PT Content Master App Flashcards
1
Q
Which term is used to describe the outer layer of the cardiac tissue which protects the surface of the heart against trauma/infection?
A
epicardium
2
Q
A therapist instructs a pt with COPD in pursed lip breathing; the purpose is to:
A
decrease respiratory rate
3
Q
How many breaths/min when rescue breathing on an infant?
A
12-20
4
Q
Pt in cardiac rehab is clinically stable, independent with self-monitoring, and no longer requires ECG, this is which phase?
A
III
5
Q
Continuous adventitious very high-pitched wheeze that can be heard with inspiration and expiration: which breath sound?
A
stridor
6
Q
Korotkoff’s sound that is assoc with DP?
A
Phase IV
7
Q
Most appropriate position to begin practicing diaphragmatic breathing?
A
sitting in bed, trunk at 45 degrees
8
Q
Which medical condition would be an absolute contraindication for beginning cardiac rehabilitation? MI bypass sx PVD thrombophlebitis
A
thrombo-is inflammation of a vein caused by a clot
9
Q
what is the trendelenburg position?
A
bottom of bed inclined to about 45 degrees
10
Q
which valve prevents blood from returning to the R ventricle?
A
pulmonic
11
Q
Which period of the cardiac cycle includes emptying of blood from the atria to the ventricles?
A
atrial systole
12
Q
Which position for drainage of the superior segments of the posterior lung lobes?
A
prone, pillow under stomach
13
Q
Where do the hands go for diaphragmatic breathing practice?
A
non-dominant over sternum, dominant over abdominals
14
Q
The borders of the femoral triangle
A
Sartorius, adductor longus, inguinal lig
15
Q
What can caffeine, emotional stress, and smoking increase the heart’s susceptibility to?
A
PVCs
16
Q
How many times/day after surgery should a pt use an incentive spirometer?
A
3-4
17
Q
What is the vital capacity of an adult?
A
4-5,000 mL
18
Q
Normal training range for people (Heart rate)
A
60-90%
19
Q
After a therapist activates the emergency response system and determines an unresponsive pt is not breathing, what should he/she do?
A
2 breaths, then check pulse
20
Q
Which cardiac measure would most closely approximate the volume associated with a pt’s venous return?
A
Cardiac output
21
Q
A lesion of C4 would most likely be associated with weakness of which muscle?
A
levator scap
22
Q
Examples of antiepileptic agents? 2 Ds, 1 K
A
Depakote, Dilantin, Klonopin
23
Q
which brain structure controls body temp, sleep, and appetite?
A
hypothalamus
24
Q
Corticospinal tract lesion that causes extension in the trunk and extremities
A
decerebrate
25
PNF: ability to move within a weight bearing position or rotate around a long axis is what stage of motor control?
Controlled mobility
26
supraspinatus is innervated by which peripheral nerve?
suprascapular
27
The use of reflex inhibiting postures to influences abnormal tone and reflexes is part of which model?
NDT/Bobath
28
Mass movement patterns is assoc with which model?
PNF
29
Medial leg and great toe: which dermatome?
L4
30
The 5 primary risk factors for CVA
Heart disease, HTN, DM, smoking, TIAs
31
4 secondary risk factors for CVA
Cholesterol, obesity, inactive, ETOH
32
ALS progresses in which direction?
distal to proximal
33
Which is a PNF technique that is passive and used to decrease hypertonia?
rhymical rotation-rotate limb around long axis
34
Plantar flexion response associated with L4-L5 is seen with which DTR?
tibialis posterior
35
which structure in the dienceph. is responsible for receiving information from the ANS an assisting in hormone regulation?
hypothalamust
36
Which dermatome is at the occiput?
C2
37
The use of overflow is associated with which model?
Brunnstrom
38
skipping and small buttons at which age?
5-8
39
Which nerve root would correspond to a muscle related bladder dysfunction?
