Nueromuscular/Nervous Systems Flashcards
(254 cards)
0
Q
If a pt with a R hemisphere stroke with pusher syndrome, which way would they push
A
To the left
1
Q
What is dyspraxia?
A
incoordination, associated with developmental coordination disorder. Will have trouble maintaining balance in environments with changing surfaces and obstacles such as in a crowded hallway.
2
Q
The Forebrain, midbrain, and hindbrain are also known as the:
A
Prosencephalon, mesencephalon, and rhombencephalon
3
Q
The prosencephalon is divided into which 2 parts, which are further divided into which parts?
A
Telencephalon: Cerebrum, hippocampus, basal ganglia, amygdala.
Diencephalon: Thalamus, hypo, sub, epi
4
Q
The mesencephalon is further divided into which 2 parts, which are further divided into:
A
Tectum: Superior and inferior colliculi
Tegmentum: Cerebral aqueduct, periaqueductal gray, retinacular formation, substantia nigra, red nucleus.
5
Q
The Rhombencephalon is divided into what 2 parts, which are further divided into what parts?
A
Metencephalon: Cerebellum, pons
Myelencephalon: Medulla oblongata
6
Q
Processing of olfaction occurs in which lobe?
A
Temporal
7
Q
Inattention occurs if which lobe is damaged?
A
frontal
8
Q
Agressive behaviors occur if which lobe is damaged?
A
Temporal
9
Q
Dressing apraxia, constructional apraxia, anosognosia occurs if which lobe is damaged? Dominant or non-dominant side?
A
Parietal, non-dominant, typically R
10
Q
Judgment of distance occurs in which lobe?
A
Occipital
11
Q
Taste processing occurs in which lobe?
A
Parietal
12
Q
Learning deficits occur if which lobe is damaged?
A
Temporal
13
Q
Agraphia, alexia, agnosia occur if which lobe is damaged? dominant or non-dominant side?
A
Parietal, dominant, usually L
14
Q
Facial recognition occurs in which lobe?
A
temporal
15
Q
Which lobe provides meaning for objects?
A
Parietal
16
Q
Which lobe enables humans to interpret other peoples’ emotions and reactions?
A
Temporal-rear
17
Q
What does the calcarine sulcus separate?
A
Occipital lobe into superior and inferior halves
18
Q
What does the sylvian fissure separate?
A
Anterior portion separates the temporal and frontal lobes, posterior separates the the temporal and parietal lobes
19
Q
what does the sulcus of Rolondo separate?
A
Also called the central sulcus, separates the frontal and parietal lobes laterally
20
Q
What gray matter masses compose the basal ganglia?
A
Caudate, putamen, globus pallidus, substantia nigra, subthalamic nuclei.
21
Q
The thalamus receives information from all sensory pathways except which tract?
A
Olfactory
22
Q
Damage to the thalamus can produce thalamic pain on which side of the body relative to the lesion?
A
Contralateral
23
Q
what is the epithalamus involved in?
A
Contains the pineal gland, melatonis, internal clock, assoc. with limbic system and basal ganglia too.
24
Main function of the midbrain?
Connects forebrain and hindbrain so large relay area. Reflex center for visual, auditory, and tactile reflexes.
25
Damage to one side of the cerebellum with produce impairments on which side of the body?
Ipsilateral
26
Cranial nerves ___ through ___ originate from the pons
V through VIII
27
Which artery is the most common site of a CVA?
MCA
28
Occlusion to which cerebral artery results in loss of bowel/bladder?
ACA
29
Apraxia can occur with occlusion to which cerebral artery?
MCA (because it supplies the basal ganglia)
30
Hemiballismus occurs if which cerebral artery is occluded?
PCA-subthalamic nucleus
31
Memory impairment can occur if this cerebral artery is damaged:
PCA-inferior temporal lobe
32
Contralater sensory loss of face and UE and lesser LE can occur with which cerebral artery occlusion?
MCA
33
Locked in syndrome can result from an occlusion of which artery?
