nutrition 1-6 practice questions (NOT DONE)

Question 1

Which word is best defined by the following: “An edible material that provides nutrients”?
a. Nutrients
b. Food
c. Carnivore
d. Ration

Answer 1

b. Food

Question 2

Which of the following components of dry matter is considered inorganic?
a. Minerals
b. Protein
c. Vitamins
d. Lipids

Answer 2

a

Question 3

Which of the following is not true of carnivores?
a. They typically have relatively large brains
b. They may be further classified as obligate carnivores or mesocarnivores
c. One example of an obligate carnivore is the ferret
d. They typically have a more complex digestive system than herbivores

Answer 3

d

Question 4

Which of the following feeding behaviours typically results in an animal with a combination of sharp
teeth (for shearing through meat) and flat molars (or grinding plant matter)?
a. Omnivores
b. Obligate carnivores
c. Concentrate selectors
d. Grazers

Answer 4

a

Question 5

Which of the following is an example of a concentrate selector?
a. Deer
b. Lion
c. Sheep
d. Horse

Answer 5

a

Question 6

Which two feeding behaviour groups are able to greatly vary their diet depending on food
availability?
a. Obligate carnivores
b. Omnivores
c. Intermediate feeders
d. Concentrate selectors

Answer 6

b,c

Question 7

Grazing animals preferentially select feeds which maximise the availability of energy and provide
them with positive experiences. This can be referred to as:
a. Meal choice
b. Avoidant eating
c. Nutritional wisdom
d. Herd health

Answer 7

c

Question 8

Which of the following is not a means by which cattle obtain water?
a. Drinking water
b. Transdermal absorption
c. Water present in food
d. Water formed during metabolism

Answer 8

b

Question 9

Which of the following is the chemical formula of a triose monosaccharide?
a. C3H6O3
b. C4H8O4
c. C5H10O5
d. C6H12O6

Answer 9

a

Question 10

What is the main form of energy storage in domestic animal species?
a. Muscle
b. Calcium
c. Carbohydrates
d. Fat

Answer 10

d

Question 11

Below is a photograph of two, 11-week-old male rats. Which is more likely to have been fed a diet
deficient in essential fatty acids? a or b

Answer 11

b

Question 12

Which of the following is a common symptom of vitamin A (retinol) deficiency in horses?
a. Coagulopathy
b. Calcification of soft tissues
c. Night blindness
d. Anaemia

Answer 12

c

Question 13

‘Curled toe paralysis’ is most often seen in chicks with a deficiency of which vitamin?
a. Vitamin B12 (riboflavin)
b. Vitamin K (phylloquinone)
c. Arginine
d. Monosaccharides

Answer 13

a

Question 14

Vitamin B12 (cobalamin) is most often supplemented in dogs suffering from which symptom?
a. Allergic dermatitis
b. Diarrhoea
c. Coagulopathy
d. Seizures

Answer 14

b

Question 15

Which domestic species is most likely to suffer from Vitamin C (ascorbic acid) deficiency?
a. Cats
b. Cattle
c. Horses
d. Guinea pigs

Answer 15

d

Question 16

Vitamin A (retinol) acts as a precursor for rhodopsin, which is important for which body function?
a. Blood clotting
b. Skeletal strength
c. Low-light vision
d. Cardiac muscle contraction

Answer 16

c

Question 17

Vitamin D (calciferol) plays a key role in which metabolic system?
a. Low-light vision
b. Blood clot stabilisation
c. Antioxidant protection of cell membranes
d. Calcium regulation

Answer 17

d

Question 18

What is the most common cause of Vitamin K deficiency seen in small animal clinical practice?
a. Anti-coagulant rodenticide toxicosis
b. Dietary deficiency
c. Genetic malabsorption
d. Failure of placental transfer

Answer 18

a

Question 19

The below photograph shows a structural deformity in a horse colloquially known as ‘big head’.
What is the most likely mineral deficiency this horse is experiencing?
a. Copper
b. Calcium
c. Vitamin A (retinol)
d. Selenium

Answer 19

b

Question 20

Are pasture animals in Queensland more likely to experience calcium or phosphorous deficiency?
a. Calcium
b. Phosphorous

Answer 20

b

Question 21

The below photograph shows a hoof which has grown abnormally. Would this horse be more likely
to be experiencing selenium deficiency or selenium toxicosis?
a. Selenium deficiency
b. Selenium toxicosis

Answer 21

b

Question 22

Iodine is closely associated with the production of which hormone?
a. Leptin
b. Oestrogen
c. Thyroxine (T4)
d. Cortisol

Answer 22

c

Question 23

Digestibility can be best defined as:
a. The proportion of feed that is not excreted in the faeces, and therefore is assumed to be
absorbed by the animal
b. The proportion of energy that is lose in urine and combustible gases
c. The amount of heat that is produced by complete oxidation of a unit of food
d. A traditional method of conserving green crops

