Old stuff Flashcards

(235 cards)

1
Q

High forage diets promote acetic acid production–>

A

buttermilk fat

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2
Q

High starch diets promote ? which helps with increasing lactose levels–> milk

A

Propionate acid

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3
Q

What is the portion of intake protein that is digested or degraded in the rumen?

A

Degradable intake protein (DIP) aka rumen degradable proteins (RDP)
1/3 RUP 2/3 rumen degradable

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4
Q

Degradable intake protein (DIP) aka rumen degradable proteins (RDP) are expressed as % of ___ ____

A

crude protein

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5
Q

cattle need at least ___% of crude protein, ___% of bw/day in long stemmed roughage and ____% (dairy) or ___% (beef) in crude fat

A

7%; 0.5%; 9% in dairy and 7% in beef

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6
Q

How many days in the breeding season?

A

about 65 days

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7
Q

Breeding cycle
1st interval ___%
2nd interval ___%
3rd interval ___%

A

1st interval is > 65%
2nd interval is about 25%
3rd interval is +/- 10%

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8
Q

First two intervals of the breeding cycle should equate to about ___% of pregnancies or more

A

> 90% of pregnancies

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9
Q

Breeding/calving season is:

A

63/65- 90 days

ranges from 45 days to 365 days

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10
Q

% herd pregnant:

A

> 90% -95%

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11
Q

% pregnant in the first heat interval:

A

60-65%

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12
Q

Pregnancy loss target is less than __-__%.

Pre weaning mortality goal is less than __-__%

A

1-3%;

3-4%

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13
Q

Where do we give injections?

A

in the neck, where lowest cuts of meat are, avoid rump

NO MORE than 10mL per injection per site

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14
Q

In terms of cow nutrition when she is pregnant- She will eat less because her abdomen is “full” of a calf so her feed needs to be of higher quality. So what should we feed her?

A

Better feed is more digestible so she will eat more of it and improve her BCS

Better quality means less supplemental feeding and more nutrients for her= less overall costs and healthier cow

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15
Q

The cow’s nutritional calendar:

A

period 1: 80 days post-calving, lactating and in the pre-breeding to early breeding season
Period 2: 125 days since calving pregnant (early 0-60 days since breeding) and lactating
Period 3: about 200 days since calving, about 110 days pregnant to mid-gestation and close to weaning
Period 4: 50 days prior to calving (dry cow)

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16
Q

Critical times for BCS females herd evaluation

A

Precalving 60-90 d (target BCS is 5.5-6)
Prebreeding/breeding and cycling (need BCS 5.0)
Pregnancy exam/weaning (need to be min. BCS 4.5)
Prior to any supplementation program

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17
Q

Calves with FPT are how much more likely to suffer from morbidity if from HEIFER?

A

9 1/2 times more likely

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18
Q

Calves suffering pre-weaning morbidity weighed ____ pounds less than herd mates

A

36lbs

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19
Q

We breed back around ___ DIM and milk for ___ days out of the year which is ideal

A

82 DIM; milk for 305 days

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20
Q

___ dry period

A

60 day;

2 weeks to dry out; 2 weeks for mammary rest; 2 weeks for colostrum

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21
Q

Birth to calving is ___–__ months

A

12-24 months

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22
Q

Hutches birth to weaning is around __-__ weeks old. Growth to ___-__ months old then preg.

A

6-8 weeks old; 12-13 months old

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23
Q

Move momma cows to transition when?

