Flashcards in Odds and ends Deck (155):
Staphylococcus can grow under ___ moisture and ___ salt conditions
Low moisture; high salt
Water added to milk can be detected via ___ test
Pasteurized milk should be stored at ___ F for best shelf life. It can last up to ___ weeks.
40F; 2 weeks
What illegal drug residue should show cattle be tested for especially?
Ground beef should be cooked to ___ internal temp to kill E. coli
"keep hot food hot; keep cold food cold". What intermediate range does FDA define as danger zone for microbial growth?
Minimum time/temp requirements for home (vat) pasteurization?
30 min at 145 F
What kind of toxin does E. coli O157:H7 produce?
Verotoxin and/or shigatoxin
What kind of toxin does Staph aureus produce?
What kind of toxin does Clostridium botulinum produce?
Best place to isolate yersinia enterocolitica in swine?
Pork must be frozen to ____ F/C to prevent trichina
-40 F = -40 C
Name 3 viscosity-based tests for mastitis
California (CMT), Wisconsin, Whiteside
What is the bulk tank test for antibiotic residues in milk?
Delvotest is one option for farmers
Pre-harvest antibiotic residue testing can be done via ___ on ___(sample)__
Live Animal Swab Test (LAST) on urine
____ test may be used on cattle at slaughter if herdmates are positive for antibiotic residues, or if disabled/cull cows with high suspicion
Swab Test On Premises (STOP) test
____ test may be used on veal calves at slaughter for abx residues
Calf Antibiotic Sulfa Test (CAST)
____ test may be used on swine for Abx residue screening at slaughter
Sulfa on Site (SOS)
After biotransformation, drugs are usually more ___ soluiable
Mechanism of action for atropine?
Where should brand be placed for brucella reactors
If focal (aka non-systemic) TB lesion is noted at slaughter, what is disposition for carcass?
Remove lesion and pass carcass for cooking (?)
If carcinoma-like lesions noted in bone at slaughter, what is disposition for carcass
Caudal fold TB skin test should be read after ___ hrs
Measly beef is caused by ____
Taenia saginata adult stage is found in ___ and intermediate in _____
Adult in man; intermediate in cattle
Measly pork is caused by ____
Taenia solium adult stage is found in ___ and intermediate is found in _____
Adult in man; intermediate in man or swine
Hydatid disease is caused by
Echinococcus granulosus: Definitive host = ____; Intermediate host= _______
Definitive = canids (domestic and wild), Intermediate =sheep, cattle, pigs, rarely man
Salmon poisoning is caused by _____
Fluke (Nanophyetus salminocola) containing Neorickettsia helminthoeca
In salmon poisoning, the fluke is ingested by ___ which is ingested by ____ which is ingested by ____
Fluke in snail (certicarea), which is eaten by salmon, which is consumed raw by dogs (who get sick)
Lumpy jaw is caused by
Wooden tongue is caused by
Blackleg is caused by
Enterotoxemia or overeating disease is caused by
Clostridium Perfringens type D (aka pulpy kidney)
Nairobi sheep disease is transmitted by ___
For Grade A milk, max SCC is ____ in cows; ____ in goats
750,000 cells/ml in cows; 1,000,000 cells/ml in goats
Low temp pasteurization requires heating to ___ F for ____ min
145 F for 30 mins
High temp pasteurization requires heating to ___ F for ___ min
161 F for 15 sec
Ultra High Temp pasteurization requires heating to ___ F for ___ min
280 F for 2 sec
In cases of methanol toxicity, ___ is the toxic metabolite believed to be responsible for ocular toxicity/blindness
Lassa fever reservoir species
Multimammate rats (Mastomys spp)
Lassa fever transmission routes
Contact with urine/feces of rodents, nosocomial transmission
Leprosy, aka ____ is caused by ____
Hansen's disease; Mycobacterium leprae
Pasteurization is evaluated based on ability to kill which organism?
Which sulfa is approved for use in lactating dairy cows?
"milk spots" on liver specimens from swine are indicative of what disease condition?
For each integer increase in a linear Somatic Cell Count score, you can assume what changes have occurred?
a doubling of the actual SCC and a uniform loss of milk of 1.5 pounds per cow per day
Visceral larval migrans in humans associated with what parasite?
Cutaneous larval migrans in humans associated with what parasite?
Prion diseases by species:
Mink = Mink encephalopathy
Sheep = Scrapie
Cervid = CWD
At slaughter, cattle are condemned if antemortem temp is over ___ F
At slaughter, swine are condemned if antemortem temp is over ___ F
3 reasons to add nitrates to meat
1) Improve flavor
2) Bind to myoglobin to keep meat 'red' not brown
3) inhibit bacteria
Why add phosphates to meat? What is most common type of meat with phosphates added?
Improves water holding capacity; used especially in ham
"Enhanced pork" has what additives?