Answer 23

a

Question 24

A bomb calorimeter is used to measure what property of food?
a. Gross energy
b. Digestible energy
c. Metabolisable enery
d. Net energy

Answer 24

a

Question 25

Crude protein is…? a. A useful measure of nutritional composition of the diet b. Based on the assumption that nitrogen can be present in a variety of compounds in food c. A comparable measure of digestible protein between species d. An estimation of the protein content of food based on the nitrogen content

Answer 25

d

Question 25

Which of the following is not true of legumes? a. They belong to the family Leguminoseae b. They grow in a symbiotic relationship with nitrogen-fixing bacteria c. They have a generally lower protein content than grasses d. They are generally more drought hardy than grasses

Answer 25

c

Question 26

Which of the following has a higher moisture content? a. Hay b. Silage

Answer 26

b

Question 27

Pelleting cereal grains can be best defined as: a. Grain is exposed to hot steam for 15 to 30 minutes before rolling, producing a flat ‘flake’ b. Corn is exposed to dry heat, causing sudden expansion of water to gas that ruptures the endosperm c. Grain is passed through a flame d. Grain is ground (and often steamed), then shaped into pellets.

Answer 27

d

Question 28

Casein is an example of a: a. Processed animal protein b. Plant protein meal c. Cereal grain d. Forage food

Answer 28

a

Question 29

Non-protein nitrogen provides a protein source for which of the following domestic species? a. Horses b. Cats c. Cattle d. Pigs

Answer 29

c

Question 30

Newly weaned piglets typically experience a decrease in feed intake. This is known as: a. Growth check b. Maximal production c. Feed palatability d. Feed requirements

Answer 30

a

Question 31

Which of the following is not appropriate to feed to backyard pigs in Australia? a. Root crops such as sweet potato b. Fruits such as banana c. Legume crops such as alfalfa d. Food scraps which have been in contact with meat products

Answer 31

d

Question 32

Faeces are considered the window to gut health in a feedlot environment. Which of the following lists all aspects of the faeces which should be considered? a. Colour, consistency, volume b. Colour, consistency, content c. Consistency, content, shape d. Colour, content, dry matter

Answer 32

b

Question 33

Cresty neck scores are scaled from 0 to what number? a. 3 b. 5 c. 7 d. 9

Answer 33

b

Question 34

Which of the following is the foundation of good equine nutrition? (1 mark) a. Medium-quality hay or pasture b. Carbohydrate-rich supplements c. Processed grains d. Straw

Answer 34

a

Question 35

True or false: creep feeding is an effective way to prevent a growth check in weaned piglets. a. True b. False

Answer 35

b

Question 36

Which of the following is not a contributing factor to nutritional requirements in equines? a. Level of work b. Gestation and lactation c. Coat condition d. Temperament

Answer 36

c

Question 37

Under-feeding puppies during growth can predispose to which of the following health concerns? a. Reduced immunity b. Hip dysplasia c. Osteochondrosis d. Obesity in adulthood

Answer 37

a

Question 38

Which of the following is true of nutrition recommendations for pregnant canines? a. Calcium supplementation is desirable during pregnancy b. Feeding a diet rich in organ meats is desirable during pregnancy c. Pregnant bitches have a higher metabolic demand for nutritional energy sourced after week 4-5 of gestation d. Pregnant bitches should never be fed a commercially available puppy diet

Answer 38

c

Question 39

Senior feline diets typically do not target which of the following nutritional demands? a. Anti-oxidants for free-radical protection b. High quality, easily digested protein for muscle maintenance c. Phosphorous control for renal care d. Calcium:phosphorous ratio for optimal bone and joint growth

Answer 39

d

Question 40

Which of the following is not a recognised nutritional management strategy for post-weaning diarrhoea in pigs? a. Restrict intake of feed during early weaning b. Decrease fat component in weaner diet c. Process feeds to reduce antigenicity d. Add pre- and pro-biotics to weaner diet

Answer 40

b

Question 41

Providing roughage of sufficient fibre length can help to prevent urolithiasis in sheep because: a. Longer fibres have lower silica composition = reduced rick of silica uroliths forming b. Longer fibres increase rumination behaviour = increased phosphorous excretion in saliva = reduced risk of struvite uroliths forming c. Longer fibres have higher water content = dilute urine = reduced risk of mineral precipitation d. Longer fibres have improved mineral composition = reduced risk of all uroliths forming

Answer 41

b

Question 42

Which of the following diet components is most likely to increase the risk of osteochondrosis dessicans lesions in horses? a. Easily digested carbohydrates such as grains b. Straw roughage c. Pasture grasses d. Periods of fasting