Vertebral-basilar
34
Alexia/dyslexia can occur from occlusion on which artery?
PCA
35
Neglect can occur with occlusion of which artery?
ACA
36
Thalamic pain syndrome can occur with occlusion to which artery?
PCA
37
The 2 parts of the brain the ACA supplies
Anterior frontal lobe
| Medial surface of the parietal and frontal lobes (LE involvement)
38
6 parts of the brain the MCA supplies
1) Outer cerebrum
2) Basal ganglia
3) Post/ant internal capsule
4) Putamen
5) Pallidum
5) Lentiform nucleus
39
6 parts of the brain the PCA supplies
1) Part of the midbrain
2) Subthalamic nucleus
3) Basal nucleus
4) Thalamus
5) Inferior temporal lobe
6) Occipital and occiptoparietal cortices
40
The 2 most significant impairments with PCA occlusion are:
Thalamic pain syndrome and cortical blindness
41
Bilateral ACA occlusion will typically produce ___plegia, while bilateral MCA occlusion at the stem will typically produce ____plegia
1) paraplegia
| 2) hemiplegia
42
Brudzinki's sign
Flexion of neck facilitates flexion of the hips and knees-for meningitis
43
Kernig's sign
Pain with hip flexion combined with knee extension
44
What is sun-setting a sign of?
Hydrocephalus-downward deviation of the eyes
45
Fasciculus cuneatus
Ascending, sensory tract for trunk, neck, and UE proprioception, vibration, 2 point discrimination, and graphesthesia
46
Fasciculus gracilis
Ascending, sensory tract for trunk and LE proprio, vibration, 2 point discrimination, graphesthesia
47
Spinocerebellar tract, dorsal
Ascending, sensory, ipsilateral subconscious proprioception, tension in muscles, joint sense, posture of trunk and LE
48
Spinocerebellar tract, ventral
Ascending, sensory, some fibers cross then recross, ipsilateral proprio, muscle tension, joint sense, posture of the trunk, UE, LE
49
Spino-olivary tract
Ascending, from cutaneous and proprioceptive organs to the cerebellum
50
Spinoreticular tract
Afferent, for reticular formation, influences levels of consciousness
51
Spinotectal tract
Sensory, spinovisual reflexes, assists with eye movement toward stimulus
52
Spinothalamic tract, anterior
Light tough and pressure
53
Spinothalamic tract, lateral
pain, temp
54
Corticospinal tract, anterior
ipsilateral, voluntary, discrete, and skilled movements
55
Corticospinal tract, lateral
Contralateral, voluntary, movement
56
Reticulospinal tract
Extrapyramidal, motor, facilitation/inhibition of voluntary and reflex activity
57
Rubrospinal tract
extrapyramidal, motor, input of gross postural tone, facilitates activity of flexors, inhibits extensors
58
Tectospinal tract
Extrapyramidal motor, contralateral postural toen, associated with auditory and visual stimuli
59
Vestibulospinal tract
Extrapyramidal, ipsilateral gross postural adjustments, subsequent to head movements, facilitates extensor muscles, inhibits flexors. Damage results in significant paralysis, hypertonicity, and clasp-knife reaction.
60
Brown-Sequard's Syndrome: which tract(s), contra or ipsi symptoms?
Corticospinal tract, spinothalamic tract, dorsal column, so ipsilateral paralysis and loss of vibratory sense, contra loss of pain and temp.
61
What is the difference between superficial and deep reflexes?
Superficial: A response to stimulation of receptors within the skin. The signal goes all the way to the brain, then has to descend motor tracts, making it a polysynaptic reflex, e.g. Babinski reflex
Deep: Reflex arc involving the spinal or brainstem segment that innervates the specific muscle.
62
Stereognosis vs Barognosis vs Graphesthesia
Barog: perceive the weight of different objects in hand.
Stereo: Identify an object without sight.
Graph: Identify a number or letter drawn on the skin without visual input.
63
The sensation of pain in response to a stimulus that would not normally produce pain?
