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Flashcards in Odds and ends Deck (155):
1

Staphylococcus can grow under ___ moisture and ___ salt conditions

Low moisture; high salt

2

Water added to milk can be detected via ___ test

freezing point

3

Pasteurized milk should be stored at ___ F for best shelf life. It can last up to ___ weeks.

40F; 2 weeks

4

What illegal drug residue should show cattle be tested for especially?

Clenbuterol

5

Ground beef should be cooked to ___ internal temp to kill E. coli

155 F

6

"keep hot food hot; keep cold food cold". What intermediate range does FDA define as danger zone for microbial growth?

41-145 F

7

Minimum time/temp requirements for home (vat) pasteurization?

30 min at 145 F

8

What kind of toxin does E. coli O157:H7 produce?

Verotoxin and/or shigatoxin

9

What kind of toxin does Staph aureus produce?

Enterotoxin

10

What kind of toxin does Clostridium botulinum produce?

Neurotoxin

11

Best place to isolate yersinia enterocolitica in swine?

Tonsils

12

Pork must be frozen to ____ F/C to prevent trichina

-40 F = -40 C

13

Name 3 viscosity-based tests for mastitis

California (CMT), Wisconsin, Whiteside

14

What is the bulk tank test for antibiotic residues in milk?

Delvotest is one option for farmers

15

Pre-harvest antibiotic residue testing can be done via ___ on ___(sample)__

Live Animal Swab Test (LAST) on urine

16

____ test may be used on cattle at slaughter if herdmates are positive for antibiotic residues, or if disabled/cull cows with high suspicion

Swab Test On Premises (STOP) test

17

____ test may be used on veal calves at slaughter for abx residues

Calf Antibiotic Sulfa Test (CAST)

18

____ test may be used on swine for Abx residue screening at slaughter

Sulfa on Site (SOS)

19

After biotransformation, drugs are usually more ___ soluiable

Water-soluable

20

Mechanism of action for atropine?

Anticholinergic (parasympatholitic)

21

Where should brand be placed for brucella reactors

Left hip

22

If focal (aka non-systemic) TB lesion is noted at slaughter, what is disposition for carcass?

Remove lesion and pass carcass for cooking (?)

23

If carcinoma-like lesions noted in bone at slaughter, what is disposition for carcass

Condemn

24

Caudal fold TB skin test should be read after ___ hrs

72 hr

25

Measly beef is caused by ____

Taenia saginata

26

Taenia saginata adult stage is found in ___ and intermediate in _____

Adult in man; intermediate in cattle

27

Measly pork is caused by ____

Taenia solium

28

Taenia solium adult stage is found in ___ and intermediate is found in _____

Adult in man; intermediate in man or swine

29

Hydatid disease is caused by

Echinococcus granulosus

30

Echinococcus granulosus: Definitive host = ____; Intermediate host= _______

Definitive = canids (domestic and wild), Intermediate =sheep, cattle, pigs, rarely man

31

Salmon poisoning is caused by _____

Fluke (Nanophyetus salminocola) containing Neorickettsia helminthoeca

32

In salmon poisoning, the fluke is ingested by ___ which is ingested by ____ which is ingested by ____

Fluke in snail (certicarea), which is eaten by salmon, which is consumed raw by dogs (who get sick)

33

Lumpy jaw is caused by

Actinomyces bovis

34

Wooden tongue is caused by

Actinobacillus lignieresii

35

Blackleg is caused by

Clostridium chauvoei

36

Enterotoxemia or overeating disease is caused by

Clostridium Perfringens type D (aka pulpy kidney)

37

Nairobi sheep disease is transmitted by ___

tick vector

38

For Grade A milk, max SCC is ____ in cows; ____ in goats

750,000 cells/ml in cows; 1,000,000 cells/ml in goats

39

Low temp pasteurization requires heating to ___ F for ____ min

145 F for 30 mins

40

High temp pasteurization requires heating to ___ F for ___ min

161 F for 15 sec

41

Ultra High Temp pasteurization requires heating to ___ F for ___ min

280 F for 2 sec

42

In cases of methanol toxicity, ___ is the toxic metabolite believed to be responsible for ocular toxicity/blindness

Formic acid

43

Lassa fever reservoir species

Multimammate rats (Mastomys spp)

44

Lassa fever transmission routes

Contact with urine/feces of rodents, nosocomial transmission

45

Leprosy, aka ____ is caused by ____

Hansen's disease; Mycobacterium leprae

46

Pasteurization is evaluated based on ability to kill which organism?