Answer 42

a

Question 43

Which class of equine athlete is most likely to suffer clinically significant gastric ulcers? a. Show horses b. Pleasure horses c. Working stock horses d. Racing thoroughbreds

Answer 43

d

Question 44

Which of the following would be appropriate to recommend to a client with an obese companion animal? a. Reduce daily food intake by 50% b. Transition to Hills Metabolic food c. Reduce current exercise levels d. Aim for rapid weight loss, at least 5% of body weight per week

Answer 44

b

Question 45

obligate carnivore

Answer 45

Diet consists of at least 70% meat. Cannot properly digest vegetation

Question 46

mesocarnivore

Answer 46

Diet consists of at least 50% meat. Diet may be supplemented with fruits/vegetables/fungi.

Question 47

Sheep grazing behaviours choose 3 out of (i) Prefer leaf material (over stems) and green material (over browned material) (ii) Poorly selective intake (iii) Avoid material with physical irritants (eg. prickles) (iv) Prefer to consume large amounts of high-fibre feed (v) Better suited to mature pastures with little variance (vi) Better suited to pastures with less overall roughage but, high variance of feed available

Answer 47

Prefer leaf material (over stems) and green material (over browned material) Avoid material with physical irritants (eg. prickles) Better suited to pastures with less overall roughage but high variance of feed available

Question 48

cattle grazing behaviour choose 3 out of (i) Prefer leaf material (over stems) and green material (over browned material) (ii) Poorly selective intake (iii) Avoid material with physical irritants (eg. prickles) (iv) Prefer to consume large amounts of high-fibre feed (v) Better suited to mature pastures with little variance (vi) Better suited to pastures with less overall roughage but, high variance of feed available

Answer 48

Poorly selective intake Prefer to consume large amounts of high-fibre feed Better suited to mature pastures with little variance

Question 49

Adaptation period Maintenance period Collection period 1) Animals fed only the experimental diet, completely accustoming them to it and removing residues of other foods from the GI tract. 2) Animals gradually introduced to the experimental diet. 3) Intake and output actively measured and recorded

Answer 49

Adaptation period 2 Maintenance period 1 Collection period 3

Question 50

Steam rolling, Extruding, Micronizing 1) Grain is exposed to hot steam for 3 to 5 minutes before rolling to soften. 2) Heat treated with infrared heat, rather than dry heat. 3) Grain is finely ground, then heated (at high temperatures and pressure) and forced through a barrel to form a long ribbon which can be chopped to various lengths.

Answer 50

steam rolling 1 extruding 3 micronizing 2

Question 51

Humanisation

Answer 51

Desire to feed pets like a human family member

Question 52

Premiumisation

Answer 52

Desire to feed pets the best perceived quality possible

Question 53

Suckling piglets diet, Weaner pigs diet, Grower/finisher pigs diet, Pregnant sows diet, Lactating sows 1) Rations should be high in digestible energy and crude protein. Individuals have limited intake capacity, so should be fed smaller amounts frequently or offered food ad libitum. 2) Rations should have moderate energy and protein content, and intake controlled based on the individual’s body condition. 3) Rations should be high in digestible energy and fed ad libitum, with the aim of maintaining body condition before the next breeding cycle. 4) Rations should be high in digestible energy and crude protein. Dividing this group into three or four phases, with declining protein composition as body weight increases, is often the most economical use of resources. Offer feed ad libitum. 5) Growth rate is directly related to milk yield in the sow and formation of nursing order.

Answer 53

suckling 5 weaner 1 grower/finisher 4 pregnant 2 lactating 3

Question 54

Fasting effect on equine High-starch rations effect on equine “Slug feeding” effect on equine Transport effect on equine Straw roughage effect on equine Restricted water access effect on equine 1) Rapid production of VFA and lactic acid + inadequate saliva production + lower calcium intake. 2) Continued acid secretion with no buffering from saliva or feed + increasingly watery contents more likely to splash gastric fluid onto squamous mucosa 3) Reduced gastric acid dilution. 4) Disturbed water and feed intake. 5) Damage to gastric epithelium + low calcium and protein intake. 6) Combination of periods of fasting and sudden rapid acid production.

Answer 54

fasting effect on equine 2 high starch rations effect 1 slug feeding effect 6 transport effect 4 straw roughage effect 5 restricted water access 3

Question 55

Why is nutrition important in the general health care of companion animals?

Answer 55

Poor nutrition represents a major health and welfare issue in companion animals. It can contribute to digestive disorders, obesity, orthopaedic disease, cardiorespiratory disease, and predisposes to infectious and parasitic diseases. Feeding our animals is also known to both support and proliferate the human animal bond.

Question 56

Why is nutrition important in the general health care of production animals?

