OCULAR PHARMACOLOGY 3 Flashcards
(101 cards)
1
Q
Which of the following is the main route of drug administration in ocular pharmacology?
• b. Oral
• a. Intravenous
• c. Topical
• d. Sublingual
A
C
2
Q
Which ocular structure primarily limits the systemic absorption of topically applied drugs
• c. Lacrimal sac
• b. Conjunctiva
• d. Eyelids
A. Cornea
A
A
3
Q
Which layer of the cornea is most resistant to drug penetration? *
• a. Epithelium
• b. Stroma
• c. Endothelium
• d. Descemet’s membrane
A
A
4
Q
What is the primary function of benzalkonium chloride (BAK) in eye
drops?
• a. Enhance drug absorption
• b. Serve as a preservative
• c. Reduce intraocular pressure
A
B
5
Q
The half-life of a drug in the anterior chamber is primarily determined *1/1 by:
• a. Corneal permeability
• b. Aqueous humor turnover
• c. Drug solubility
• d. Tear film dynamics
A
B
6
Q
Autonomic Drugs
Which of the following drugs is a muscarinic receptor agonist used in the treatment of glaucoma?
a. Atropine
• b. Pilocarpine
• c. Tropicamide
• d. Phenylephrine
A
B
7
Q
Phenylephrine eye drops are primarily used for:
• a. Reducing intraocular pressure
B. MYDRIASIS
A
B
8
Q
Which of the following drugs causes cycloplegia? *
• a. Tropicamide
• b. Phenylephrine
• c. Latanoprost
• d. Timolol
A
A
9
Q
Beta-blockers reduce intraocular pressure by: *
• a. Increasing aqueous humor outflow
• b. Decreasing aqueous humor production
• c. Increasing tear secretion
• d. Reducing pupil size
A
B
10
Q
Which alpha-2 agonist is commonly used in the management of glaucoma?
• a. Brimonidine
• b. Phenylephrine
• c. Apraclonidine
d. Both a and c
A
D
11
Q
- Latanoprost is an analog of which prostaglandin? *
a. PGE2
• b. PGF2a
• c. PGI2
• d. TXA2
A
B
12
Q
Which of the following is NOT a side effect of prostaglandin analogs?
• a. Iris pigmentation
• b. Eyelash growth
• c. Conjunctival hyperemia
• d. Cycloplegia
A
D
13
Q
- The primary mechanism of carbonic anhydrase inhibitors in glaucoma treatment is:
• a. Increasing trabecular outflow
• b. Reducing aqueous humor production
• c. Increasing uveoscleral outflow.
• d. Decreasing episcleral venous pressure
A
B
14
Q
Which drug is a selective beta-1 blocker used in glaucoma? *
• a. Timolol
• b. Betaxolol
• c. Carteolol
• d. Levobunolol
A
B
15
Q
- Which class of drugs can exacerbate angle-closure glaucoma? *
• a. Prostaglandin analogs
• b. Anticholinergics
• c. Alpha agonists.
A
B
16
Q
Which corticosteroid is most commonly used for severe ocular inflammation?
a. Prednisolone acetate
• b. Hydrocortisone
• c. Fluorometholone.
• d. Loteprednol
A
A
17
Q
- Which ocular condition is commonly treated with topical fluoroquinolones?
• a. Viral conjunctivitis
• b. Bacterial keratitis
• c. Allergic conjunctivitis
• d. Fungal endophthalmitis
A
B
18
Q
Which of the following is a broad-spectrum antifungal used for ocular infections?
• a. Voriconazole
• b. Miconazole
• c. Amphotericin B
• d. Both a and c
A
D
19
Q
Which antiviral drug is commonly used for herpes simplex keratitis? *
• a. Ganciclovir
• b. Acyclovir
• c. Valganciclovir
• d. Both a and b
A
D
20
Q
- Which drug is a vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) inhibitor? * 1/1
• a. Bevacizumab
• b. Triamcinolone
• c. Ranibizumab
• d. Both a and c
A
D
21
Q
What is the main route of administration for anti-VEGF drugs? *
1/1
• a. Intravenous injection
• b. Subconjunctival injection
• c. Intravitreal injection
• d. Topical application
A
C
22
Q
• 23. A common side effect of intravitreal corticosteroids is: *
1/1
• a. Increased tear production
• b. Cataract formation
• c. Macular edema
A
B
23
Q
- NSAIDs used in ocular pharmacology primarily target which enzyme?
• a. Cyclooxygenase
• b. Lipoxygenase
A
A
23
Q
- NSAIDs used in ocular pharmacology primarily target which enzyme?