S4 is associated with the bladder and rectum
40
What is the LE position for D2 extension?
pelvic depression, hip extension, adduction, ER, knee flexion or extension, ankle PF and inversion
41
What defines the terminal stance phase?
Stance limb's heel rises until other foot touches the ground
42
What is steppage?
lifts feet and toes by excessive hip and knee flexion
43
When measuring wrist flex/ext, the axis of the goni is positioned on the lateral aspect of the wrist over the _________, when measuring ulnar/radial deviation, it is placed over the _________. (carpal bones)
triquetrum, capitate
44
5 medial rotators of the hip
TFL, glut med, glut min, pectineus, adductor longus
45
6 lateral rotators of the hip
glut max, obt. ext, obt. int, piriformis, gemelli, and sartorius
46
What is normal hip adduction ROM?
0-30
47
10 degrees of supination is the loose packed position for which joint?
distal radioulnar
48
Loos packed position of the proximal radioulnar joint?
70 degrees flexion, 35 degrees supination
49
A young male with is grade II MCL sprain wants to know when he will likely be able to return to competition.
4-8 weeks
50
convex/concave rule for the patellofemoral
convex patella moving on a concave femur
51
Normal Q angle for males and females
13 degrees male, 18 female
52
What is the first muscle typically affected with carpal tunnel syndrome?
Abductor pollicis brevis
53
What happens to FRC, FEV1, TLC, FVC, RV and VC with emphysema?
Decreased VC, FEV1, and FVC
| Increased TLC, RV, and FRC
54
```
Normal ROM:
Wrist extension
Wrist flexion
Shoulder extension
Shoulder medial rotation
```
Wrist extension: 70
Wrist flexion: 80
Shoulder extension: 60
Shoulder medial rotation: 70
55
Normal anteversion value in an adult?
8-15
56
What is the close packed position for the distal RU joint?
5 degrees supination
57
hip flexion ROM for normal gait?
30 degrees
58
Which bony landmark would be most appropriate to use when aligning the axis of the goniometer when measuring lateral flexion of the thoracic and lumbar spines? Where should the moveable arm align?
Spinous process of S1
| C7
59
What is the position of a Homan's sign?
Knee is extended and ankle is passively dorsiflexed, pain in the calf
60
How long until return to athletic competition for grade I MCL injury?
1-3 wks
61
Normal wrist pron/sup values
80 for both
62
Normal radial/ulnar deviation values
20 radial
| 30 ulnar
63
```
Thumb CMC ROM:
Abduction
Flexion
Extension
Opposition
```
Abduction: 70
Flexion: 15
Extension: 20
Opposition: tip to base of 5th
64
Thumb MP flexion
50
65
Thumb IP flexion
80
66
Digits 2-5:
| MP flexion and hyper extension
90 and 45
67
Digits 2-5
Prox IP flexion:
Distal IP flexion and hyperextension
0-100
90
10
68
```
Ankle ROM:
DF
PF
IN
EV
```
DF: 20
PF: 50
IN: 35
EV: 15
69
```
Cervical spine:
Flexion
Extension
Lateral Flexion
Rotation
```
Flexion: 45
Extension: 45
Lateral Flexion: 45
Rotation: 60
70
```
Thoracolumbar ROM:
Flexion
Extension
Lateral Flexion
Rotation
```
Flexion: 80
Extension:25
Lateral Flexion: 25
Rotation 45
71
Patrick's tests also know as _______, if positive, may be indicative of 3 types of abnormalities
FABER: iliopsoas, SI joint, or hip joint abnormalities
72
What is the brush test?
for effusion in the knee
73
A Milwaukee orthosis is usually used for what?
scoliosis
74
Demographics for OA
Older female
75
6 risk factors for pressure ulcers
impaired cognition, poor nutrition, incontinence, decreased lean body mass, altered sensation, infection
76
What is the anticipated deformity of a burn covering the wrist and hand?
flexion at the wrist, MP extension
77
Which type of wound dressing has a high absorptive capacity and would be appropriate to pack a tunneling infected wound with heavy exudate?