Allodynia
64
Absence of pain while remaining conscious
Analgesia
65
Absence of touch sensation
Anesthesia
66
Constant, relentless, burning that develops after a peripheral nerve injury
Causalgia
67
Distortion of any of the senses, especially touch
Dysesthesia
68
Heightened sensation
Hyperesthesia
69
An extreme exaggerated response to pain
Hyperpathia
70
A diminished sensation of touch
Hypesthesia
71
Severe and multiple shock-like pains that radiate from a specific nerve distribution
Neuralgia
72
Loss of vibration sensation
Pallanesthesia
73
Abnormal sensations such as tingling, pins and needles or burning
paresthesia
74
Neurapraxia
No damage, typically a pressure injury, conduction block.
75
Axonotmesis
Reversible, injury to axon with preservation of endo and epineurium, as well Schwann cells.
76
neurotmesis
Axon, myelin, and connective tissue are damaged or transected. IRREVERSIBLE. If surgery, may recover, sensory before motor.
77
ALS affects what in the PNS?
Anterior horn cells
78
Myesthania gravis affects what in the PNS?
Neuromuscular junction
79
Fasiculations are present in UMN or LMN Diseases?
LMND
80
Chorea is typically secondary to damage of the ______
Caudate nucleus, "fidgeting"
81
Ballism is typically secondary to damage of the ______
subthalamic nucleus, it is a form of Chorea, "flailing"
82
Dystonia: type of movement, typical diseases, which muscles, etiologies
Sustained muscles contraction that cause abnormal/repetitive movements. CP, Parkinson's, encephalitis. All muscles, agonists and/or antagonists, often accentuated during volitional movement. Etiologies: genetic, acquired, environmental, secondary to medications.
83
Athetosis
Slow, twisting/writhing movements, large in amplitude. When brief, they merge with chorea, when sustained, they merge with dystonia, and it is typically associated with spasticity. Common in CP secondary to basal ganglia pathology.
84
Akinesia, common in which disease(s)
Inability to initiate movement, PD
85
Asthenia, typically secondary to _____
Generalized weakness, secondary to cerebellar pathology.
86
Clasp-knife response
Resistance seen during ROM, greatest resistance at initiation of dance that lesson with movement through the range.
87
Dysmetria
Inability to control ROM and force
88
Dystonia
Related to athetosis, but more axial muscle involvement
89
Fasciculation
Muscular twitch that is Caused by random discharge of a LMN
90
Lead pipe rigidity
Consistent rigidity throughout the ROM
91
Modified Ashworth Scale: 0 through 4 scale
0: no increase in muscle tone
1: Slight, EROM
1+: Slight, at less than half of the ROM
2: Most of the ROM, but can still move the affected parts.
3: Passive movement difficult
4: Affected parts rigid in extension or flexion.
92
VOR vs VSR
VOR: Allows for head/eye movement coordination. Supports gaze stabilization when head moving.
VSR: Assits with body stability while the head is moving, as well as coordination of trunk during upright postures.
93
Peripheral vs Central Vertigo symptoms
Peripheral: Episodic, autonomic symptoms present, usually a precipitating factor.
Central: Autonomic less severe, loss of consciousness can occur, diplopia, hemianopsia, weans, numbness, ataxia, dysarthria
94
Peripher vs Central Vertigo Etiology (different diseases)
Peripheral: BPPV, Meniere's, Infection, Trauma/tumor, DM, ETOH.
Central: Meningitis, Migraine, Trauma/tumor, MS
95
Gaze evoked nystagmus: Definition? Typically indicative of what type of pathology?
