Objective 1 pt 2 Flashcards

1
Q

cytoplasmic fragments of extraordinarily large cells

A

megakaryocytes

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2
Q

blue-staining outer region, purple granules
granules contain serotonin, Ca2+, enzymes, ADP, and platelet-derived growth factor

A

platelets

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3
Q

what is the function of platelets?

A

form temporary platelet plug that helps seal breaks in blood vessels

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4
Q

platelet formation is regulated by hormone …

A

thrombopoietin

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5
Q

plateleets are formed in myeloid line from…

A

megakaryoblast

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6
Q

sends cytoplasmic projections into lumen of capillary
projections break off into platelet fragments

A

stage IV megakaryocyte

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7
Q

fast series of reactions for stoppage of bleeding
requires clotting factors and substances released by platelets and injured tissues

A

hemostasis

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8
Q

what are the 3 steps involved in hemostasis?

A

vascular spasm
platelet plug formation
coagulation

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9
Q

damaged vessel constricts through _________
most effective in smaller blood vessels
can significantly reduce flow until other mechanisms can kick in

A

step 1: vascular spasm

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10
Q

what are vascular spasms triggered by?

A

direct injury to vascular smooth muscle
chemical released by endothelial cells and platelets
pain reflexes

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11
Q

platelets stick to collagen fibers that are exposed when vessel is damaged
the plasma protein von Willebrand factor helps to stabilize platelet-collagen adhesion
platelets become activated and swell, become spiked and sticky and release chemical messengers
postitive feedback cycle occurs
platelet plugs are fine for small vessel tears

A

step 2: platelet plug formation

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12
Q

as more platelets stick, they release more chemicals, which cause more platelets to stick and release more chemicals

A

positive feedback cycle

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13
Q

reinforces platelet plug with fibrin threads that act as a glue
blood is transformed from liquid to gel
series of reactions use clotting factors, mostly plasma proteins

A

step 3: coagulation

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14
Q

what are the 3 phases of coagulation?

A

Phases 1: two pathways to prothrombin activator
Phase 2: pathway to thrombin
phase 3: common pathway to the fibrin mesh

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15
Q

initiated by either intrinsic or extrinsic pathway
triggered by tissue-damaging events
involves a series of clotting factors
the intermediate steps of each pathway cascade toward a common intermediate, factor X
once factor X is activated, it complexes with Ca2+, PF3, and factor V to form prothrombin activator

A

Phase 1: two pathways to prothrombin activator

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16
Q

because clotting factors are present within the blood
triggered by negatively charged surfaces such as activated platelets, collagen, or even glass of a test tube
slow process

A

intrinsic pathway

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17
Q

because factors needed for clotting are located outside blood
triggered by exposure to tissue factor, also called factor III
bypasses several steps of intrinsic pathway, so faster pathway

A

extrinsic pathway

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18
Q

prothrombin activator speeds up the transformation of prothrombin to activate enzyme thrombin

A

phase 2: pathway to thrombin

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19
Q

thrombin converts soluble fibrinogen to fibrin
fibrin strands form structural basis of clot
fibrin causes plasma to become a gel-like trap catching formed elements
thrombin activates factor XIII, which:
cross-links fibrin
strengthens and stabilizes clot

A

Phase 3: common pathway to the fibrin mesh

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20
Q

factors that normally dominate in blood to prevent coagulation

A

anticoagulants

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21
Q

actin and myosin in platelets contact within 30-60 mins
contraction pulls on fibrin strands, squeezing serum from clot
draws ruptured blood vessel edges together

A

clot retraction

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22
Q

released by platelets
stimulates division of smooth muscle cells and fibroblasts to rebuild blood vessel wall

A

platelet-derived growth factor

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23
Q

stimulates endothelial cells to multiply and restore endothelial lining

A

vascular endothelial growth factor

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24
Q

process whereby clots are removed after repair is completed
begins within 2 days and continues for several days until clot is dissolved

A

fibrinolysis

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25
Q

plasma protein that is trapped in clot is converted to plasmin

A

plasminogen

26
Q

a fibrin-digesting enzyme

A

plasmin

27
Q

factor XIII, and thrombin all play a role in conversion process

A

tissue plasminogen activator

28
Q

what are the factors limiting normal clot growth?