• a. Cyclooxygenase
• b. Lipoxygenase
A
A
24
Which class of drugs is used to treat diabetic macular edema? *
今80%
1/1
• a. Beta blockers
• b. VEGF inhibitors
• c. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
• d. Cholinergic agonists
B
25
25. What is the primary mechanism of action of photodynamic therapy in treating ocular diseases?
a. Promotes neovascularization
• b. Suppresses VEGF expression
• c. Destroys abnormal blood vessels
• d. Reduces intraocular pressure
C
26
Which of the following drugs is a parasympatholytic used for cycloplegic refraction?
a. Atropine
• b. Pilocarpine
• c. Timolol
d. Latanoprost
•
A
27
27. Tropicamide has a shorter duration of action compared to atropine because it:
• a. Is more lipid-soluble
• b. Has higher affinity for muscarinic receptors
• c. Is rapidly metabolized
• d. Is less potent
C
28
Which drug is used to differentiate between preganglionic and postganglionic Horner's syndrome?
*1/1
• a. Cocaine
• b. Apraclonidine
• c. Hydroxyamphetamine
• d. Phenylephrine
C
29
29. What is the mechanism of action of cyclopentolate? *
1/1
• a. Inhibition of acetylcholinesterase
• b. Stimulation of muscarinic receptors
• c. Blockade of muscarinic receptors
• d. Activation of adrenergic receptors
C
30
Which of the following drugs has the longest duration of cycloplegia?
• a. Tropicamide
• b. Atropine
• c. Cyclopentolate
B
31
-
32
Steroid-induced glaucoma is most likely due to: *
1/1
a. Increased uveoscleral outflow
• b. Decreased trabecular outflow
• c. Reduced aqueous humor production
• d. Increased episcleral venous pressure
B
33
33. Which systemic medication can cause crystalline retinopathy? *
1/1
• a. Tamoxifen
• b. Ethambutol
• c. Amiodarone
d. Digoxin
く
•
A
34
34. What is a common ocular side effect of isotretinoin? *
1/1
• a. Retinal detachment
• b. Dry eye syndrome
• c. Anterior uveitis
• d. Conjunctival hyperemia
B
35
Which systemic medication is associated with optic neuropathy? *
-80%.
1/1
• a. Ethambutol
• b. Aspirin
• c. Ranitidine
• d. Amlodipine
A
36
36. Which of the following is a dual-action anti-allergic medication? *
1/1
a. Olopatadine
• b. Cromolyn sodium
• c. Ketotifen
• d. Both a and c
D
37
The primary mechanism of mast cell stabilizers is: *
1/1
• a. Blocking histamine receptors
• b. Inhibiting degranulation of mast cells
• c. Neutralizing histamine
• d. Reducing vascular permeability
B
38
38. Which antihistamine eye drop is used for seasonal allergic conjunctivitis?
*1/1
a. Azelastine
• b. Latanoprost
• c. Fluorometholone.
• d. Dexamethasone
A
39
What is a common side effect of prolonged use of topical antihistamines?
• a. Ocular hypertension
• b. Rebound hyperemia
• c. Cataract formation
• d. Retinal detachment
B
40
Proparacaine is commonly used for: *
• a. Reducing intraocular pressure
• b. Treating bacterial infections
• c. Corneal anesthesia
• d. Reducing inflammation
C
41
• 42. What is the mechanism of action of topical ocular anesthetics? *
• a. Inhibition of sodium channels
• b. Blockade of potassium channels
• c. Stimulation of chloride channels
A
42
Which of the following is a side effect of prolonged topical anesthetic use?
• a. Corneal epithelial damage
• b. Increased tear production
• c. Retinal detachment
• d. Conjunctival hyperemia
A
43
44. Tetracaine is commonly used for: *
• a. Treating glaucoma
• b. Mydriasis
• c. Corneal procedures
• d. Increasing tear production
C
44
40. Which of the following is an H1 receptor antagonist? *
• a. Diphenhydramine
• b. Brimonidine
• c. Ketorolac
• d. Tropicamide
A
45
Which of the following is the shortest-acting topical anesthetic? *
• a. Proparacaine
• b. Tetracaine
• c. Lidocaine
• d. Bupivacaine
A
46
46. Which ocular implant delivers corticosteroids over an extended period?
• a. Ozurdex
• b. Lucentis
A
47
Mitomycin C is used during ocular surgery to: *
1/1
• a. Increase trabecular outflow
• b. Reduce fibroblast proliferation
• c. Enhance corneal healing
• d. Stimulate angiogenesis
*
B
48
48. Which drug is an immunomodulator used in the treatment of severe
*1/1
dry eye disease?