Coxiella burnetti

47

Which sulfa is approved for use in lactating dairy cows?

Sulfadimethoxine

48

"milk spots" on liver specimens from swine are indicative of what disease condition?

Ascaris suum

49

For each integer increase in a linear Somatic Cell Count score, you can assume what changes have occurred?

a doubling of the actual SCC and a uniform loss of milk of 1.5 pounds per cow per day

50

Visceral larval migrans in humans associated with what parasite?

Toxacara canis

51

Cutaneous larval migrans in humans associated with what parasite?

Ancylostoma spp

52

Prion diseases by species:
Cow=
Human=
Mink=
Sheep=
Cervid=

Cow= BSE
Human= CJD
Mink = Mink encephalopathy
Sheep = Scrapie
Cervid = CWD

53

At slaughter, cattle are condemned if antemortem temp is over ___ F

105 F

54

At slaughter, swine are condemned if antemortem temp is over ___ F

106 F

55

3 reasons to add nitrates to meat

1) Improve flavor
2) Bind to myoglobin to keep meat 'red' not brown
3) inhibit bacteria

56

Why add phosphates to meat? What is most common type of meat with phosphates added?

Improves water holding capacity; used especially in ham

57

"Enhanced pork" has what additives?

Sodium phosphate, Water and salt

58

What happens to milk components in mastitic milk? (Fat, Casein, Lactase, Protein, Minerals)

Decrease in fat, casein, lactase
Increase in protein, minerals

59

All sulfas are prohibited in lactating dairy cows except:

Sulfadimethoxine, sulfabromethazine, sulfaethoxypyridazine

60

Isotope half life of I-131

8.1 days

61

Isotope half life of C-14

5568 years

62

Isotope half life of Sr-90

28 years

63

Isotope half life of Cs-137

30 years

64

Isotope half life of Cs- 134

2 years

65

In what tissue does Sr-90 accumulate?

Bones

66

Cs-137 mimics what mineral

Potassium

67

I-131 concentrates in what tissue?

Milk and milk products; thyroid tissue

68

#1 cause of sporadic foodborne disease in the US?

Campylobacter

69

Mission of FSIS?

Meat, poultry, and egg safety

70

Mission of FSIS- International programs?

review foreign programs and inspect product at port of entry to US

71

Enforcement tools under the control of FSIS?

Retention, detention, voluntary recall

72

The US participates in International food safety through what commission?

Codex Alimentarius Commission

73

What are the three steps to risk analysis?

Risk assessment, Risk management, and Risk communication

74

Define: Risk Assessment, Risk Management, RIsk Communication

Assessment: process to identify hazards and describe risks
Management: Develop policies regarding risk using value judgements and considering who may benefit/lose
Communication: Communication between policy makers and stakeholders regarding risk

75

Definition of relative risk?

Attack rate of exposed / Attack rate unexposed

76

Definition attributed risk?

Attack rate exposed - Attack rate unexposed

77

In food prep establishments, final rinse water must reach ___ degrees F

180 F

78

What body parts constitutes red meat offal?

Edible parts other than striated muscle meat

79

What body parts constitute poultry offal?

Inedible parts of bird (feet, feathers)

80

Give two examples of food-borne psychrotrophic bacteria

Listeria and Yersinia

81

Ideal humidity for chilled carcass storage at slaughter plant? What happens if too high humidity? Too low?

88-92%; higher = slime mold Lower = shrinkage

82

Meat should be frozen at ___ degrees F; then stored at ____ degrees F

Freeze @ -10 F; store at 0 F

83

Define weasand rod

Tool used to isolate the esophagus from trachea to tie off/prevent leakage during evisceration

84

Ideal temperature for cutting floor @ slaughter plant is ___ degrees F

32 F

85

How much visible fecal material is allowed on carcass

None (zero tolerance)

86

Which enteric pathogens are most sensitive to irradiation

Campylobacter jejuni and E. coli 0157:h7

87

Definition Radappertization:

Using enough radiation (20-70 kGy) to destroy all organisms/sterilize

88

Definition Radicidation:

Using enough radiation (0.1-0.5 kGy) to inactivate non-sporeforming pathogens/pasteurize

89

Definition Radurization

Using enough radiation (1-5 kGy) to destroy spoilage organisms

90

Put the following terms in increasing order of radiation used: Radurization, Radicidation, Radappertization

Radicidation
Radurization
Radappertization

91

WHO/Codex approves food irradiation up to what amount?