Sodium phosphate, Water and salt
What happens to milk components in mastitic milk? (Fat, Casein, Lactase, Protein, Minerals)
Decrease in fat, casein, lactase
Increase in protein, minerals
All sulfas are prohibited in lactating dairy cows except:
Sulfadimethoxine, sulfabromethazine, sulfaethoxypyridazine
Isotope half life of I-131
Isotope half life of C-14
Isotope half life of Sr-90
Isotope half life of Cs-137
Isotope half life of Cs- 134
In what tissue does Sr-90 accumulate?
Cs-137 mimics what mineral
I-131 concentrates in what tissue?
Milk and milk products; thyroid tissue
#1 cause of sporadic foodborne disease in the US?
Mission of FSIS?
Meat, poultry, and egg safety
Mission of FSIS- International programs?
review foreign programs and inspect product at port of entry to US
Enforcement tools under the control of FSIS?
Retention, detention, voluntary recall
The US participates in International food safety through what commission?
Codex Alimentarius Commission
What are the three steps to risk analysis?
Risk assessment, Risk management, and Risk communication
Define: Risk Assessment, Risk Management, RIsk Communication
Assessment: process to identify hazards and describe risks
Management: Develop policies regarding risk using value judgements and considering who may benefit/lose
Communication: Communication between policy makers and stakeholders regarding risk
Definition of relative risk?
Attack rate of exposed / Attack rate unexposed
Definition attributed risk?
Attack rate exposed - Attack rate unexposed
In food prep establishments, final rinse water must reach ___ degrees F
What body parts constitutes red meat offal?
Edible parts other than striated muscle meat
What body parts constitute poultry offal?
Inedible parts of bird (feet, feathers)
Give two examples of food-borne psychrotrophic bacteria
Listeria and Yersinia
Ideal humidity for chilled carcass storage at slaughter plant? What happens if too high humidity? Too low?
88-92%; higher = slime mold Lower = shrinkage
Meat should be frozen at ___ degrees F; then stored at ____ degrees F
Freeze @ -10 F; store at 0 F
Define weasand rod
Tool used to isolate the esophagus from trachea to tie off/prevent leakage during evisceration
Ideal temperature for cutting floor @ slaughter plant is ___ degrees F
How much visible fecal material is allowed on carcass
None (zero tolerance)
Which enteric pathogens are most sensitive to irradiation
Campylobacter jejuni and E. coli 0157:h7
Using enough radiation (20-70 kGy) to destroy all organisms/sterilize
Using enough radiation (0.1-0.5 kGy) to inactivate non-sporeforming pathogens/pasteurize
Using enough radiation (1-5 kGy) to destroy spoilage organisms
Put the following terms in increasing order of radiation used: Radurization, Radicidation, Radappertization
WHO/Codex approves food irradiation up to what amount?
How does FDA classify food irradiation?
As an additive
Definition stitch pumping?
Long needle inserted into meat chunk; curing solution pumped in
Pork can be certified trichinella-free after what treatment?
Frozen to -40 F (-40 C)
What is the use of a flow diversion valve in pasteurization?
IT can divert milk back to the bulk tank if it doesn't reach 161 F
What are the main causes for slime formation on meat surface?
Lactobacillus, micrococci, and yeast
What causes the greening of meat?
H2O2 produced by surface bacteria
What is carcass disposition if cirrhotic cords are found in swine liver?
Local lesion- excise and pass
What is carcass disposition if multiple abscesses are found in a carcass
Condemn carcass (systemic lesion)
What is carcass disposition if epithelioma/cancer eye is noted on cattle carcass?
If limited to eye, excise and pass; if infected or mets to bone/LN noted, condemn
What is carcass disposition if Actinomycosis (lumpy jaw) noted on cattle carcass?
If localized to jaw, excise and pass
What is carcass disposition if arthritic lesions noted?
If not systemic, excise and pass
What is carcass disposition if malignant lymphoma noted?
What are possible options when presented with Downer Cow at slaughter plant?
Hold for up to 24 hr for observation (may not be dragged); test for drug residues; proceed with emergency slaughter/euthanasia
What is carcass disposition if pneumonia is noted?
IF localized to lung lesions, excise and slaughter; if systemic condemn
What is carcass disposition if CNS abnormalities are noted
Where are TB reactors branded?
Where are brucella reactors branded?
What is disposition of carcass if avian TB lesions (caseous lesions) are noted?
What is carcass disposition if avian leukosis is noted? Where would lesions be noted?
Lymph nodes, liver, feather follicles
Clinical signs "Alabama rot" in dogs?
cutaneous and renal glomerular vasculopathy
What is carcass disposition if air sacculitis is noted?
Condemn (systemic disease)
The Pasteurized Milk Ordinance (PMO) is under jurisdiction of what federal agency?
The Interstate Milk Shippers List (IMSL) is under juristdiction of what federal agency?
Which federal agency is responsibile for veterinary biologics?
