Practice exams Flashcards
1
Q
Which node does sinus tachycardia originate in?
A
SA node
2
Q
What does the QT interval measure?
A
depolarization and repolarization time of the ventricles
3
Q
How may digitalis affect the QT interval?
A
May actually shorten it.
4
Q
What does the ST segment represent?
A
isoelectric period following depolarization
5
Q
How would digitalis affect the ST segment?
A
Sagging
6
Q
How would an MI affect the ST segment?
A
May elevate it, also may be elevated as much as 2mm in african american males.
7
Q
Duchenne MD affects proximal or distal muscles first?
A
Proximal
8
Q
Spondylitis
A
Inflammation of the vertebra
9
Q
Spondylolysis
A
Defect in the pars or arch of vertebra. Most common in L5
10
Q
Spod ylolisthesis
A
Forward displacement of one vertebra over another.
11
Q
Spondyloptosis
A
Vertebral body is completely off of the adjacent body (Grade 5)
12
Q
Which laboratory finding could be MOST related to the use of silver sulfadiazine?
A
Leukopenia (<5,000 mm^3).
13
Q
What types of medications could cause hypokalemia?
A
steroids, diuretics
14
Q
What type of topical agent could affect body fluid pH?
A
mafenide acetate
15
Q
The width of the BP bladder should be ___% of the circumference of the midpoint of the limb
A
40%, avg for adults is 5-6 inches
16
Q
Pt status post stoke is on a mat prone on elbows, working on lateral weight shifts. Which therapeutic exercise technique would allow the patient to improve dynamic stability with this activity?
A
Approximation: Facilitates contraction and stability through joint compression.
17
Q
What does the Barthel Index examine? Scoring?
A
10 ADLs, score from 0-100, increments of 5. 100 is best.
18
Q
Hubbard tank
A
full-body immersion, 4x8x6
19
Q
Highboy tank
A
for longer body parts, but pt can’t fully extend LE in sitting, but is deep enough for mid thoracic region
20
Q
Lowboy tank
A
Can extend LE, but not very deep
21
Q
If PT measures pt’s volume after maximal inhalation then exhalation, what is it measuring?
A
Vital capacity
22
Q
What does a large sample size increase?
A
The likelihood of rejecting the null
23
Q
What do most cardiac guidelines say for max HR allowed in phase I?
A
130 bpm or no more than 20bpm above for post-MI, 30bpm for post-surgery
24
Q
A decrease in systolic pressure of ____mmHg during phase 1 cardiac should not be allowd
A
Shouldn’t exceed 10mmHg
25
A diastolic blood pressure of ___ is considered the upper limit for exercise in phase I cardiac rehab
110mmHg
26
The optimal level of LDL is <___mg/dL
100
27
Normal temp for a hot pack machine is ____F or ____C
160 or 71
28
How far down does a stage III ulcer extend?
Down through subcutaneous tissue, can be to, but not through, underlying fascia, so no muscle.
29
Which muscles of respiration most active during forced expiration?
Internal intercostals
30
What is the PRIMARY limitation of a max exercise test?
requires them to work to their point of volitional fatigue, usually stop before them, reduces the sensitivity of estimate of maximum oxygen uptake.
(true positive)
31
How much pressure would typically be necessary to control LE edema for ambulatory patients?
30-40 mmHg
32
A pressure of ___ to ___ is used to control scar tissue formation.
20-30
33
A pressure of ___ to ___ is characteristic of shelf stockings used to prevent DVTs
16-18
34
What is electromyography response is MOST indicative of a normal muscle at rest?
electrical silence
35
Polyphasic potentials are from what?
Denervated motor unit, 5 or more phases.
36
Most cost-effective way to screen for osteoporosis?
Height
37
PRIMARY purpose of an arterial line?
Measure blood pressure
38
Definition of a wheeze
high constant pitch during exhalation
39
Rales
synonymous with crackles
40
Rhonchi
lower-pitched continues, adventitious breath sounds occurring during inspiration or expiration and are cause by turbulence of air passing through secretions in large and mid-sized bronchi
41
What is the best medication for into for LE ulcer healing? Pos or neg charge?
zinc-positively charged.
42
A duration of ___ to ___ minutes of spinal traction may be warranted if the patient has tolerated it in previous session(s)
20-30-good for tissue stretch
43
Athetosis usually occurs when which area of the brain is damaged?
basal ganglia
44
Lingula is a section of which part of the lung?
L upper lobe
45
How often should nursing staff turn a person post-stroke?
every 2 hours
46
2 things an arterial line can do?
BP and blood gas
47
What does a central venous line measure?
R atrial pressure, emergency pacemaker placements, fluids/meds
48
What does a pulmonary artery line measure?
inserted through R heart to pulmonary artery to monitor cardiovascular pressures and mixed venous blood gases.
49
Mastitis
infection of the fatty breast tissue typically associated with postpartum breast feeding, looks like cellulitis but with characteristic painful lumps.