A

3-4 weeks prior to calving

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24
Q

Rule of 10% bw of colostrum within the first ___ hours is necessary

A

2-6 hours

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25
What is a common coccidiostat used in commerical milk replacers or used as feed additives?
Monensin (rumensin)- feed/ mineral additive Coccidiostat - speeds up rumen development process!!!! Supplement this for THEIR WHOLE LIFE Helps break fown food so more E per pound Decreased acetate and increased propionate, Propionate increases glucose which increase lactose = milk
26
What is used in commerical milk replacers or used as milk additives to help close the esophageal groove?
Decoquinate/Deccox
27
Carbs make up __% of the diet but are not all NCSs
70%
28
What is the goal BCS of a cow in her dry period to prevent issues?
BCS 3.0-3.25
29
Dry cow diets in terms of proteins, vit E, Calcium
less of all of these things
30
Cow is too thin-->
continue to feed lactating cow diet for 2-3 weeks in early dry period to gain 0.5 BCS
31
Cow is too fat-->
straw, poor quality forage for the first 2-3 weeks of her dry period to lose 0.5 BCS
32
Close up or transition cow group or “steam up maternity” meaning...???
increasing their nutrient density in prep for calving - cows: 3 weeks prior to expected calving - Heifers: 4 weeks prior to expected calving, avoid hypocalcemia by supplementing calcium
33
Camelid vital parameters normal:
T 99.5-102 F HR 60-80 RR 10-30 12 ribs, no hooves but have two toes
34
What will be higher on CBC in camelids than other animals but is still considered normal??
Glucose
35
What is the core vax for camelids?
CDT- Clostridium perfringes types C and D with tetanus
36
RV schedule in camelids:
RV yearly, initial dose is after 3 months of age, booster not needed like in dogs except every 1 year
37
Trouble breathing in a cria is likely due to???
Choanal atresia
38
Camelids are _____ before colostrum
agammaglobulinemic
39
When to ntr camdelid?
1.5 years with their fighting teeth emerging to prevent osteoarthritis/other ortho conditions
40
Haemonchus
barber pool worm that sucks their blood and can cause severe anemia
41
Two most common trichostrongyles in camelids
Haemonchus contortus and Trichostrongylus colubriformis
42
Mycoplasma haemolamae
Bacterial pathogen of blood cells. Some animals carry it without issues. Only tx if patient is severely anemic. Give blood transfusion and tetracycline Usually asymp. Carriers
43
Large coccidia in camelids:
Eimeria macusaniensis Eimeria ivitaensis **unique to camelids
44
What parasite might cause neuro issues?
Parelaphostrongylus tenuis
45
Severe anemia R/O:
HOT complex, E. mac, or Mycoplasma haemolamae (affects RBCs and causes hemolytic anemia)
46
When should we give grain to small ruminant to try and "flush" her (to try and get more ovulations out of female)?
give pregnant ewes grain supplementation in the last 6 weeks of gestation because that’s when the most growth occurs by the fetus
47
Vaccine schedule for CD+T:
Newborns- if mother was vaccinated in the last 4-5 weeks, give first shot at 1-3 months of age and booster 3-4 weeks later If mother is unvaccinated (which most of them are) before birth- give first shot 1-3 weeks of age and then booster 3-4 weeks later New adult with unknown vaccine hx—vaccinate then booster in 3-4 weeks later THEN VACCINATE ANNUALLY
48
Gestation length of sheep and goats-
150 days
49
Estrous cycle for goats
21 days
50
Estrous cycle for sheep-
17 days
51
Where does Haemonchus controtus live?
The abomasum
52
What can cause late term abortions if given in the last trimester of pregnancy?
Levamisole
53
What seasons should FEC be done ideally?
Spring and fall prior to deworming
54
Toxic dose of Lidocaine:
6mg/kg
55
Paravertebral nerve block
Nerves blocked include T13, L1 and L2
56
Proximal paravertebral nerve block
Find the cranial edge of landmark (L1, L2, L3) to block T13, L1 and L2 nerves
57
Distal paravertebral nerve block:
Landmarks- Transverse process of L1, L2, and L4
58
Landmark for the cornual branch of the lacrimal nerve
(branch of trigeminal CN V) is halfway between the lateral canthus and base of the horn
59
Where must we enter for umbilical sx?
in the abdomen at 3 and 9 o'clock
60
What is the pathophysiology and common causes of infectious bovine keratoconjunctivitis?
Aka IBK aka pinkeye Most common ocular disease of cattle, typically unilateral but can be bilateral. Characterized by inflammation of the cornea and conjunctiva with rapid progression within 1-2 days. Most common in summer because spread with flies
61
What is the primary cause of pinkeye?
Morazella bovis
62
Central ulcer in the cow eye=
pink eye
63
Most common sites of SCC-
SCC is the most COMMON ocular tumor in cattle 1. limbus (corneoscleral junction) 2. 3rd eyelid (nictitating membrane) 3. palpebra