If a cow from a known brucellosis herd tests negative, what dispositions are allowed
If a titer drops from 1:100 to 1:50, the test becomes more (sensitive or specific?)
The intensity of radiation decreased by a factor of ___ over a given distance
Decreased by inverse square of distance. Eg- increase distance by 3 times, radiation exposure is 1/9 of initial amount (1/3^2)
Which type of federal funds are the most restrictive?
Which species is most sensitive to monensin?
Which species is most sensitive to urea?
Which tick species is the main carrier of RMSF?
What is one potential side effect of chloramphenicol use
What is one GI side effect of lincomycin in people?
What is one main toxicity of gentamicin?
Rank the following types of radiation from strongest to weakest penetration: Beta, alpha, gamma
Define the FDA's Standard of Identity
The quantity of foods conform to standard, no ingredients are used over or under the amounts proclaimed, and no ingredients are left out of label
Best way to ensure food safety?
Difference between ground beef and hamburger?
Ground beef has no added fat; hamburger can have up to 30% max fat.
The Safe Drinking Water Act (SDWA) sets maximum residual disinfectant goals for three disinfectants. What are they?
Chlorine, chloramine, chlorine dioxide
The Safe Drinking Water Act (SDWA) sets maximum contaminant goals for which disinfectant byproducts (DBPs)?
Total Trihalomethanes (TTH), haloacetic acids, chlorite, bromate
Causative agent New World Screwworm
Scrub typhus cause and vector
Cause: Orientia tsutsugamushi (formerly Rickettsia tsutsugamushi)
Vector: Chigger (larval form of mite)
In food animal species, antimicrobials in water require a ___; antimicrobials in feed require a ____
When discussing medicated feed types for food animals, which type is most concentrated? (A-C)
Only Type ___ Medicated feeds can be fed to food animals under a VFD
Requirements for a VFD order
Animals to receive VFD feed
Description of feed
Last date when feed can be used
VFD order must be maintained for ___ years after writing
2 years ( by client, vet, and feed distributor)
Which category of drugs in animal feed require a withdrawal period?
Often small rodents
Fresh wild-caught fish should be frozen at what temperature before consuming in order to kill Anisakis spp?
What agency is responsible for publishing the Pasteurized Milk Ordinance?
A. US Department of Agriculture (USDA)
b. Food and Drug Association (FDA)
C. National Association of State Public Health Vets (NASPHV)
D. Local/State Regulatory Agencies
What agency is responsible for incorporating and enforcing the Pasteurized Milk Ordinance?
A. US Department of Agriculture (USDA)
B. Food and Drug Association (FDA)
C. National Association of State Public Health Vets (NASPHV)
D. Local/State Regulatory Agencies
D. Local/state reg agencies
According to the PMO, cattle must be 'reasonably disease free' of what two diseases? Who regulates these disease eradication programs?
TB and Brucella. Regulated by USDA.
NOTE: Goat, sheep, water buffalo, camel, or any other hooved mammals are not covered under these USDA eradication programs
Fill in the chart for Grade A raw milk limits:
Temp: ≤ 50*F (10*C) w/in 4 hours of milking start
≤45*F (7*C) w/in 2 hours of milking finish
Drug: no residue allowed
SCC <750,000 cell/ml
Bacteria: ≤100,000/mL prior to comingling
≤300, 000/mL after comingling
Fill in the chart for Grade A pasteurized milk limits:
Temp: ≤45*F (7*C)
Drug: no residues allowed
Time/temp requirements for vat pasteurization of milk
Milk is heated to 154.4 degrees Fahrenheit (63 degrees Celsius) in a large container and held at that temperature for 30 minutes.
Fill in time/temp chart for continuous flow (HSHT) pasteurization of milk
72C/ 161F =
72C/ 161F = 15 sec
89C/191F= 1.0 sec
90C/194F= 0.5 sec
94C/201F= 0.1 sec
100C/212F= 0.01 sec
According to the PMO, If the fat content of the milk product is ten percent (10%) or greater, or a total solids of 18% or greater, or if it contains added sweeteners, the specified temperature shall be increased by ___ degrees C/F.
increased by 3ºC (5ºF).
Time/temp requirements for ultra-pasteurization of milk
138*C (280*F) / 2s
Toxic principle Japanese Yew (Taxus spp)
Taxine A and B, which causes tremors, acute arrythmiaas/death (cardiotoxic); present in all plant structures except arils
Which of the following correctly matches the causative agent and vector for scrub typhus?
a. Neorickettsia ristiscii, Caddis fly
b. Orientia tsutsugamushi, trombiculid mite
c. Rickettsia typhi, Xenopsylla cheopis flea
d. Rickettsia prowazekii, Pediculus humanus lice
Which tickborne intraerythrocytic organism is responsible for the highest proportion of blood transfusion-borne infections in the US?
a. Ehrlichia chaffeensis
b. Heartland virus
c. Francisella tularensis
d. Babesia microti