10 kGy

92

How does FDA classify food irradiation?

As an additive

93

Definition stitch pumping?

Long needle inserted into meat chunk; curing solution pumped in

94

Pork can be certified trichinella-free after what treatment?

Frozen to -40 F (-40 C)

95

What is the use of a flow diversion valve in pasteurization?

IT can divert milk back to the bulk tank if it doesn't reach 161 F

96

What are the main causes for slime formation on meat surface?

Lactobacillus, micrococci, and yeast

97

What causes the greening of meat?

H2O2 produced by surface bacteria

98

What is carcass disposition if cirrhotic cords are found in swine liver?

Local lesion- excise and pass

99

What is carcass disposition if multiple abscesses are found in a carcass

Condemn carcass (systemic lesion)

100

What is carcass disposition if epithelioma/cancer eye is noted on cattle carcass?

If limited to eye, excise and pass; if infected or mets to bone/LN noted, condemn

101

What is carcass disposition if Actinomycosis (lumpy jaw) noted on cattle carcass?

If localized to jaw, excise and pass

102

What is carcass disposition if arthritic lesions noted?

If not systemic, excise and pass

103

What is carcass disposition if malignant lymphoma noted?

Condemn (systemic)

104

What are possible options when presented with Downer Cow at slaughter plant?

Hold for up to 24 hr for observation (may not be dragged); test for drug residues; proceed with emergency slaughter/euthanasia

105

What is carcass disposition if pneumonia is noted?

IF localized to lung lesions, excise and slaughter; if systemic condemn

106

What is carcass disposition if CNS abnormalities are noted

Condemn

107

Where are TB reactors branded?

Left cheek

108

Where are brucella reactors branded?

Left hip

109

What is disposition of carcass if avian TB lesions (caseous lesions) are noted?

Condemn

110

What is carcass disposition if avian leukosis is noted? Where would lesions be noted?

Lymph nodes, liver, feather follicles
Condemn

111

Clinical signs "Alabama rot" in dogs?

cutaneous and renal glomerular vasculopathy

112

What is carcass disposition if air sacculitis is noted?

Condemn (systemic disease)

113

The Pasteurized Milk Ordinance (PMO) is under jurisdiction of what federal agency?

FDA

114

The Interstate Milk Shippers List (IMSL) is under juristdiction of what federal agency?

FDA

115

Which federal agency is responsibile for veterinary biologics?

USDA-APHIS-VS

116

If a cow from a known brucellosis herd tests negative, what dispositions are allowed

Slaughter only

117

If a titer drops from 1:100 to 1:50, the test becomes more (sensitive or specific?)

Sensitive

118

The intensity of radiation decreased by a factor of ___ over a given distance

Decreased by inverse square of distance. Eg- increase distance by 3 times, radiation exposure is 1/9 of initial amount (1/3^2)

119

Which type of federal funds are the most restrictive?

Block grants

120

Which species is most sensitive to monensin?

Horses

121

Which species is most sensitive to urea?

Cattle

122

Which tick species is the main carrier of RMSF?

Dermacentor variabilis

123

What is one potential side effect of chloramphenicol use

Blood dyscrazias

124

What is one GI side effect of lincomycin in people?

pseudomembranous colitis

125

What is one main toxicity of gentamicin?

Ototoxic

126

Rank the following types of radiation from strongest to weakest penetration: Beta, alpha, gamma

Strongest: Gamma
Mid: Beta
Weakest: Alpha

127

Define the FDA's Standard of Identity

The quantity of foods conform to standard, no ingredients are used over or under the amounts proclaimed, and no ingredients are left out of label

128

Best way to ensure food safety?

Adequate cooking

129

Difference between ground beef and hamburger?

Ground beef has no added fat; hamburger can have up to 30% max fat.

130

The Safe Drinking Water Act (SDWA) sets maximum residual disinfectant goals for three disinfectants. What are they?

Chlorine, chloramine, chlorine dioxide

131

The Safe Drinking Water Act (SDWA) sets maximum contaminant goals for which disinfectant byproducts (DBPs)?