64
What to do with momma cow baldy with bloody oozy discharge down her face pic?
We will do hyperthermia or cryotherapy/Extenteration (which is removing eye like an enucleation plus the ocular tissues around it Warn owners that it make reoccur
65
What are the causative agents for Actinobacillosis and Actinomycosis??
Actinobacillosis aka wooden tongue-->Actincobacillus lignieresii is a normal GI inhabitant esp. in mouth and rumen. Causes granulomatous reaction in the tongue. May be related to poor forage quality Actinmycosis aka Lumpy JAW Actinomyces bovis is normal inhabitant of the mouth Both have diagnosis depending on clinical signs usually (although can do gram stain or biopsy if unsure!!!) Tx for both includes Sodium Iodide IV, Oxytetracycline systemically
66
what is the clinical presentation for Actinobacillosis
ptyalism- over production of saliva, inability to graze, tongue may be fat, lesions on tongue, nodular swelling, enlarged LN
67
What is the clinical presentation for actinomycosis
Granulomatous also with abscess, “sulfur granules” and usually involves mandible (osteomyelitis), loss of teeth
68
Most sx happens on R or L side of the cow?
R side L side is mostly rumen!!!
69
Primary bloat
frothy bloat, entrapment of the fermentable gases in a foam, pass stomach tube and all you will see if foam coming out
70
Secondary bloat
Free gas bloat, evacuation of gas hindered by physical obstruction or mechanisms that expel gas aren't workin
71
Primary bloat causes/predispositions:
hypomotility, adhesions, rumen drinkers, neuro issues, lateral recumbency
72
shape of abdomen with primary bloat:
Pear shaped abdomen, colic, tachycardia, anxious, excessive salivation, choke, ruminal distension, trouble breathing
73
CS of ruminal acidosis aka grain overload-
increases rumen osmolality and draws in fluid from circulation into the rumen, decreased BP and decreased O2 to tissues, endotoxemia Clinical signs are hypomotility of rumen, free gas bloat, abdominal pain, depression, diarrhea with grain kernels, tachycardia, dehydration, weakness
74
Subacute ruminal acidosis (SARA)-->
continued ingestion of concentrates for period of time, subclinical, hyperkeratosis of the rumen, too much grain OVER time Clinical signs are reduced rumination, laminitis, decreased milk fat (because low on roughage), weight loss, mild diarrhea
75
What is the most common cause of anterior abdominal pain in cattle?
traumatic reticuloperitonitis | AKA Hardware Disease
76
4 syndromes of vagal indigestion
Type 1- failure of eructation/free gas bloat Type 2- omasal transport failure Type 3- Abomasal outflow failure Type 4- Indigestion of late pregnancy
77
My cow has gradual abdominal distension, papple shaped with L shaped rumen on rectal palpation- what is the diagnosis???
Vagal indigestion
78
Vagal indigestion has what type of prognosis?
poooor prognosis, not responsive to tx
79
What are the clinical indications for rumenotomy and rumenostomy?
Reumotomy indications- valuable animal, acute onset of CS Rumenostomy—aka rumen fistula; indications are TEMPORARY, symptomatic relief of chronic ruminal tympany, chronic bloat, choke or to administer food/fluids
80
What is the typical signalment and history for LDA vs. RDA?
History- typically early postpartum, anorexic, reduced milk, normal to high RR and HR, decreased to absent rumen contractions, Left sided ping between 10-13th ribs, concurrent disease, rumen displaced medially on rectal exam with LDA
81
What is a prereq of displaced abomasum?
Hypomotility
82
Hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis:
Hypokalemia because sequestration of Chloride, +/ hypocalcemia, paradoxic acidura
83
Who is at risk for L displaced abomasum? | What are the CS of L displaced abomasum?
Abomasal hypomotility or post partum period CS- fresh dairy cow with decreased milk production, ADR, anorexic **Ping on left side between 10th and 13th rib***
84
Is tx for LDA medically rec?
Nah, do surgery
85
Laparotomy incision-
begin 10-15 cm below transverse lumbar processes (tend to stay closer to the last rib) extends for approx. 30-40cm, muscle layers, peritoneum
86
What are the muscle layers to be incised in a laparotomy incision-
Cutaneous, external abdominal oblique, internal abdominal oblique, transversus abdominis
87
What is a treatment method for LDA
Right flank pyloric omentopexy
88
Pros and cons of right flank pyloric omentopexy
Pros- standing, one person job, complete exploratory celiotomy, will deflate Cons- skills, friable and fat omentum, anatomic fixation is not ideal, in advanced pregnancy
89
When does LDA occur?
Beginning of lactation (4-8 week period)
90
What is the preferred tx/most common for LDA?
right flank pyloric omentopexy - return to production immediately
91