Occurs when eyes shift from a primary positions to an alternate position-pt can't maintain stable gaze. Indicative of CNS pathology, e.g. TBI and MS
96
Central vs Peripheral Nystagmus: Direction
Central: Bi or unidirectional
Periph: Uni, with fast segment indicating the opposite direction of the lesion
97
Central vs Peripheral Nystagmus: Visual Fixation
Central: No inhibition with fixation
Periph: Will inhibit nyst. and vertigo
98
Central vs Peripheral Nystagmus: Vertigo
Central: Mild
Periph: Significant
99
Central vs Peripheral Nystagmus: Length of Symptoms
Central: May be chronic
Periph: Minutes, days, weeks, but finite and recurrent
100
Fugl-Meyer Sensorimotor Assessment of Balance Performance Battery: For whom, how many items, how many points, high or low is the best?
Hemiplegia, 0-2, 14 is best score, but still may not have normal balance
101
Functional Reach Norms for 20-40, 41-69, 70-87
20-40: 14.5-17 inches
41-69: 13.5-15
70-87: 10.5-13.5
102
For the TUG: how scored, low or high normal?
1 is normal, 5 very abnormal-scored based on postural sway, excessive movements, etc. Added time to be more objective: 10s or less, person usually independent. 20 or more, limit for function independence, increased fall risk. 30 seconds or more, high fall risk.
103
Tinetti (POMA): 2 sections, max score for each, what score is high fall risk?
Balance: scored 0-2, max of 16 points
Gait: 0-2, max score of 12
Total max score of 28. <19 is high fall risk
104
4 negative prognostic indicators for aphasia
1: Perseveration of speech
2: Severe auditory comprehension impairments
3: Unreliable yes/no answers
4: Use of empty speech without recognition of impairments
105
Demeylination of the ____ and ____ tracts cause the UMN signs in ALS
Corticospinal
| Corticobulbar
106
There is a higher incidence of ____ (gender) in ALS and occurs between ___ and ___
men, 40-70
107
Early clinical symptoms of ALS include ______ motor symptoms (symmetric/asymmetric) that start _____ (proximal to distal/distal to proximal)
Asymmetrical, proximal to distal
108
Bell's Palsy: Most common in individuals between ___ and ___
15 and 45
109
Normal pressure on the carpal tunnel is ___ to ___ mmHg
3-7
110
What is the most common hereditary ataxia?
Friedreich's-autosomal recessive cerebellar disorder
111
What are the main autosomal dominant ataxias?
Spinocrebellar.
112
Early clinical symptoms of Guillain-Barre Syndrome include ______ motor symptoms (symmetric/asymmetric) that start _____ (proximal to distal/distal to proximal)
symetrical, distal to proximal
113
Call 911 if seizure lasts longer than ___ minutes
5
114
After the seizure is over place the person on their ___ side
L, to avoid choking on vomit
115
MS can occur at any age with the highest incidence between ___ and ___ years
20-35
116
The cardinal signs of myasthenia gravis:
extreme fatiguability, skeletal muscle weakness that can fluctuate within minutes or over an extended period.
117
Which muscles typically affected first with myasthenia gravis?
occular: ptosis, diplopia.
118
PT for myasthenia gravis will typically focus on what?
obtaining respiratory baseline/pulmonary baseline, energy conservation techniques, isometric strengthening.
119
Proximal or distal muscles usually more affected with myasthenia gravis?
Prox
120
Signs of myasthenia crisis:
respiratory difficulty, swallowing issues, labored talking or chewing-can be life-threatening
121
5 primary risk factors for CVA
```
Hypertension
Cardiac disease/arrhythmias
DM
Cigarettes
TIAs
```
122
5 secondary risk factors for CVA
```
Obesity
High cholesterol
Behaviors related to HTN (stress, salt)
Physical inactivity
ETOH
```
123
Embolus vs thrombotic CVA?
Embolus can start anywhere, and can be solid, liquid, or gas. Because so sudden, tissue can be more damaged than with thombotic-from plaque.
124
Embolus CVA accounts for ___ to ___ % of CVAs. Hemorrhagic accounts for ___ to ___.