Alginates
78
The Wagner Ulcer Grade Scale: 0-5
A deep ulcer with ostemyelitis would be documented as which grade on the Wagner Ulcer Grade Classification Scale?
0-intact
1-superficial to subcutaneous tissue
2-ulcers extend into tendon, bone, capsule
3-deep ulcer with osteomyelitis or abscess
4-gangrene of the forefoot or digit(s)
5-gangrene of midfoot/hindfoot
Grade 3
79
Which wound type is most appropriately treated with an alginate dressing?
Infected wound with excessive drainage
80
Which topical agent used in burn care is bacteriocidal and painful when applied?
Nitrofurazone
81
Which type of dressing would be most appropriate for a venous ulcer with moderate serosangineous exudate
Hydrocolloid-versatile, can be used with granular or necrotic, partial or full-thickness wounds.
82
Which 2 types of dressing offer moderate absorption properties?
Foam and hydrocolloid
83
What is a 3 point spline most appropriate for in the the LE for preventing contractures (which joint)
knee
84
Which broad-spectrum topical agent used in the treatment of burns can cause discoloration making visual assessment difficult?
Silver nitrate
85
Which 2 wound dressings require secondary dressings?
Hydrogels and alginates-because neither has adhesive properties
86
Most consistent clinical presentation of an arterial wound?
smooth, well defined edges, decreased skin temp and pedal pulses
87
What are 2 relative contraindications for treatment of lymphedema?
deep tissue massage, long stretch bandaging.
88
Which type of wound dressing is available in semipermeable and occlusive forms?
Hydrocolloid
89
What are the potential side effects of hydrotherapy? (2)
decreased blood pressure, macerated surrounding skin
90
3 topical agents used in burn care that are painful
Nitrofurazone, mafenide acetate, povidone-iodine
91
Which type of wound dressing comprised of natural material extracted from seaweed?
alginate
92
Which form a debridement should not be utilized for management of infected wounds?
autolytic-includes hydrogels, hydrocolloids, alginates, and films, results in a moist wound environment
93
Hydrogels typically used with what type of wound?
superficial/partial thickness with minimal drainage
94
A side effect associated with overactive bladder agents but not urinary infective agents?
pulmonary reactions-report to physician!
95
Blood pressure, rage, fear, and sexual behavior are under ANS control of which endocrine gland?
hypothalamus
96
Normal range for weight gain during a healthy pregnancy?
25-35 lbs
97
Ipecac is which type of drug?
emetic agent
98
Approx how many quarts of blood are processed by the kidneys during a 24 hour period?
200
99
```
Normal GFR?
Stage 1
2
3
4
5
Stages of kidney disease according to the National Kidney Foundation
```
```
Stage 1: 90 mL/min or greater (damage with normal GFR)
2 60-89
3 30-59
4 15-29
5 <15
```
100
A pt is taking meclizine. Which type of drug, how will it interfere with therapy session?
antiemetic-usually for post-op nausea/vomiting
| drowsiness
101
Mitotic inhibitors, used for cancer, are also know as what?
plant alkaloid agents
102
Definition of affective disorders
disturbances in mood eg bipolar, depression
103
Which pituitary hormone promotes estrogen and progesterone synthesis in females?
luteinizing hormone
104
Which pharmacological agent can be used for both depression and anxiety?
SSRIs
105
Vitamin K deficiency is likely to be a diagnosis associated with which organ?
liver
106
Oliguria is characterized by a 24 hour urine output of less than _______ mL. Anuria is less than _______ mL
400
| 100
107
Which is the "master gland" of the endocrine system?
pituitary
108
Symptoms that spread proximally, burning, and chronic pain are most likely related to:
reflex sympathetic dystrophy (CRPS)
109
The leading cause of cancer related death for both men and women is which type?
lung
110
What are the 3 subcategories of antiemetic agents?