• a. Cyclosporine
• b. Tacrolimus
• c. Lifitegrast
• d. Both a and c
D
49
Which drug is used to manage cystoid macular edema? *
1/1
• a. Ketorolac
• b. Prednisolone
• c. Brimonidine
• d. Pilocarpine
A
50
50. Rho kinase inhibitors (e.g., netarsudil) reduce intraocular pressure by:
*1/1
a. Increasing trabecular meshwork outflow
• b. Reducing aqueous humor production.
• c. Increasing uveoscleral outflow
A
51
Which of the following antibiotics inhibits bacterial protein synthesis?
*1/1
a. Ciprofloxacin
• b. Tobramycin
• c. Vancomycin
• d. Amphotericin B
B
52
52. What is the mechanism of action of fluoroquinolones in ocular therapy?
*1/1
• a. Inhibit bacterial DNA gyrase
• b. Block folic acid synthesis
• c. Inhibit cell wall synthesis
• d. Disrupt bacterial protein synthesis
A
53
Which antibiotic is most effective against methicillin-resistant
Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) in ocular infections?
*1/1
• a. Ceftriaxone
• b. Vancomycin
• c. Amoxicillin
• d. Azithromycin
く
•
B
54
54. A commonly used combination therapy for corneal ulcers includes: *
1/1.
• a. Vancomycin and gentamicin
• b. Cefazolin and tobramycin
• c. Ciprofloxacin and azithromycin
B
55
—-
56
Ganciclovir is primarily used for: *
• a. Herpes simplex keratitis
• b. Bacterial conjunctivitis
• c. Fungal keratitis
• d. Trachoma.
A
57
57. Which antiviral drug is available in an intravitreal implant form for
CMV retinitis?
• a. Acyclovir
• b. Ganciclovir
• c. Valacyclovir
• d. Trifluridine
B
58
Which of the following antivirals inhibits viral DNA polymerase? *
• a. Ganciclovir
• b. Acyclovir
• c. Foscarnet
• d. All of the above
D
59
59. The most common side effect of topical antiviral therapy is: *
a. Corneal epithelial toxicity
• b. Increased intraocular pressure.
• c. Posterior subcapsular cataract
A
60
Which topical antiviral is used for herpes simplex epithelial keratitis? * 1/1
-80%
• a. Trifluridine
• b. Acyclovir
• c. Valacyclovir
• d. Ganciclovir
く
A
61
61. Which of the following is the drug of choice for fungal keratitis? *
1/1
a. Amphotericin B
• b. Fluconazole
• c. Natamycin
• d. Voriconazole
C
62
What is the primary mechanism of action of natamycin? *
• a. Inhibits ergosterol synthesis
• b. Binds to ergosterol and disrupts fungal cell membranes
• c. Blocks fungal protein synthesis
• d. Inhibits fungal DNA replication
B
63
VORICONAZOLE is commonly used in ocular pharmacology for treating:
a. Fungal endophthalmitis
• b. Bacterial conjunctivitis
• c. Viral keratitis
• d. Allergic conjunctivitis
A
64
Which antifungal is effective against Candida species in ocular infections?
• a. Amphotericin B
• b. Ciprofloxacin
• c. Acyclovir.
• d. Gentamicin
•
A
65
65. A key side effect of amphotericin B is: *
• a. Corneal melting
• b. Nephrotoxicity
• c. Retinal detachment
• d. Ocular hypertension
B
66
Loteprednol is preferred over other corticosteroids because it: *
• a. Has fewer side effects
• b. Is more potent
• c. Provides longer duration of action
• d. Is cheaper.
A
67
67. Topical NSAIDs are primarily used in ocular pharmacology to: *
• a. Treat glaucoma
• b. Relieve ocular inflammation and pain
• c. Reduce tear production
B
68
Which of the following is a selective COX-2 inhibitor used in ocular therapy?
*1/1
• a. Diclofenac
• b. Celecoxib
• c. Ketorolac
• d. Flurbiprofen
B
69
69. Which topical corticosteroid has the highest risk of increasing intraocular pressure?
*1/1
• a. Fluorometholone
• b. Dexamethasone
• c. Loteprednol
• d. Hydrocortisone
B
70
Which drug is commonly used to treat non-infectious anterior uveitis?
*1/1
• a. Prednisolone acetate
• b. Ketorolac
• c. Brimonidine
• d. Atropine
A
71
==
72
72. Digoxin toxicity is commonly associated with which ocular symptom?
80%0
*1/1
• a. Central scotoma
• b. Blue-yellow color vision defects
• c. Night blindness.
• d. Visual field constriction
B
73
73. Tamoxifen use may result in: *
1/1
• a. Crystalline retinopathy
• b. Glaucoma.
• c. Retinal detachment
• d. Optic neuropathy
A
74
Chloroquine and hydroxychloroquine toxicity primarily affect which ocular structure?