20%
10-15%
Hemorrhagic for fatal but less serious if survive. (50% of deaths occur within the first 48 hours)
125
```
Flexor synergy:
Scapula
Shoulder
Elbow
Forearm
Wrist
Fingers
Thumb
Hip
Knee
Ankle
Toes
```
```
Seen when a pt tries to lift arm for object
Scapula: Elevation and retraction
Shoulder: And and ER
Elbow: Flexion
Forearm: Supination
Wrist: Flexion
Fingers: Flex/add
Thumb: Flex/add
Hip: Abd/ER
Knee: Flex
Ankle: DF/supination
Toes: CHARACTERIZED by great toe ext and flexion of the remaining toes secondary to spasticity
```
126
```
Extensor synergy:
Scapula
Shoulder
Elbow
Forearm
Wrist
Fingers
Thumb
Hip
Knee
Ankle
Toes
```
```
Scapula: Depression/protraction
Shoulder: Add/IR
Elbow: Extension
Forearm: Pronation
Wrist: Extension
Fingers: Flexion/add
Thumb: Flexion/add
Hip: Ext, IR, add
Knee: Ext
Ankle: PF/Inv
Toes: Flex/add
```
127
Adam's closed loop theory for motor learning
Sensory feedback as an ogling process for the NS to compare current movement with stored info-high emphasis on practice
128
Schmidt's schema theory
Created in response to the closed loop theory. Relies on open loop control processes and a motor program concept: promotes clinical value of feedback and importance of variation with practice.
129
3 stages of Motor learning
1) Cognitive
2) Associative: start moving to uncontrolled enviro and less feedback
3) Autonomous
130
Massed vs distributed practice
massed: practice time > rest
distributed: rest > or = to practice
131
Non-associative vs associative learning
Non-associative: habituation/sensitization
| Associative: procedural/declarative
132
T or F: NDT/Bobath uses compensatory techniques for movement
F: Belief that compensation techniques are unnecessary and should be avoided
133
Raimiste's phenomenon:
Involved LE will abd/add with resistance to the uninvolved side
134
Souques' phenomenon:
Raising involved EU above 100 degrees with elbow extension will produce extension and and of the fingers
135
PNF: The 4 levels of motor control, examples of each
1. Mobility e.g. just initiating movement
2. Stability e.g. unsupported sitting
3. Controlled Mobility e.g. weight shifting in quadruped
4. Skill e.g. ADLs and community locomotion
136
Agonistic Reversals: Descriptions, and which PNF level of motor control?
Isotonic alternating concentric and eccentric movements.
| Controlled mobility, skill
137
Alternating Isometrics: Descriptions, and which PNF level of motor control?
Alternating from one side of the joint to the other side without rest.
Stability
138
Hold-Relax: Descriptions, and which PNF level of motor control?
Isometric contraction of all muscles at end range, then relax.
Mobility
139
Contract-Relax: Descriptions, and which PNF level of motor control?
Isometric contraction of the antagonist.
| Mobility
140
Hold-Relax Active Movement: Descriptions, and which PNF level of motor control?
For muscle groups tested at 1/5 or less. Isometric contraction is performed once the extremity is passively placed into shortened range. Then relaxation, quick stretch, then pt tries to move back through the range.
Mobility
141
Normal Timing: Descriptions, and which PNF level of motor control?
Proximal restricted until distal components initiated movement.
Skill
142
Repeated Contractions: Descriptions, and which PNF level of motor control?
Quick stretch followed by isometric or isotonic
| Mobility
143
Resisted Progression: Descriptions, and which PNF level of motor control?
To emphasize coordination of proximal components during gait.
Skill
144
Rhythmic Initiation: Descriptions, and which PNF level of motor control?
Passive to active assistive to slightly resistive.
| Mobility
145
Timing for emphasis: Descriptions, and which PNF level of motor control?
Isotonic and isometric contractions of other muscles for overflow.
146
Anosognosia
denial/unawareness of one's illness, often associated with unilateral neglect
147
What level is the corticospinal lesion that causes decerebrate rigidity?
Brainstem
148
What level is the corticospinal lesion that causes decorticate rigidity?
