Other Systems Flashcards

1
Q

What symptoms will a patient with end stage kidney disease most likely demonstrate

A

Decreased urine output and anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Primary vs secondary vs tertiary healing by intention

A

Primary: wound edges clean, approximated by sutures, or if superficial partial thickness such as abrasion or blisters.
Secondary: Can’t be approximated. Require ongoing wound care, heal by migrating granulation tissue. Usually associated with pathology such as diabetes.
Tertiary: Delayed primary intention healing-wounds at risk for sepsis or dehiscence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Wound contamination vs colonization vs infection

A

Contam: The presence of non-replicationg bacteria on a wound surface that causes no additional tissue injury and does not stimulate an inflammatory response.
Colonization: Replication of bacteria on wound surface that does not invade or further injury, but can delay healing, or may actually help by preventing worse organisms from invading
Infection: Inflammatory, invading, significant delay of healing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The different general recommendations for arterial/venous ulcers.

A

Arterial: Avoid elevating limbs
Venous: Elevate limbs when sleeping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Neuropathic vs pressure ulcers

A

Neuro: usually a result of ischemia and peripheral neuropathy
Pressure: ischemia and pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

1) Arterial vs 2) Venous vs 3) Neuropathic Ulcers: Location

A

1) Lower 1/3 of leg-even to distal toes
2) Proximal to medial malleolus
3) Areas of foot susceptible to pressure or shear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

1) Arterial vs 2) Venous vs 3) Neuropathic Ulcers: Appearance

A

1) smooth, well defined, deep, no granulation
2) irregular, shallow
3) Well-defined oval/circle, callused rim, no necrosis, goo granulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

1) Arterial vs 2) Venous vs 3) Neuropathic Ulcers: Exudate

A

1) minimal
2) moderate/heavy
3) low/moderate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

1) Arterial vs 2) Venous vs 3) Neuropathic Ulcers: Pain

A

1) severe
2) mild to mod
3) low to mod

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

1) Arterial vs 2) Venous vs 3) Neuropathic Ulcers: Pedal pulses

A

1) diminished/absent
2) normal
3) diminished/absent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

1) Arterial vs 2) Venous vs 3) Neuropathic Ulcers: edema

A

1) normal
2) increased
3) decreased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

1) Arterial vs 2) Venous vs 3) Neuropathic Ulcers: skin appearance

A

1) thin, shiny, hair loss, yellow nails
2) flaky, dry, brownish
3) dry, inelastic, shiny, decreased sweat/oil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Wound classification by depth

1) superficial
2) partial thickness
3) full
4) subcutaneous

A

1) epidermis intact
2) through epidermis, may be partially into dermis
3) through dermis into subcutaneous fat
4) through to fat, tendon, muscle, bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Wagner ulcer grade classification scale: 0-5

A

0) skin intact, pre-ulcerative lesions, healed ulcers, bony deformity
1) Superficial ulcer, not involving subcutaneous
2) Penetrates through subcutaneous, potentially exposing bone, lig, or joint capsule
3) Osteitis, abscess or osteomyelitis
4) Gangrene of digit
5) Gengrene of foot requiring disarticulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Pressure Ulcer stages I-V

A

I: intact, redness
II: Loss of dermis
III: full thickness tissue loss, tendon/muscle not exposed
IV: full thickness with exposed bone/tendon/muscle
V: Suspected deep tissue injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which type of selective debridement shouldn’t be used with an infected wound?

A

Autolytic.

Sharp and enzymatic can be used with an infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Selective vs non-selective debridement

A

selective: only nonviable tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The 3 types of non-selective debridement

A

Wet-to-dry, wound irrigation, hydrotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What type of U/S used for wound healing?

A

low intensity, pulsed duty cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which 2 types of dressings can’t be used on infected wounds, which one usually used for infected wounds?

A

Hydrocolloids, transparent film

Alginates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Desquamation

A

Peeling or shedding of the outer layers of the epdidermis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Friable

A

tissue that readily tears, fragments or bleeds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Maceration

A

skin softening from prolonged exposure to moisture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Normotrophic scar

