
Where are the lesion(s) located when **medial** medullary syndrome is suspected?
occlusion of vertebral artery, medullary branch
173
Where are the lesion(s) located when lateral medullary (wallenerg's) syndrome is suspected?
occlusion of posterior inferior cerebellar artery/vertebral artery
174
Those with (left/right) hemisphere lesions are typically impulsive, quick, and indifferent; poor judgement and safety
right hemisphere (left hemiplegia)
175
Those with (left/right) hemisphere lesions are typically slow, cautious, hesitant, and insecure; often aware of impairments and become frustrated
Left hemisphere (right hemiplegia)
176
# TBI definition
injury at point of impact and opposite point of impact
coup-contracoup injury
177
# TBI definition
disruption and tearing of axons and small blood vessels from shear-strain of angular acceleration resulting in neuronal death and petechial hemorrhages
diffuse axonal injury
178
# TBI recovery stage
marked by return of sleep-wake cycles and normalization of respiration, digestion, BP control
vegetative state (unresponsive wakefulness syndrome)
179
Persistent vegetative state is determined if a patient remains in vegetative state for ________ after a TBI.
1+ year(s)
180
# TBI recovery stage
Patient is not vegetative and does show signs of fluctuating awareness
minimally responsive (mute responsiveness)
181
# TBI recovery stage
patient mainly has a disturbance of attention mechanisms; all cognitive operations are affected and the patient is unable to form new memories; altered arousal
confusional state
182
# TBI recovery stage
confusion is clearing and some memory is possible; pt has significant cognitive problems and has limited insight; frequent uninhibited social behaviors
emerging independence
183
# TBI recovery stage
pt is increasing independence but still does have cognitive difficulties (problem solving, reasoning, etc) along with behavioral and social problems
intellectual/social competence
184
(true/false) a patient can plateau at any recovery stage from a diffuse axonal injury/TBI
true
185
What is sympathetic storming? What is the cause?
Result of hypothalamic stimulation for the SNS with an increase in circulating corticoids and catecholamines
## Footnote
s/s:
- minimal alertness
- altered level of consciousness
- dystonia
- tachycardia
- HTN
- hyperthermia
- diaphoresis
- agitation
186
# definition
persistent post-concussion symptoms lasting 3+ months
| rare after just one concussion
post-concussion syndrome
## Footnote
- s/s can include post-traumatic sz, increased risk of depression, and/or mild cognitive impairment
187
# definition
progressive neurodegenerative brain disease resulting from repetitive head trauma
CTE (chronic traumatic encephalopathy)
188
What are the s/s of CTE?
- recurrent HA and dizziness
- cognitive impairments
- mood/behavioral disturbance
- impaired judgement/impulse control
- movement disorders
189
What are the s/s of epilepsy?
- altered consciousness
- sensory phenomena
- autonomic phenomena
- cognitive phenomena
190
# definition
characterized by sudden attack of anxiety, tachycardia, sweating, etc
autonomic phenomena
191
# definition
characterized by sudden failure of comprehension, inability to communicate, intrusion of thought, illusions/hallucinations, and affective disturbances (fear, anger, hate, etc)
cognitive phenomena
192
What are common causes of epilepsy?
1. acquired brain disease, trauma, tumor, stroke
2. degenerative brain diseases (alzheimer's dementia, amyloidosis)
3. developmental brain defect (decreased O2 at birth)
4. drug OD
5. drug withdrawal
6. electrolyte disorders
7. hyperthermia
8. infection
9. pregnancy complications (eclampsia)
193
how long do generalized sz commonly last?
2-5 minutes
194
What is a petit mal sz?
sx that can occur 1+ times per day
- posture is maintained
- repetitive blinking
- small movements
- lasts a few seconds
195
# Diagnosis
type of seizure where the person appears dazed or confused, not fully alert or unconscious -- type of focal/partial sz
complex partial sz
196
# Diagnosis
sz characterized by episodic changes in behavior, with complex hallucinations, automatisms, altered cognitive and emotional functioning, preceded by aura -- type of focal/partial sz
temporal lobe sz
197
What is a simple or complex partial sz that evolves into a general sz?
secondarily generalized sz
198
What are the characteristics of a vestibulocerebellar lesion?
| flodulonoccular lobe/archicerebellum
- ocular dysmetria
- poor smooth pursuit
- VOR dysfunction
- impaired hand-eye coordination
- gait and trunk ataxia
- Wide BOS
- poor postural control
199
What are the characteristics of a spinocerebellum lesion?
| paleocerebellum/rostral cerebellum/anterior lobe
- hypotonia/weakness/fatigue
- trunk ataxia (increased sway, wide BOS, static postural tremor, high guard arm position, dysequilibrium)
- ataxic gait
200
What are the characteristics of a neocerebellum lesion?
| posterior lobe
**Ipsilateral**
- intention tremor
- dysdiadochokinesia
- dysmetria
- dyssynergia
201
# definition
voluntary, irregular oscillatory movements
intention tremor
202
What group of diagnoses are the following tests appropriate for?
- Scale for assessment and rating of ataxia (SARA)
- dizziness handicap inventory (DHI)
- modified fatigue impact scale (MFIS)
- balance assessments
- functional gait tests
- FIM
cerebellar disorders
203
What SLR position tests the sciatic nerve?
neutral
204
What SLR position tests the tibial nerve?
DF and eversion
205
What SLR position tests the peroneal nerve?
PF and inversion
206
What SLR position tests the sural nerve?
DF and inversion
207
What position puts tension on the femoral nerve?
Prone knee FLX