*1/1
• a. Retina
• b. Cornea
• c. Lens
• d. Optic nerve
•
A
75
75. Amiodarone is associated with which ocular side effect? *
1/1
a. Vortex keratopathy
• b. Retinal detachment
• c. Optic neuritis
• d. Increased intracceler
A
76
What is the term used to describe the fraction of an orally administered drug that reaches systemic circulation?
• a. Distribution
• b. Bioavailability
• c. Absorption
• d. Clearance
B
77
77. The primary site of drug metabolism in the body is: *
a. Kidneys
• b. Liver
• c. Lungs
d. Intestines
B
78
First-pass metabolism primarily occurs in the: *
• a. Liver
• b. Kidneys
• c. Lungs
• d. Stomach
A
79
79. The elimination of a drug through zero-order kinetics means: *
• a. A constant percentage of drug is eliminated per unit time
• b. A constant amount of drug is eliminated per unit time
• c. The elimination rate is dependent on drug concentration
B
80
What is the measure of a drugs ability to bind to a receptor and elicit *1/1
a response?
• a. Potency
• b. Efficacy
• c. Affinity
• d. Selectivity
B
81
The therapeutic index of a drug is calculated by: *
0/1
• a. LD50/ED50
• b. ED50/LD50
C. ED50 x LD50
• d. ED50 - LD50
A
82
82. An antagonist that binds irreversibly to a receptor is classified as a: *
0/1
• a. Noncompetitive antagonist
• b. Competitive antagonist
• c. Partial agonist
• d. Full agonist
A
83
Tachyphylaxis refers to: *
0/1
• a. Increased drug potency with repeated use
• b. Reduced drug efficacy with repeated use
• c. The need for higher doses of a drug over time
• d. A drug's maximum effect
B
84
drug that activates a receptor to produce a submaximal response
*1/1
is known as a:
a. Full agonist
• b. Partial agonist
• c. Antagonist
• d. Inverse agonist
B
85
85. Which of the following drugs works as a selective beta-1 receptor antagonist?
*1/1
a. Atenolol
• b. Propranolol
• c. Carvedilol
• d. Labetalol
A
86
Which enzyme is most commonly involved in drug metabolism in the *1/1 liver?
• a. CYP2E1
く
• c. CYP2C19.
• d. CYP1A2
•
B
87
87. Concurrent administration of two drugs that use the same metabolic *1/1
pathway can lead to:
a. Synergism
• b. Enzyme induction
• c. Competitive inhibition
C
88
drug that enhances the effects of another drug by acting on the
same receptor is known as:
a. Additive
• b. Synergistic
• c. Agonistic
• d. Potentiating
A
89
Grapefruit juice can interact with drugs by: *
a. Inducing liver enzymes
• b. Inhibiting CYP3A4 enzymes
C. Increasing drug excretion
• d. Increasing gastric motility
B
90
90. Which of the following drugs is most likely to cause drug-induced enzyme induction?
• a. Carbamazepine
• b. Cimetidine
• c. Erythromycin
• d. Ketoconazole.
A
91
Which neurotransmitter is released by preganglionic sympathetic neurons?
*1/1
• a. Dopamine
• b. Norepinephrine
• c. Acetylcholine
• d. Epinephrine
C
92
92. Beta-2 adrenergic receptor activation causes: *
1/1
• a. Bronchoconstriction
• b. Vasodilation in skeletal muscles
• c. Increased heart rate
• d. Reduced glycogenolysis
B
93
Which drug is a muscarinic receptor antagonist? *
1/1
• a. Atropine
• b. Pilocarpine
• c. Bethanechol
• d. Neostigmine
•
A
94
94. An alpha-1 adrenergic receptor agonist is commonly used for: *
1/1
• a. Treating asthma
• b. Reducing nasal congestion
• c. Increasing heart rate
• d. Lowering blood pressure
B
95
Which drug inhibits acetylcholinesterase and is used to treat myasthenia gravis?
*1/1
• a. Edrophonium
• b. Atropine
• c. Epinephrine
• d. Phentolamine
•
A
96
96. What is the antidote for acetaminophen toxicity? *
1/1
• a. N-acetylcysteine
• b. Flumazenil
• c. Atropine
• d. Activated charcoal
A
97
Which drug is used to treat organophosphate poisoning? *
1/1
• a. Atropine
• b. Pilocarpine
• c. Naloxone.
• d. Physostigmine
•
A
98
98. What is a common side effect of opioid overdose? *
1/1
a. Hypertension
• b. Respiratory depression
B
99
Which heavy metal is treated with dimercaprol? *
1/1
• a. Lead
• b. Arsenic
• c. Mercury
• d. All of the above
D
100
100. The treatment for cyanide poisoning includes: *
1/1
• a. Sodium thiosulfate
• b. Naloxone
• c. Pralidoxime
d. Atropine
A