Answer 56

Nutrition has health and welfare implications for both the individual and the herd. It is a key determinate of productivity, which in turn determines the economic viability of the animal enterprise. Feed costs alone account for 50-70% of the cost of production, so it is important to spend this money on nutrition that will provide the greatest benefit to the individual animal, the herd at large, and as a result the enterprise.

Question 57

Provide one example of an advance in nutritional science which aims to improve the environmental impact of animal production

Answer 57

Feeding tannin-containing feeds to reduce methane-producing protozoa in the rumen

Question 58

Describe the similarities and differences between a concentrate selector, an intermediate feeder, and a grazer.

Answer 58

Each of these is similar in that they are all herbivores, which gain their nutrition exclusively from feeds that photosynthesise (plants). Their digestive system is typically more complex than carnivores, with specialised dentition for grinding fibre and large digestive tracts for extracting nutrients. Concentrate selectors preferentially select feeds which are rich in sugars, proteins and fats, such as seeds, fruits and young foliage. They cannot tolerate large amounts of fibre and typically feed on small amounts of food more frequently. Intermediate feeders have the ability to change their diet depending on availability. Grazers mostly feed on leaves or grasses.

Question 59

Describe the behavioural variation in feed selection seen in cattle and sheep.

Answer 59

Sheep are adept at selecting for specific foods. They prefer leaf material (over stems), young plant parts (over mature parts), green material (over browned material), and they avoid any material with physical irritants (such as prickles). This makes them best suited to pastures with less overall roughage but high variance of feed available. Cattle are poorly selective of what they eat. They are best suited to mature pastures with high amounts of roughage and minimal variance.

Question 60

What is the empirical formula of carbohydrates?

Answer 60

(CH2O)n

Question 61

Name two essential fatty acids in mammals.

Answer 61

Linolenic acid, α-linolenic acid, arachidonic acid.

Question 62

Name two essential amino acids in the cat.

Answer 62

Arginine, histidine, isoleucine, leucine, lysine, methionine, phenylalanine, threonine, tryptophan, valine, taurine.

Question 63

Name the two ways domestic animals can experience thiamine deficiency.

Answer 63

Low dietary thiamine intake, ingestion of thiaminase (e.g. in raw fish)

Question 64

Name three major essential mineral elements to mammalian species.

Answer 64

Calcium, phosphorous, potassium, sodium, sulphur, chlorine, magnesium

Question 65

What is the formula used to calculate dry matter digestibility?

Answer 65

(Weight of feed consumed – weight excreted) ÷ weight of feed consumed.

Question 66

Over a 24-hour period, a cow consumed 9kg of hay, which had a dry matter content of 8kg. She excreted 3kg of dry matter in her faeces. Calculate the dry matter digestibility of the hay consumed by this cow.

Answer 66

0.625 or 62.5%

Question 67

Name two reasons that cereal grains are often processed.

Answer 67

Improve carbohydrate digestibility, improve protein digestibility,

Question 68

Name three ways to maximise feed intake in production pigs.

Answer 68

Ensure feed is fresh and palatable feed several times per day, ensure fresh water is always accessible

Question 69

The rodent model of feline diets suggests that which two nutrients should predominate?

Answer 69

Protein and fat.

Question 70

Across an ‘ideal’ 365-day period, dairy cows typically experience four phases in their nutritional cycle. Describe each phase and the nutritional intake at each phase. You may draw a diagram to assist with this.

Answer 70

PHASE 1: Early lactation, 0-4 months after calving. Medium nutritional intake – weight loss provides much of the energy required for milk production. PHASE 2: Mid-lactation, 5-8 months after calving. Nutritional intake peaks and body weight stabilises. PHASE 3: Late lactation, 8-10 months after calving. Milk yield reduces (lactation drying up), nutritional intake reduces but nutrition is now directed at supporting recovery of body weight. PHASE 4: Dry period, final 60 days of the year. Critical period of mammary recovery. Nutritional intake increasing through late stages of pregnancy

Question 71

Name and describe two factors contributing to post weaning diarrhoea in pigs.

Answer 71

Sudden withdrawal of whole milk – milk has protective components such as lactobacilli, which competitively exclude pathogens. Poor maturation of digestive function – particularly in piglets below 4 weeks of age, intestinal morphology and microbe population are specialised to digesting milk and aren’t able to digest solids effectively.

Question 72

Name one short-term treatment and one long-term prevention strategy for cases of grass tetany in cattle.

Answer 72

Short term: move lactating cows to higher magnesium pasture Long term: plant legume crops such as clover

Question 73

There are a wide range of documented risk factors for small animal obesity. Provide one example for each of the following risk factor types: patient signalment factors, environment factors, diet factors.

Answer 73

Patient signalment: age (older animals more at risk), Environment: exercise (lack of exercise more at risk), Diet: treats (increased risk)