Right Displaced Abomasum and Abomasal Volvulus
ER sit and fatal RDA is just displacement with partial obstruction (can progress and become abomasal volvulus) AV is hemorrhage strangulation obstruction (like GDV in dogs), occlusion of duodenum, OA or RO orifice
92
RDA- ping is where?
ping caudal to 10th rib and cranial to the 13th rib
93
AV- ping is where?
ping extends cranially to the 10th rib and caudal to the 13th rib
94
Prognosis for - LDA - RDA - AV
LDA- diagnosed early has good prognosis RDA- if diagnosed early good poor AV- guarded/hopeless
95
What metabolic derangements due we see with displaced abomasum?
Metabolic alkalosis, hypokalemia, hypochloremia
96
early lactation in cows 4-8 weeks-
RDA and AV
97
What are the different types of abomasal ulcers and differing clinical presentations?
Type 1- non perforation ulcer Type 2- non perforating ulcer with severe blood loss Type 3- perforating ulcer with local peritonitis Type 4- perforating ulcer with diffuse peritonitis
98
Ulcers that ___ never ___
bleed never perforate
99
Ulcers that ___ never bleed
perforate
100
Ulcers type 1-4:**
Type 1- subclinical Type 2 Abomasal ulcer will have melena, sever blood loss, high HR *KNOW **Key words are melena and high HR!!!!! Type 3 local peritonitis, decreased rumen motility, FEVER, high fibrinogen Type 4- perforating with diffuse peritonitis, fatal, septicemia and death Lotssss of fibrin, hard to feel anything from rectal palpation
101
What is the transmission of johnes disease
Manure from diseased animals, fecal to oral route | Calves are the high risk group!
102
What are the clinical signs for johnes disease
Stage 1-2 --calves get the disease but no CS, would test negative Stage 3-- calves have CS and are shedding the infectious disease Stage 4-- diagnose/isolate more than four years of age, because cannot diagnose until they start shedding the infectious disease
103
What are the limitations of testing for johnes disease
Diagnosis GOLD STANDARD is fecal culture in calves more than four years old and in small ruminants it is fecal PCR
104
Testing Johnes, how is it unique?
Calves will test negative even if harboring the virus because not shedding Johnes must be managed as a herd problem, NOT as an individual cow problem Cull offspring from clinically affected cows Calves younger than 6 months are the most susceptible but cannot test them with accurate results unless older than four years!!!!
105
What are the common tx for rectal prolpase?
Usually due to tail docking too short for show Usually conservative treatments for mucosal or complete (Type 1 or 2) Caudal epidural and purse string suture
106
Producer comes to you wanting to finish the dehorning of an older cow in the summer, what do you recommend?
Cosmetic dehorning with full anesth. And closed with sutures because cow is older- so pain management and control bleeding plus control of fly strike because no open and its pretty
107
A producer says his herd is only 36% pregnant after the first interval, are we concerned and why?
Yes, should be at least 65% pregnancy rate
108
What is the min. BCS of a pregnant herd exam that is still acceptable?
4.5 BCS
109
Along with monitoring feed of those in the close up/transition group, what else should we be monitoring?
Esterified fatty acids (VEFA)
110
? can be added to small ruminants water as coccidiostat
Amprolium
111
Only what strain of BVDV can cause PI calf?
Noncytopathic strain
112
If NCP strain BVDV calf is PI and the virus mutates or patient becomes infected with cytopathic strain (CP)=
will get mucosal disease (which is most common as BVDV genotype 2) and can die from it This may also occur if PI calf is administered a BVDV vaccine
113
Know than less than ____ is adequate for passive transfer in calves
<5.2
114
Enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC)
Typically young calves, less than 5 days old affected | can be prevented with maternal vaccine at 6 and 3 weeks
115
What viruses causing diarrhea all affect cattle at ages 5-15 days old???
Rotavirus, coronavirus, cryptosporidium
116
Blood diarrhea, unthirfty=
prob coccidiosis and needs ionophores/coccidiostats
117
diarrhea calves have METABOLIC ACIDOSIS WITH HYPERKALEMIA
!!!!
118
Backgrounders vaccinate at ___ days post weaning and castrate and let heal before shipping to help prevent ___ _____
45 days; shipping fever
119
how much to feed calves?
Feed 6,8, 10% of the calf's bw daily in the first, second and third week of life increase intake by 50-100% during extremely cold weather feed at least BID until 3 weeks old Start offering a high quality calf starter by 1 week old
120
``` example: 65lb calf first week fed= second week fed= third week fed= ```