A

two homeostatic mechanisms limit clot size
other mechanisms block the final step in which fibrinogen is polymerized into fibrin

29
Q

swift removal and dilution of clotting factors
inhibition of activated clotting factors

A

two homeostatic mechanisms limit clot size

30
Q

fibrin binds thrombin, preventing clot from getting too big or escaping into bloodstream
Heparin in basophil and mast cells inhibits thrombin by enhancing
antithrombin III

A

other mechanisms block the final step in which fibrinogen is polymerized into fibrin

31
Q

inactivates any unbound thrombin that escapes into
bloodstream

A

antithrombin III

32
Q

what are the factors preventing platelet adhesion?

A

Smooth endothelium of blood vessels prevents platelets from
clinging
Endothelial cells secrete antithrombic substances
such as nitric oxide and prostacyclin
Vitamin E quinone, formed when vitamin E reacts
with oxygen, is a potent anticoagulant

33
Q

how does the cardiovascular system minimize effects of blood loss?

A

reducing volume of affected blood vessels stepping up production of RBCs

34
Q

what must volume be replaced immediately with?

A

normal saline or multiple-electrolyte solution that mimics plasma electrolyte composition

35
Q

are used only when blood loss is rapid and substantial

A

whole-blood transfusions

36
Q

these are preferred to restore oxygen-carrying capacity

A

packed red blood cells

37
Q

anything perceived as foreign that can generate an immune response

A

antigen

38
Q

RBC antigens are referred to as…
because they promote agglutination

A

agglutinogens

39
Q

have at least 30 naturally occurring RBC antigens
presence or absence of each antigen is used to classify blood cells into different groups

A

human blood groups

40
Q

cause most vigorous transfusion reactions; therefore, they are major groups typed

A

antigens of ABO and Rh blood groups

41
Q

based on presence or absence of two agglutinogens on surface of RBCs
blood may contain performed anti-A or anti-B antibodies

A

ABO blood groups

42
Q

only has A agglutinogen

A

type A

43
Q

only has B agglutinogen

A

type B

44
Q

has both A and B agglutinogens

A

type AB

45
Q

has neither A nor B agglutinogens

A

type O

46
Q

52 named Rh agglutinogens
C, D, and E are most common
Rh+ indicates presence of D antigen
second exposure to Rh+ blood will result in typical transfusion reaction

A

Rh blood groups

47
Q

are not spontaneously formed in Rh- individuals
form Rh- individual receives Rh+ blood, or Rh- mom is carrying Rh+ fetus

A

Anti-Rh antibodies

48
Q

occur if mismatched blood is infused
donor cells are attacked by recipient’s plasma agglutinins
blood clots and clog small vessels
rupture and release hemoglobin into bloodstream

A

transfusion reactions

49
Q

what do transfusion reactions result in?

A

diminished oxygen-carrying capacity
decreased blood flow beyond blocked vessel
hemoglobin in kidney tubules can lead to renal failure

50
Q

what are symptoms of transfusion reactions?

A

fever, chills, low BP, rapid HR, nausea, vomiting

51
Q

how to we treat transfusion reactions?

A

preventing kidney damage with fluids and diuretics to wash out hemoglobin

52
Q

no A or B antigens

A

type O universal donor

53
Q

no anti-A or anti-B antibodies

A

type AB universal recipient

54
Q

pt predonates own blood that is stored and available if needed

A

autologous transfusions

55
Q

donor blood is mixed with antibodies against common agglutinogens
blood is typed for ABO and Rh factor in same manner

A

blood typing

56
Q

typing between specific donor and specific recipient

A

cross matching

57
Q

what can examination of blood yield about info on persons health?

A

low hematocrit seen in cases of anemia
blood glucose tests check for diabetes
leukocytosis can signal infection

58
Q

looks at relative proportions of each WBC
increases in specific WBC can help with diagnosis

A

differential WBC count

59
Q

assess hemostasis

A

prothrombin time and platelet counts

60
Q

blood chemistry profile that checks various blood chemical levels
abnormal results could indicate liver or kidney disorders

A

CMP

61
Q

checks formed elements, hematocrit, hemoglobin

A

complete blood count