5-HT3 receptor antagonists, anticholinergics, antihistamines
111
Which cardiopulmonary factor typically increases 40-50% during pregnancy?
Blood volume
112
Which hormones are secreted by the adrenal medulla?
norepinephrine and epinephrine
113
Which muscle do overactive bladder agents affect?
detrusor
114
Irrational fear of needles
belonephobia
115
Kidney failure secondary to extended drug therapies is the leading cause of death for patients with:
HIV
116
What is an active form of Vitamine D released by the kidneys?
calcitriol
117
Which medication would likely be used for the management of a patient with helicobacter pylori infection?
prilosec
118
Radioactive iodine is used to treat what?
hyperthyroidism
119
which agent used to treat bipolar requires monitoring for toxicity and may result in osteoporosis long-term?
lithium
120
The kidneys regulate blood pressure by excreting which sodium compound?
sodium chloride
121
Lethargy, black tarry stool, and diarrhea are common side effects of which agent?
emetic
122
Which oncology related pharmacologic agent binds DNA strands together to prevent replication?
Alkylating agents
123
Which 2 systems work together to maintain homeostasis in the body?
endocrien and nervous
124
Which adrenal hormone is known to have anti-inflammatory effects when present in large quantities?
glucocorticoids (cortisol)
125
Which hormone secreted by the ovaries targets the mammary glands in females?
estrogen
126
Which psych. disorder is characterized by physical complaints of a neurological basis, such as paralysis, paresthesia, and deafness, with no underlying cause
conversion (restricted to motor and sensory) somatization is GI sx x2, pain x 4, sexual,
127
Androgens are often used to manage what condition?
BPH
128
Which abdominal organ acts as both endocrine and exocrine gland?
pancreas
129
Diastasis recti is ____ finger widths apart
2
130
Glucagon increases blood glucose levels by targeting the _________
liver
131
Abdominal aoritic aneurism will be felt/heard in which quadrant?
L upper
132
Which hormone affects body systems by increasing storage of fat, protein, and carbs?
insulin
133
Which agents used in oncological management are not cytotoxic but instead facilitate the patient's own immune response to destroy malignant tissue?
biologic response modifier agents interferons (Intron A), interleukin-2 (Proleukin), and monoclonal antibodies (Avastin)
134
max amount of O2 that can be effectively delivered per minute by a nasal cannula?
6 L/min
135
The average adult wheelchair armrest height is _____ inches above the chair seat
9
136
sequence of 3 point gait pattern
advancement of AD, followed by affected LE, then unaffected
137
Appropriate arm cuff position for well fitting forearm crutches would be ____ in below the olecranon process
1 inch
138
Ratio on:off time for mechanical compression?
3:1
139
Cold bath temperature range
55-64
140
How much inflation pressure for compression treatment for UE?
45mmHg
141
Max depth of tissue heating with 1MHz?
5cm (3 MHx is 1-2 cm deep)
142
How much neck flexion should be present for cerical traction?
25-35 degrees flexion
143
Assuming a pt is making progress over sessions of biofeedback, what should the therapist do with the electrodes and sensitivity setting?
move them further apart and increase the sensitivity setting-will require muscles to be in a more relaxed state
144
The 4 positive ions used with ionto?
lidocaine, copper sulfate, magnesium sulfate, zinc oxide
145
What should be applied last when donning sterile gear? gloves or mask?
gloves
146
The V sections of the ADA?
```
I Employment
II Public Services
III Public Accommodations
IV Telecommunications
V Miscellaneous
```
147
What are standard precautions a combination of ?
Universal and body substance isolation precautions-an update to the old universal precautions
148
What are the 2 types of managed care health insurance systems. What is it?
HMP and PPO, subscribers utilized health care providers that are contracted by insurance company at a lower cost
149
Which system has co-payments usually 80/20%?
Fee for service
150
Fee for service vs managed care: which emphasizes education and prevention?
Managed care
151
What is the maximum score possible on the Mini Mental State Exam?
30