1st week-6% x 65= 3.9 lb milk (4 pints a day, feed 2 pints daily) (gained 1lbs a day so now weighs 72lbs) 2nd week- 8% x 72 = 5.76 lb milk (6 pints a day, feed 3 pints twice a day) 3rd week- 10% x 79= 7.9 lb milk (8 pints a day, fed 4 pints twice daily)
121
Ill calves do have higher caloric requirements. | What if I have a 65lb calf feed 10% bw
``` 65lb= 29.5kg 29.5kg x 0.1= 2.95L (3 liters) 2 pints in 1 liter Feed 6 pints a day (3 pints twice a day) **was on exam** ```
122
Cow with unilateral mucopurulent discharge but no other cows have it- differentials:
probably nasal foreign body, mass, or bacterial sinusitis
123
What are the 3 bacterial causes of granulomas?
Actinomyces, Actinobacillus, Nocardia
124
What are the fungal causes of granulomas (2)
Rhinosporidum and Aspergillus
125
Abscesses of the nasal passages are usually due to ...
Trueperella pyogenes
126
Ulcerated mucosa is usually due to what agent?
ulcerated mucosa causing infection due to Fusobacterium necrophorum
127
What is the tx of necrotic laryngitis (calf diphtheria)??
Penicillin, tetracycline, need temporary tracheostomy
128
What is the most common endemic virus in the US?
Bovine herpes virus (BHV-1) aka infectious bovine rhinotracheitis virus (IBRV)
129
pathogenesis of Bovine herpes virus (BHV-1) aka infectious bovine rhinotracheitis virus (IBRV) and latency-->
Destroys epithelial cells, dysfunction of the mucocillary elevator ii. Latency- it survives WITHOUT replicating in sensory ganglia, can persist in a population foreverrrrr-- when animal becomes sick it comes out of lacency/dormancy and is recurrence of the herpes virus and can spread to others (can be shed to others in contact and persists in the population)
130
What is the gold standard diagnostic test for finding Bovine herpes virus (BHV-1) aka infectious bovine rhinotracheitis virus (IBRV)
Qualitative PCR is GOLD STANDARD
131
Paired serology, what tells us its a positive result of BHV-1?
2 dilutions= 4 fold increase in titer of the same cow
132
What viruses contribute to the respiratory diseases in cattle?
P13V, bovine coronavirus, bovine viral diarrhea virus 1 and 2, influenza D virus (IDV), bovine rhinitis virus, bovine rhinovirus, bovine adenovirus
133
What bacterial agents are commonly involved with resp. diseases in cattle?
M. haemolytica, P. multocida, H. somni, M. bovis, Trueperella pyogenes (all gram negatives)
134
If concurrent signs of otitis in one or more animals- what is most likely?
Mycoplasma bovis
135
If concurrent signs of septic arthritis in one or more animals- _______ or ____ most likely
H. somi OR M. bovis
136
Preconditioning definition and what does it include??
deconditioning means preparing calves to resist BRCD where they are castrated and dehorned, healed before shipping, weaned at 45 d and vaccinated with multivalent viral BRDC pathogens (BHV-1/RVDV/P13V)
137
Mycoplasma bovis pneumonia CS, what individuals are at risk?
CS- same as for bronchopneumonia Calves that have otitis with ear discharge, head tilt and CN 8 signs, septic arthritis In dairy calves usually
138
What is the tx for Lungworm infections?
tx is all meds ending in "Mectin"
139
ABPEE (fog fever)
Aka AIP (acute interstitial pneumonia) Most common history is sudden turnout of mature cattle onto lush, green pasture orrrr exposure to toxins (like from perilla mint, moldy sweet potatoes, others—see document) 4-ipomeanol (Fusarium from moldy sweet potatoes) Perilla ketone from perilla mint
140
what can we feed as a supplement to prevent ABPEE (fog fever)??
Monensin- feed for several days
141
Which is most likely to be most helpful in preventing the occurrence of frontal sinusitis in cattle?
Dehorning calves when they are young, before the cornual sinus has developed
142
You are called to examine a group of dairy cattle with respiratory disease. They are 1 month to four months to age, housed indoors in pens in a large, older barn. They are now cough, crackles wheezes diffusely over the cranial and middle regions of the lung. Some have fevers. Some have harsh lung sounds.
BRDV, mycoplasma bovis or/and Pasteurella
143
Which abx would be best for tx steer with acute bacterial bronchopneumonia, assuming you do not know which bacterial pathogen is causing the infection?
Give Florfenicol
144
Can drugs be administered in or on feed? Can drugs be used soley to improve meat quality/growth production?
NOPE; NO
145
Amount of SCC is the status of ____. More than _____= infection or was infection
infection; 200,000 cells/mL
146
Mastitis is mostly ___
subclinical
147
Is scc a public health issue?
Nope
148
Contagious vs. environment mastitis-->
Contagious- primary source is mammary gland and from milking machines, milkers, fomites, major loss is subclinical Environmental- primary source is environment only, like bedding, soil, exposed post or between milking, major loss is CLINICAL mastitis
149
What are the 3 sources of pathogens from within the mammary gland that cause contagious mastitis