Total Trihalomethanes (TTH), haloacetic acids, chlorite, bromate

132

Causative agent New World Screwworm

Cochliomyia hominivorax

133

Scrub typhus cause and vector

Cause: Orientia tsutsugamushi (formerly Rickettsia tsutsugamushi)
Vector: Chigger (larval form of mite)

134

In food animal species, antimicrobials in water require a ___; antimicrobials in feed require a ____

water- prescription
Feed- VFD

135

When discussing medicated feed types for food animals, which type is most concentrated? (A-C)

Type A

136

Only Type ___ Medicated feeds can be fed to food animals under a VFD

Type C

137

Requirements for a VFD order

Client name
Vet Name
Animals to receive VFD feed
Description of feed
Last date when feed can be used

138

VFD order must be maintained for ___ years after writing

2 years ( by client, vet, and feed distributor)

139

Which category of drugs in animal feed require a withdrawal period?

Category II

140

Leishmaniasis vector

Sandfly

141

Leishmaniasis reservoir

Often small rodents

142

Fresh wild-caught fish should be frozen at what temperature before consuming in order to kill Anisakis spp?

-20 C

143

What agency is responsible for publishing the Pasteurized Milk Ordinance?

A. US Department of Agriculture (USDA)
b. Food and Drug Association (FDA)
C. National Association of State Public Health Vets (NASPHV)
D. Local/State Regulatory Agencies

B. FDA

144

What agency is responsible for incorporating and enforcing the Pasteurized Milk Ordinance?

A. US Department of Agriculture (USDA)
B. Food and Drug Association (FDA)
C. National Association of State Public Health Vets (NASPHV)
D. Local/State Regulatory Agencies

D. Local/state reg agencies

145

According to the PMO, cattle must be 'reasonably disease free' of what two diseases? Who regulates these disease eradication programs?

TB and Brucella. Regulated by USDA.
NOTE: Goat, sheep, water buffalo, camel, or any other hooved mammals are not covered under these USDA eradication programs

146

Fill in the chart for Grade A raw milk limits:
Temp limits
Drug limits
SCC limits
Bacterial limits

Temp: ≤ 50*F (10*C) w/in 4 hours of milking start
≤45*F (7*C) w/in 2 hours of milking finish
Drug: no residue allowed
SCC <750,000 cell/ml
Bacteria: ≤100,000/mL prior to comingling
≤300, 000/mL after comingling

147

Fill in the chart for Grade A pasteurized milk limits:
Temp limit
Drug limit
Phosphatase limit
Coliform limit
Bacterial limit

Temp: ≤45*F (7*C)
Drug: no residues allowed
Phosphatase: ≤350mU/L
Coliform: <10/ml
Bacterial: <20,000/ml

148

Time/temp requirements for vat pasteurization of milk

Milk is heated to 154.4 degrees Fahrenheit (63 degrees Celsius) in a large container and held at that temperature for 30 minutes.

149

Fill in time/temp chart for continuous flow (HSHT) pasteurization of milk
72C/ 161F =
89C/191F=
90C/194F=
94C/201F=
96C/204F=
100C/212F=

72C/ 161F = 15 sec
89C/191F= 1.0 sec
90C/194F= 0.5 sec
94C/201F= 0.1 sec
96C/204F= 0.05sec
100C/212F= 0.01 sec

150

According to the PMO, If the fat content of the milk product is ten percent (10%) or greater, or a total solids of 18% or greater, or if it contains added sweeteners, the specified temperature shall be increased by ___ degrees C/F.

increased by 3ºC (5ºF).

151

Time/temp requirements for ultra-pasteurization of milk

138*C (280*F) / 2s

152

Toxic principle Japanese Yew (Taxus spp)

Taxine A and B, which causes tremors, acute arrythmiaas/death (cardiotoxic); present in all plant structures except arils

153

Which of the following correctly matches the causative agent and vector for scrub typhus?
a. Neorickettsia ristiscii, Caddis fly
b. Orientia tsutsugamushi, trombiculid mite
c. Rickettsia typhi, Xenopsylla cheopis flea

d. Rickettsia prowazekii, Pediculus humanus lice

B

154

Which tickborne intraerythrocytic organism is responsible for the highest proportion of blood transfusion-borne infections in the US?
a. Ehrlichia chaffeensis
b. Heartland virus
c. Francisella tularensis
d. Babesia microti

D

155

Describe three potential routes of transmission to humans for MERS-CoV.

- Direct contact with dromedary camels (seroprevalence highest in shepherds and slaughterhouse workers)
- Nosocomial infection caring for infected person (respiratory droplets)
- Close household contact with infected person (respiratory droplets)