Diencephalon
149
Anterior cord syndrome
Anterior spinal artery or excessive cervical flexion, motor, pain/tem below the lesion lost (corticospinal and spinothalamic tracts)
150
Flexion SCIs most often occur at ____ level while extension SCIs most often occur at ____ level
Flexion: C5-6,
Extension: C4-5
151
Central Cord Syndrome, typical mechanism of injury, typical tracts that are damaged, U or LE more affected, motor more or sensory more affected?
Cervical hyperextension, spinothalamic, corticospinal, and dorsal columns. UEs greater involvement than LEs, and greater motor deficits than sensory.
152
Asia A
No sensory/motor preserved S4-5
153
Asia B
Sensory but no motor below level to S4-5
154
Asia C
Motor preserved below, most key muscles below the level are <3
155
Asia D
Most key muscles below level are > or = to 3
156
Asia E
Sensory and motor normal
157
Review Sites for Sensory Testing
P 198, Do it, for real!
158
What SCI will likely be modified independent with bed mobility?
Mid tetra (C6)
159
```
What SCI will likely be modified independent with transfers:
Bed
Car
Toilet
Bath
Floor
Uprighting W/C
```
C6 with sliding board for bed
Lower tetra (C6-7) for car transfer
Para for floor and uprighting W/C
160
What level of SCI can depress shoulders for weight shift?
C6-7
161
What SCI will likely be modified independent for bowl and bladder?
C7-8
162
Myelotomy vs Neurectomy vs Rhizotomy
Myelotomy: Certain tracts within the SC severed to decrease spasticity
Neurectomy: Removal of segment of a nerve to decrease spasticity
Rhizotomy: Resection of sensory component of a spinal nerve to decrease spasticity
163
Nuerogenic Bladder
Empties reflexively for a patient with an injury above S2-sacral reflex arc intact
164
Zone of preservation
Poor or trace motor or sensory function for put to three levels below the neurologic level of injury.
165
Coup vs Contrecoup lesion
Coup: Direct lesion to brain under the point of impact
Contra: On the opposite side of the brain due to rebound
166
Epidural vs subdural hematoma
Epi: Forms between skull and dura mater
Subdural: Due to venous rupture between dura and arachnoid
167
The 8 Rancho Levels of Cognitive Functioning
I. No response
II Generalized response-same regardless of stimulus
III Localized response-related to stimulus presented.
IV Confused-Agitated
V Confused-Inappropriate
VI Confused-Appropriate, goal-directed behavior, but needs direction.
VII Automatic-Appropriate, robot-like, judgement remains impaired
VIII Purposeful-Appropriate May continue to show a decreased ability relative to premorbid levels, abstract reasoning, tolerance for stress, and judgement in emergencies/unusual situations.
168
What is the lowest Rancho level that one might be able to follow very simple commands?
III: eg closing eyes, squeezing hands
169
Glascow Coma Scale: Score of ____ to ____ indicates severe brain injury and coma in ___% of people
8 or less
170
Glascow Coma Scale: Score of ____ to ____ indicates moderated brain injury
9 to 12
171
Glascow Coma Scale: Score of ____ to ____ indicates mild brain injuries
13 to 15
172
Review Pediatrics, p 208 through 213
Do it!
173
Prader-Willi Syndrome
Causative factor
Signs/Symptoms
How is it diagnosed?
Partial deletion of chromosome 15
Small hands, feet, and sex organs, hypotonia, almond-shaped eyes, obesity, constant desire for food, coordination impairments and mental retardations.
Usually just diagnosed by physical attributes and behavior not genetic testing
174
The Eye Opening scale on the Glasgow
4) Spontaneous
3) To Speech
2) To Pain
1) Nil
175
The Best Motor Response scale on the Glasgow
6) Obeys commands
5) Localizes pain
4) Withdraws
3) Abnormal Flexion
2) Extensor Response
1) Nil
176
The Verbal Response Scale on the Glasgow
5) Oriented
4) Confused conversation
3) Inappropriate words
2) Incomprehensible sounds
1) Nil
177
American Academy of Neurology Grade 1 concussion: consciousness, confusion, length of time. When can athlete return to play.