50
Erysipelas
form of cellulitis caused by strep. More defined with unmistakable bright red and sharp demarcation borders.
51
What is the trendelenburg position?
head lower than feet, for lower lobe drainage, and hypotensive patients
52
Which cryotherapeutic agent proves the greatest magnitude of tissue cooling?
ice massage
53
Dependent edema is associated with ___-sided heart failure
R (fluid in liver, abdomen, and ankles)
54
ADA requires minimum of ____ inches for pt to safely go through doorway with W/C?
32
55
What complication of MI is patient MOST susceptible shortly after?
arrhythmias (90% of people who have had an MI)
| Thrombus or cardiac muscle damage can occur but not MOST common
56
Need ___ to ___ towel layers between hot pack and treatment surface
6 to 8
57
Front edge of seat and popliteal space should be ___ inches part for proper seat depth in W/C
2 inches
58
A grade of ___ would result in ___ inch of rise for ___ 12 inches of run, is max percent grade of a ramp for ADA
8.3%, 1, 12
59
What is a beam non uniformity ratio for an U/S?
ratio of intensity of the highest peak to the average intensity of all peaks.
60
What should be considered when determining a schedule for calibration and maintenance for an U/S?
frequency of use-if used a lot should be calibrated multiple times per year.
61
Decreased breath sounds and decreased fremitus associated with what?
pleural effusion
62
Decrease breath sounds and increased fremitus associated with what 3 things?
pulmonary edema, or consolidation if only in one area, also atelectasis.
63
U/S can be administered to an area ___ to ___ times the size of the effective radiated are of the transducer face in a ___ minute period time.
2-3, 5 minutes
64
Which breathing device MOST beneficial to help pt prevent alveolar collapse?
incentive spirometer
65
An appropriate way to examine pt's abstract ability?
discuss how 2 objects are similar
66
Appropriate way to examine pt's constructional ability?
copy drawing of figures.
67
Most effective cough position?
sitting upright
68
What are droplet precautions? Which 3 common illnesses?
Close contact respiratory/mucous, only mask necessary, flu, pertussis, diphtheria
69
Standard unit of phase charge?
Coulomb=electrical charge, 6.25x10^18 electrons/second
70
Cardinal signs of anemia?
pallor, cyanosis, cool skin
71
enteral drug administration means what?
oral
72
What is a ratio scale measurement?
Has an absolute zero point, meaning score of 0 represents total absence of the property being measured, eg height and weight
73
What is an interval scale?
Same rank-order characteristics as an ordinal scale, but has known equal distances between units, but unlike ratio, it does not have a true zero point, eg temperature.
74
Positive Roos test is indicated by what?
inability to hold for 3 minutes.
75
What is normal radial wrist deviation measurement?
0-20 degrees
76
Landeau reflex:
it is an equilibrium response that occurs when child responds to prone suspension by aligning their head and extremities in line with the plane of the body. 3mo to 2 years
77
Hyperoxemia vs hyperoxia vs hypoxemia
1) increased blood acidity
2) increased O2 in blood
3) decreased O2 in blood as measure by PaO2.
78
Best wrist position to palpate the lunate?
wrist flexion
79
What is the normal pH of the skin?
3-4
80
Which 4 PNF techniques have the purpose of increasing strength?
repeated contractions, alternating isometrics, resisted progression, and timing for emphasis
81
Problem with high beam non-uniformity ratio on U/S?
places pt at risk for periosteal pain/hot spots
82
Which flexor digitorum attaches to the distal philanges?
Profundus
83
Ventral glide of the humerus increase which glenohumeral ROMs?
ER, extension, and horizontal abduction
84
Which position places the most pressure on the lumbar spine?
sitting in a chair, slouching forward
85
Minimum inches to turn 180 degrees in a standard wheelchair for the ADA?
60 inches wide
86
A repeated measures design controls for what in an experiment?
differences between subjects, also called a "within subject" design
87
What part of TENS do you changed to change it from motor to sensory?
frequency, is greater with sensory level stimulation compared to motor
88
Autolytic wound debridement
Uses body's own mechanics to remove noviable tissue, with films, hydrocolloids, hydrogels, etc.
89
Best way to palpate the rotator cuff?
passive extension of the humerus
90
How many degrees of MP hyperextension at end of terminal stance?
30 degrees
91
What determines a positive Rhomberg test?
positive if min sway when open, instability or falls with eyes closed
92
Ice massage treatment time?
5-10 minutes
93
TTWB vs PWB
TT: no weight through LE, but allowed to use toes for balance
PWB: eg 5 lbs on involved side
94
Hickman catheter
indwelling R atrial catheter
95
What is the minimum score to avoid being classified as a having a cognitive impairment with the mini-mental state exam?
24, score ranges from 0-30
96
A berg score of 16 is what % HR?
85
97
Balance grade of fair:
without support, but cannot weight shift
98
Functional reach, which bony process measured?