1. Strep agalactiae 2. Staph aureus 3. M. bovis
150
What is the single most protective measure taken to help reduce infection by contagious pathogens???
Post-milking teat disinfection
151
What is the definition of chronic mastitis???
clinical case of mastitis where 3 different antimicrobial products have been used without clearing the infection OR a cow that has 3 clinical episodes of mastitis in the same lactation
152
M. bovis infection, what do we do???
CULLLLLLLLL, if M. bovis or Nocardia==== CULLLLL
153
What is an acceptable reason for teat amputation?
Gangrene mastitis
154
Calculate bicarb requirement-->
Bw (kg) x extracellular fluid space (0.3-0.6) x base deficit Adult bicarb will be 0.3-0.4 Young bicarb will be 0.5-0.6
155
example of bicarb calculation | *was on exam:
100lb calf with plasma bicarb of 5mmol/L 100/2.2 x 0.5 x 25-5 =450 mEq HCO3 needed to correct the deficit
156
What fluids do we want for metabolic acidosis???
Acetate, citrate, gluconate propionate
157
When is most impt time for colostrum absorption?
4-6 hrs
158
Serum IgG concentration peaks when?
at 32 hrs of age
159
__-__% of BW of first milking colostrum within __ hours following birth followed by an additional 5% bw at 12 hours
7.5-10%; 4 hours
160
___% of calves have adequate passive transfer
90%
161
Absorption of colostrum declines ___ hours after birth
12 hours
162
FPT is defined as < _____ mg/dL
<1000mg/dL
163
Check passive transfer when?
between 24-48 hours after birth
164
What is gold standard for diagnosing FPT?
Radial immunodiffusion (RID)
165
Total protein less than ___g/dL = FPT
< 5.2 g/dL
166
Total protein more than ____g/dL is adequate passive transfer
>5.5g/dL
167
Always get what value when dealing with blocked goat?
BASELINE URINE PH
168
What is diagnostic for blocked goat?
Abdominocentesis 2:1 ratio of creatine (2) in abdomen and (1) in serum is diagnostic!!!
169
What is walpole's solution>
Walpole’s Solution is for treatment of goats with urolithiasis, very acidic solution, used in cats too, basically vinegar. DO NOT USE if planning or potential for surgery later one, because it will cause chemical septic uroabdomen 1. Goal is pH of 4-5 to dissolve stones (Struvite) 2. U/S guided cysto
170
Perineal urethrostomy-
PU surgery, salvage procedure
171
Tube cystotomy-
Most long term success, gold standard | best for ram to return to breeding, veryyyyy expensive
172
For uroliths in small ruminants, what are the different prevention strategies?
Maintenance of 2:1 Calcium to phosphorus ratio Decrease magnesium in the diet Increased forage, castrate, avoid high risk pastures
173
Most common in castrated small ruminants=
urolithiasis
174
Urolithiasis manifestations may include ? which can cause edema from sternum going ventrally to perineum/inguinal region
urethral rupture
175
What are signs of urethral rupture? *** on exam
edema from sternum going ventrally to perineum/inguinal region
176
What shaped abdomen might mean bladder rupture in small rum???
Par shaped abdomen
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Most common sites for obstruction in small rum=
urethral processes
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What is the 90-90-90 rule for bovine lameness?
90% in foot 90% in HL 90% in Lateral claw
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Want __-__ degree hoof angle
45-50 degrees
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Subclinical laminitis most predisposing factors:
1. Sole ulcer 2. White line disease 3. Toe ulcer/abscess 4. Underrun sole/pseudo sole/double sole 5. Underrun heel
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Aseptic necrosis of horn, with granulation tissue production, most commonly caused by...
Overgrown toes
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Where do sole ulcers occur at usually?
Occurs at lateral claws and both hind feet at sole-bulb junction
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Toe/sole abscess- fracture lame, what must we do??
MUST removal ALLLLLL of the underrun (detached) sole
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Where do to/sole abscesses start?
Starts at the heel bulb
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Hair heel wart-->
Digital dermatitis, dermatitis digitalis Most common cause of lameness in DAIRY cattle Lesion Tx with tetracycline
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Foot rot aka interdigital phlegmon:
Common in BEEF cattle, young ones Most common bacteria- Anaerobic (Fusobacterium necrophorum, Bacteroides melaningenicus) Interdigital area, between the toes
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Digit amputation pros and cons:
Pros- complete removal of infected tissues, faster recovery | Cons- decreased her retention time (less than a year bc breaks down other claw), esthetics poor