No loss of consciousness, transient confusion, usually resolved within 15 minutes. Return to play if symptom free at rest for 1 week.
178
American Academy of Neurology Grade 2 concussion: consciousness, confusion, length of time. When can the athlete return to play?
Confusion lasts longer than 15 minutes. May have retrograde and/or anterograde amnesia. Return to play if symptom free at rest and with exertion for 2 weeks.
179
American Academy of Neurology Grade 3 concussion: consciousness, confusion, length of time. When can the athlete return to play?
Loss of consciousness, should go to ER for evaluation. Should be withheld from competition for one month after being symptom-free for 1 week.
180
Which reflex(s) is integrated at 6 months?
1) Asymmetrical Tonic Neck Reflex
| 2) Tonic Labyrinthine Reflex
181
Which reflex(s) is integrated at 2 months?
1) Galant
2) Positive support reflex
3) Stepping/walking reflex
182
Which reflex(s) is integrated at 4 months?
1) Palmar grasp
183
Which reflex(s) is integrated at 5 months?
1) Moro
| 2) Startle
184
Which reflex(s) is integrated at 9 months
1) Plantar grasp
185
Which reflex(s) is integrated at 3 months?
1) Rooting
186
Which reflex(s) is present between 6 and 8 months?
1) Symmetrical Tonic Neck Reflex
187
What age is fine pincer grasp normally present?
10-11 months
188
What age is squatting in play normally present?
16 to 24 months
189
What age is riding a tricycle normally present?
2 years
190
What age is chest up in prone with some weight on forearms normally present?
2-3 months
191
What age is creeping/hitching up stairs normally present?
12-15 months
192
What age is crawling normally present?
8-9 months
193
What age is rolls from supine to side normally present?
4-5 months
194
What age is hopping on 1 foot normally present?
2 years
195
What age is cutting with scissors normally present?
3-4 years
196
What age is creeping normally present?
10-11 months
197
What age is skipping normally present?
5-8 years
198
What age is sitting independently normally present?
6-7 months
199
What age is rolling prone to supine normally present?
2-3 months
200
What age is bearing weight on extended arms while in prone normally present?
4-5 months
201
What age is playing jump rope normally present?
5-8 years
202
What age is turning a door knob/jar lid normally present?
2 years
203
What age is hopping 2-10 times on 1 foot normally present?
3-4 years
204
What age is hand preference normally present?
5-8 years
205
Arthrogyposis Multiplex Congenita:
Etiology
Signs/Symptoms
Treatment
Exact etiology unknown, may be poor movement during early development. For some, it is genetic inheritance, autosomal dominant.
Cylinder-like extremities, significant and multiple conjectures, dislocation of joints, atrophy.
Splinting, adaptive equipment, positioning, stretching, strengthening. Maybe surgery
206
Spastic vs Athetoid CP
Spastic: Lesion in the motor cortex, UMN damage
Athetoid: Lesion in basal ganglia, cerebellum, and/or cerebellar pathways
207
Spinal muscular atrophy is characterize by:
progressive degeneration of the anterior horn cell
208
Type 1-Werdnig-Hoffmann disease:
Acute infantile SMA. Occurs between birth and 2 months, life expectancy less than 1 year.
209
Type 2-Chronic-Werdnig-Hoffmann disease
Chronic Childhood SMA. Present after 6 months to 1 year, child can survive into adulthood.
210
Type 3-Kugelberg-Welander SMA
Juvenile SMA. From 4-17 years, typically survive into adulthood.
211
Spina Bifida Occulta vs Cystica
Occulta: Non-fusion of the spinous processes of a vertebrae but spinal cord and meninges intact-usually no disability
Cystica: Cyst-like protrusion through the non-fused vertebrae-impairment.
212
Meningocele vs Myelomeningocele Spina Bifida
Both are types of SB Cystica.
Meningocele: herniation of meninges and CSF, SC remains within the canal.