3rd metacarpal
99
Postural drainage position for the superior segments of the L and R lobes?
prone with 2 pillows under the hips
100
What is the normal quad:ham strength ratio?
3:2
101
Why does increasing the size of the cathode relative to the anode decrease current density and therefore decrease risk of chemical burn?
Accumulation of positively charged ions in a small area creates an alkaline reaction that is more likely to create tissue damage. (cathode is negatively charged electrode, anode is positive, so if the cathode is larger it will spread out more of the positive ions it attracts)
102
What does the Rinne test do?
compares bone conduction hearing with air conduction hearing. Tuning fork on mastoid process, then placed next to the air. Air conducted sound should be approximately twice as long as the bone conducted sound.
103
What is the MOST effective technique when teaching a pt to complete an activity without dyspnea?
pacing
104
Which of the following sympathetic substances is stimulated by decreased arterial pressure and acts as a vasoconstrictor?
angiotensin
105
Which lung volume is 10%?
tidal volume
106
Inspiratory reserve volume percent? approx mL?
55-60%
| 2300-3000
107
Residual volume percent
25%
108
Functional residual capacity percent?
40%
109
Most effective imaging at identifying a stress fracture?
bone scan
110
Vital capacity is about ____ to ____ mL
4,000-5,000
111
Residual volume is approximately _____ to _____ mL
900-1200
112
Myotome innervation of the rhomboids and the levator scap?
C4-5
| C3-5
113
If a referral form is >90 days old, how should the PT contact the physician?
over the phone is okay since already have the referral
114
A researcher uses a simple random sample-this type ensures what?
unbiased, that every member of the population has an equal opportunity of being chosen
115
Most appropriate bandage width for transfemoral amputation?
| transtibial
6in
| 4in
116
Where should you measure the abdominal skinfold for body composition?
vertical fold, 2cm to the R of the umbilicus
117
Autonomic dysreflexia is associated with ppl with SCI above which level?
T6
118
pt was diagnosed with cancer 2 months ago, what information would be most valuable when establishing POC?
TNM classification/staging of caner
119
Is Addison's or Cushing's hypoplasia of the adrenal cortex?
Addison's
120
If in a hospital and pt's toes coming out of a cast are discolored, what should the PT do?
Remove the cast
121
Long term goals developed for a child in the school system typically follow what timeframe?
1 year-federal legislation mandates the review of an IEP on a one year basis.
122
Land marks for measuring Q angle
ASIS, midpoint of patella, tibial tubercle
123
A cosmetically desirable prosthetic for an older adult in a retirement community, following transtibial amputation
Endoskeletal shank with a SACH foot (foot will be light, and since retired don't have to worry about wear, otherwise would use a single axic ankle)
124
1 MET is how much oxygen per what/
3.5 mL O2 per kg body weight
125
Simple sample vs
Systematic vs
Cluster vs
Stratified random
Simple: probability, every element of the pop has a chance of being chosen
Systematic: probability, elements are chosen from lists of population members using intervals such as every 4th element
Cluster: probability, large subgroups are randomly selected first, then smaller units selected from the clusters. Potential for sampling error since requires two or more samples to be drawn
Stratified: probability, homogenous groups based on some characteristic, elements chosen at random, decreases sampling error
126
Most common cardiovascular side effect of corticosteroids:
increased BP
127
What is the minimum required testing interval for electrical equipment?
12 months
128
The numeric pain rating scale is what type of scale?
Ordinal
129
Difference between interval and ratio scale?
Both have defined differences between points but interval does not have an absolute zero (eg temp) whereas ratio does (ROM, weight, height, force)
130
The spine of the scap corresponds to which vertebral level?
T3
131
What is a posterior leaf spring orthosis designed for?
PF and DF, good for a person who has medial lateral stability but needs support for PF and DF
132
Type of propulsion adaptation to a manula WC most appropriate for a person with C5 SCI?
handrim projections
| friction surface handrims more appropriate for C6-7
133
Which type of body movement would most likely facilitate elbow extension a pt with hemiplegia?
Turn head to the affected side (like ATNR)
134
How is core temp and O2 consumption affected in people with severe burns?
Core temp increases due to increased metabolic activity-warming the room can help decrease this.
O2 consumption/minute ventilation can increase up to 5 times
135
If pt sustains ____% burns on body, electrolyte replacement is part of immediate medical management
20%
136
Bobath vs brunnstrom in terms of reflex mvmt patterns
Bobath: NDT, avoid reflex mvmt patterns and associated reactions
Brunnstrom: created and define the term synergy, encourage immediately practicing synergy, then practice moving outside of it
137
Delayed and limited knee flexion after heel strike on prosthetic side, likely cause?
heel wedge too soft
138
A traction force of ____ to ____ lbs is recommended when initiating mechanical lumbar traction
25-50
139
How far should you lower the tilt table if person has signs or orthostatic hypotension
all the way baby!