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Digit salvage is good for....
saving the cow to be in the herd for a longer time or back to breeding soundness, $ and uses facilitated ankylosis where we drill the joint
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facilitated ankylosis where we drill the joint =
digit salvage
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Disarticulation of the distal interphalangeal joint=
Digit amputation
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Pros and cons of digit salvage:
Pros: aesthetics, increased herd retention time (more than a year) Cons: $$, delayed removal of infected tissues, slower recovery times
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**pic of sole ulcer on exam
//
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**Pic of hair heel wart on exam**
///
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**What causes hairy heel wart?
Treponema denticola
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**What is the number ONE/most common cause of lameness in DAIRY cattle?
Hairy heel wart caused by Treponema denticola
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Diagnosis of Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis (survives months in environment)-
Diagnosis is needle aspirate from LN and | ONLY DEF. DIAGNOSIS IS A CULTRE--> GOLD STANDARD
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Foot rot is caused by ? | Foot rot is caused by ?
Foot rot is caused by Dichelobacter nodosus Foot scald is caused by Fusobacterium necrophorum
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What comes first, foot rot or foot scald?
foot scald causes foot rot, and foot rot is contagious and can cause carrier animals to occur in the herd/flock
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Foot ____ predisposes to foot _____
scald predisposes to foot rot
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carrier animals with foot ____ does play a major role in transmission and can persist for years in carrier animals
Foot rot
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Tx of foot rot/scald
aggressively trimming and debriding the areas (more impt In goats) and foot baths. Can do parenteral abx if animal is severe, esp in sheep Tetracycline, foot baths, ID the carrier animal and CULL
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Johne's disease in small ruminant animals:
“skinny goat disease” or “wasting disease” | Mycobacterium avium subspecies paratuberculosis (MAP)
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CS of Johne's Dz:
1. Chronic wasting and diarrhea disease 2. Chronic wasting is most consistent clinical sign in small ruminants, diarrhea occurs in 20% of cases 3. Malabsorptive diarrhea caused by granulomatous enteritis distal jejunum and ileum
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Diagnosis of Johne's disease
Fecal culture (takes 8-12 weeks) Fecal PCR (takes 1 week) **CLINICAL ANIMALS ARE MORE LIKELY TO SHED THE BACTERIA IN BODILY FLUIDS young are rarely clinical, mostly clinical disease animals are between 2-7 years so test then!!!
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do not test animals for Johne's that are...
less than 2 years old/not showing any clinical signs
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TX for Johne's Dz:
no known cure, only supportive, No screening tests- have to wait til animals show CS before testing
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Caprine Arthritis and Encephalitis Virus **In GOATS** (CAEV) - what is the main route? What are the four clinical signs in
colostrum; 1. Encephalitic form- neurologic signs in kids 2-4 months old and can progress to “wry neck”- circle around with head low 2. Pneumonic form- interstitial pneumonia, chronic cough, elevated RR, weight loss 3. Arthritis form- most common form encountered in goats*** 4. Mastitis form (hard milker, low milk production)
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CAEV of goats highlights-->
Causative agent is Lentivirus Four forms: arthritis, encephalitis, pneumonia, mastitis No tx at all
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CAEV of goats is like ____ of sheep
OPP (Ovine Progressive Pneumonia)
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Ovine Progressive Pneumonia of sheep 4 CS
i. Pneumonia ii. Encephalitis iii. Mastitis iv. Arthritis No tx, cull
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Ovine Progressive Pneumonia of sheep (OPP) Highlights--->
No tx, cull four forms are: arthritis, encephalitis, pneumonia, mastitis Causative agent is Lentivirus
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What is the main CS of BVDV in cattle?