Myelo: Severe form, spinal cord herniates as well.
213
Superior gluteal nerve myotomes, which muscles?
L4,5,S1
| Glut med, min, TFL
214
Inferior gluteal nerve myotomes
L5,S1,2
| Glut Max
215
Common fibular myotomes
L4,5,S1,2
216
Tibial nerve myotomes
L4,5,S1,2,3
217
Myotomes of the nerve to the piriformis
S1,2
218
Myotomes of the pudendal nerve
S2,3,4
219
Plantar reflex tests which levels?
L5-S1 (babinski)
220
Cremateric reflex tests which levels?
L1-2
| Testicle raises
221
Gag reflex which levels?
glossopharyngeal and vagus nerves
222
Abdominal reflex, which levels?
T8-L1
223
Corneal reflex (blink) which levels?
trigeminal and facial nerves, both eyes should blink
224
Which peripheral nerve innervates the rhomboids?
dorsal scapular
225
Which peripheral nerve innervates the coracobrachialis?
Musculocutaneous
226
Which peripheral nerve innervates the Flexor carpi ulnaris?
Ulnar
227
Which peripheral nerve innervates the Latissiumus dorsi?
Thoracodorsal
228
Which peripheral nerve innervates the teres major?
Lower subscapular
229
Which muscles are innervated by the radial nerve?
```
Brachioradialis
Triceps
Supinator
Wrist Extensors
Anconeus
```
230
The lateral and median root of the median innervates the _____ muscles of the forearm, excepts for the flexor ____ _____, and also enervates ___(number) muscles of the hand.
Flexor muscles of the forearm, except the flexor carpi ulnaris, and 5 muscles in the hand.
231
Which peripheral nerve innervates the serratus anterior?
Long thoracic
232
Which peripheral nerve innervates the pec major?
Medial and lateral pectoral
233
Which peripheral nerve innervates the subscapularis?
Upper and lower subscapular
234
Which peripheral nerve innervates the infraspinatus?
suprascapular
235
Which peripheral nerve innervates the subclavius?
Nerve to the subclavius
236
Which peripheral nerve innervates the teres minor?
Axillary
237
Which peripheral nerve innervates the brachioradialis?
radial nerve
238
Which peripheral nerve innervates the levitator scapulae?
dorsal scapular
239
Which peripheral nerve innervates the supraspinatus?
suprascapular
240
Which peripheral nerve innervates the pec major, clavicular head?
lateral pectoral
241
Which peripheral nerve innervates the FDP?
Ulnar
242
What 2 weird muscles does the ulnar nerve innervate?
FCU, FDP, most small muscles of the hand
243
Which peripheral nerve innervates the pec minor?
Medial pectoral
244
3 muscles innervated by the lumbar plexus
Psoas major
Psoas minor
Quadratus Lumborum
245
5 muscles innervated by the sacral plexus
```
Piriformis
Superior gemelli
Inferior gemelli
Obturator internus
Quadratus femoris
```
246
7 muscles innervated by the femoral nerve
```
VL
VI
VM,
Rectus femoris
Iliacus
Sartorious
Pectineus
```
247
5 muscles innervated by the obturator nerve
```
Adductor longus
brevis
magus
Obturator externus
Gracilis
```
248
3 muscles innervated by the tibial division of the sciatic
Semitendinosus
Semimembranosus
Long head of the BF
249
1 muscle innervated by the common fibular division of the sciatic
biceps femurs short head
250
5 muscles innervated by the deep fibular nerve?
```
Tib ant
EDL
EHL
Fibularis terius
EDB
```
251
2 muscles innervated by the superficial fibular nerve?
Fibularis longus
| brevis
252
4 muscles innervated by the medial plantar nerve
Abductor hallucis
Lumbrical I
FDB
FHB
253
8 muscles innervated by the lateral plantar nerve
```
ADM
FDM
Opponens DM
Dorsal inerossei
Quadratus plantae
Adductor hallucis
Lumbricals II-V
Plantar interossei
```