A

collagen fibers aligned in parallel fashion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Turgor
speed at which skin resumes its shape after being pinched
26
The 3 zones of burn injury
Zone of 1) coagulation (Most severe center, cell damage) 2) stasis 3) hyperemia (outermost, inflamed but will heal easily)
27
Approximate healing times for superficial partial thickness and deep partial thickness burns
partial: 5-21 deep: 21-35
28
Child values for the rule of 9s for burns
A child under 1 year has 9% taken from the LE and added to the head and neck. Each year of life 1% added back to LE until 9 years old
29
What is the rule of 9s for? what is it not for?
it estimates the percent of body burned, isn't prognostic, and doesn't account for severity.
30
The use of compression garments that provide ____ to ___ mm Hg is believe d to create an environment that facilitate the balance of collagen synthesis and lysis, improving scar structure, in burns requiring >____ days to heal, and should be worn for ____ to ____ hours
15-35, 14, 22-23
31
Dry vs wet gangrene
Dry: due to blood vessel disease Wet: due to bacteria infection-selling causes sudden stoppage of blood flow
32
Onychomycosis
nail fungus
33
Tinea pedis
athlete's foot
34
What is Tay-Sachs disease?
absent/deficient enzyme so accumulate GM2 within the brain. autosomal recessive, mental retardation/paralysis, no cure
35
What is Wilson's disease?
hepatolenticular degeneration. Can't metabolize copper, kayserl-fleischer rings in the eyes. Athetoid, ataxia etc.
36
Trousseau's sign
during BP, first sign of hypokalemia, occlusion of artery induces involuntary muscle contractions in hand
37
Osteoporosis typically affects which type of bone
cortical and trabecular
38
Osteomalacia:
bones soft secondary to to a calcium or phosphorus deficiency
39
Paget's disease
heightened osteoclast activity, the bone appears enlarged but it is weak, most common in patients over 50
40
Different hormones that the adrenal cortex and medulla produce:
cortex: corticosteroids that regulate water and sodium balance, the body's response to stress, the immune system, sexual dvlpmt, and metabolism. medulla: epinephrine (HR and BP)
41
The _____ are the hormone-producing cells in the pancrease. The apha cells produce ____ and beta produce ____
Islets of Langerhans. Alpha: glucagon Beta: Insulin
42
Steroid hormones: Also called: Unique because:w
prostaglandins | don't circulate in the blood
43
Amine hormones: Also called: Main one is:
catecholamines | Epinephrine
44
Peptide hormones: | Main one:
Insulin
45
Which 3 orthopedic conditions common with hyperpituitarism?
Bilateral carpal tunnel, arthritis, osteophyte formation
46
Ambulation/exercises should be done ______hours/days following pituitary tumor/gland removal
24 hrs
47
Which visual and cardiovascular effects can be present with hypopituitarism?
ortho hypot. and bilateral hemianopsia
48
Addison's vs Cushings
Addisons: hypofunction of the adrenal cortex-dereased cortisol and aldosterone. Hypotension, weakness, anorexia, weight loss, altered pigmentation. Cushing's: hyperfunction. Excessive cortisol due to excessive ACTH from pituitary. Hyperglycemia, growth failure, moon face, buffalo hump, hypertension, male gynecomastia.
49
Hashimoto's thyroiditis: hyper or hypo?
hypo
50
Postpartum thyroiditis:
hyper for first 1-4 months, 4-8 months
51
Grave's disease: hypo or hyper?
hyper-most specific cause, autoimmune disease
52
What is pseudohypoparathyroidism?
hypoparathyroidism, shortened 4th and 5th metacarpals.
53
Elevated serum phophate levels, which type of parathyroidism?
hypo | decreased for hyper
54
Gout occurs with what?
hyperparathyroidism
55
increased neuromuscular activity occurs with which parathyroidism?
hyper
56
American diabetes assoc. recommends blood glucose to be ___ to ___ before a meal and <_____ after a meal
180-200 mg/dl | <180
57
Ketoacidosis more common with DM1 or DM2?
DM1
58
Signs of ketoacidosis?
dyspnea, a fruity breath odor, dry mouth, nausea, vomiting , confusionOutcomes Patient’s Progress at 16 weeks: Completing10 single-leg squats without internal rotation of the hip or knee valgus/instability Walking on the treadmill, at his maximal speed, for 15 minutes without gait deviations or reports of knee pain Running on the treadmill, four, two-minute intervals, with normal gait pattern, no pain Goals at 20 weeks: Obtaining a limb symmetry index ≥ 90% vertical jump, hop for distance, side hop Running on the treadmill, four or more, five-minute intervals, with normal gait pattern, no pain
59
Primary syndromes for hypogonadism in males and females;
males; Klinefelter's | females: Turner
60
People with GERD usually prefer to lie on which side/
L: because R may promote acid flowing into the esophagus
61
Pain from ulcers can radiate to which quadrant and shoulder?
R upper quadrant and shoulder
62
Diverticulitis
From diverticulosis-pouch-like protrusions in the colon. 10% of people over 40 80% asymptomatic.
63
Which type(s) of hepatitis does/do not progress to chronic disease or cirrhosis?
A
64
Which type(s) of hepatitis is/are transmitted through blood? Which fecal/oral?
B and C | A
65
Cholecystitis vs cholelithiasis
cystitis: inflammation lithiasis: stones
66
Which type of drugs decrease symptoms of nausea and vomiting?
aniemetic agents
67
What happens to urine output, sodium and potassium with acute renal failure?
Oligouria (decreased urine), hyperkalemia, sodium retention
68
The 5 stages of kidney disease according to the National Kidney Foundation
1) damage but normal GFR (90 or greater) 2) GFR 60-89 3) GFR 30-59 4) GFR 15-29 5) failure (<15)
69
Most common type of incontinence?
Urge: intense urge to void due to detrusor muscle contraction
70
_______ _______ is when the linea alba is separated >2 fingers
diastasis recti
71
Pregnant women should remain at ____ to ____% of their max HR
50-60
72
Ditropan and Detrol are what kind of agents?
Overactive bladder agents
73
Cinobac (cinoxacin) and Furadantin (nitrofurantoin) do what?
Urinary anti-infective agents that are not traditional antibiotics
74
what is cystocele?
bulging of the bladder into the vagina
75
what is retocele?
the bulging of the anterior wall of the rectum into the vagina secondary to weakening of the pelvic supporting structures
76
``` C A U T I O N for cancer ```
``` change in bowel/bladder a sore that won't heal unusual bleeding/discharge thickening/lump indigestion/difficulty swallowing obvious change in wart/mole nagging cough/hoarsness ```
77
National institute stage for cancer, 0-IV
0: only in layer of cells in which it began, not all cancers have a stage 0 I: only in tissue of origin II: adjacent tissues, may have micrometastases in lymph nodes III: signs of fixation in adjacent tissue, likelihood of lymph involvement is high IV: beyond primary site to bone or another organ
78
A risk factor for Hodgkin's lymphoma is exposure to the ______ ______ virus
Epsein-Barre virus
79
Cancer in glandular cells is called __________
adenocarcinoma
80
exercise for pts undergoing cancer treatment: HR in a range of ____ to _____% max
40-65%
81
Most common type of pediatric brain tumor?
astrocytoma