Cerebellar hypoplasia
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Congenital defects occurs at what point in gestation when infected with BVDV?
Congenital defects when infection is 100-150 days of gestation causing cerebellar hypoplasia
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How does a calf become a PI for BVDV
Co infection of a PI calf with a genetically closely relayed CP strain (or vaccine against BVDV) causes mucosal disease which is 100% fatal
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PT with noncytopathic strain co infected with cytopathic strain = PI with noncytopathic strain without any other strains=
death; | lives years
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Can never rid BVDV until....
PI are completely removed from the herd
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PI calves can respond Immunologically to genetically less similar ___ strains but will not have ____ to original BVDV
BVDV strains; antibodies
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What are the proper management procedures needed to decrease the impact of BVDV infection in cattle herds
Vaccination- lots of BVDV vaccines available, avoid in preg cattle unless labeled for use In preg cattle Vaccine can prevent disease, but not all vaccines are equally effective at preventing abortion, have to get rid of all PT to remove BVDV from the herd, vaccine along is not enough, vax using MLV vaccines
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__ is usually secondary to GI dz in cattle, usually resolves when GI issues is corrected Hint: a heart issue
A-fib
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Vegetative valvular endocarditis- murmur over any valve but usually which valve in cattle?
Tricuspid valve is most common in cattle
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CBC results of cow with Vegetative valvular endocarditis
Inflammation, hyperfibrinogenemia, increased globulins
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Traumatic reitculopericarditis causes and CS:
wire or nail makes it to pericardium- septic pericarditis CS- RHF with pressure to pericardial effusion, fever, ADR, abnormal withers pinch test, sloshing sound- may be mistaken for washing machine murmur from bacteria and inflammation
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What is the most common congenital cardiac defect in cattle?
VSD
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Know pics of dermatoPHILOSIS- rain rot, purple with some strings of purple
//
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Ring worm is called | Rain rot is called
ringworm: DermatoPHYTOSIS | Rain Rot: DermatopHILOSIS
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___ is the most common ectoparasite on cattle, usually on perineum and distal limbs
Choriopties
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What is the face fly scientific name?
Musca autumnalis (around eyes mostly, larger than horn flies)
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What is the scientific name for horn fly?
Haematobia spp.
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What fly can cause production losses because they are so annoying?
Haematobia spp. (horn flies) - covers whole body of cattle, small
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Listeriosis is a relative common cause of abn referable to inflammation of the brain stem in ruminants. Which tx is more appropriate for a patient with signs that you believe are due to acute listeriosis?
Procaine pen given SubQ for 10-14 days and dex IM for 1-3 days
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thiamine is good for tx of ___
polio
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Which of the following is NOT part of classical clostridial myositis?
Clostridial tetani
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The number one risk period for new intramammary infections occurs when?
Dry off period
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You are presented with a 1-year-old Suffolk lamb that is being shown by a young 4H member. This is their first show lamb and they have worked very hard on their project. The owner has called you because his lamb is acting very lethargic and stopped eating 2 days ago, it is receiving 1.5 lb of calf starter twice a day and half flake of grass hay. When you ask whether the lamb has been urinating, they claim that they urine looked dark brown. With a sinking feeling you inform the owner that the lamb is likely suffering from
Copper toxicity
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What nerve is anesthetized for dehorning cattle and where is it located?
Cornual branch of the lacrimal nerve-- be able to point it out in a pic of a cow