OMA Flashcards
(149 cards)
1
Q
What are the names of our three AOCs?
A
easyJet UK Limited
easyJet Switzerland SA. (Swiss)
easyJet Europe Airline GmbH (Austrian)
2
Q
What is ISA at sea level?
A
15 degC
QNH 1013
(14.7 psi)
(661kts Speed of Sound)
OMA 0.1.6
3
Q
What is the temperature at 39000ft in ISA?
A
-56.5 degC
4
Q
Who is the CEO?
A
Johan Lundgren
5
Q
Who (was) the COO?
A
Chris Browne
6
Q
Who is the CFO?
A
Andrew Findlay
7
Q
Who is head of operations (interim)? Previously head of flight operations.
A
David Morgan
8
Q
Who is head of cabin services?
A
Tina Milton
9
Q
Who is head of operational planning?
A
Phillip Smallwood
10
Q
Who is head of crew training?
A
David Froggatt
11
Q
What are the regulatory responsibilities of the commander?
A
Safety of all crew, passengers and cargo Operation and safety of aircraft Authority to give all commands regarding safety Can disembark anyone Must ensure all passengers briefed Must ensure all ops/checklists followed FDR/CVR not tampered with Follow CDL/MEL Conduct preflight inspection Ensure emergency equipment available File safety reports
“In an emergency situation that requires immediate decision and action, take any action he considers necessary. In such cases he may deviate from the rules, operational procedures, and methods in the interests of flight safety.”
OMA 1.4.1
12
Q
What are the company responsibilities of the commander?
A
1) Flight deck door stays locked with engines running
2) Take “all reasonable steps” to ensure passengers seated and bags stowed
3) No loose articles in flight deck
4) Consideration given to increasing safety margins (like minima)
5) Continuous listening watch on ATC and 121.5
6) Conduct de-brief
7) Maintain crew uniform standards (ties on outside flight deck)
8) Use ACARS to provide info to company
OMA 1.4.2
13
Q
How can OCC be contacted?
A
Telephone 01582 525525
ACARS
HF (5 freqs - 5541, 11345, 13342, 17916, 23210)
OMA 2.1.1
14
Q
How many flight crew are required for boarding?
A
1
15
Q
Minimum age for cabin crew?
A
18
16
Q
How many hours does a commander need?
A
3500 factored (can be reduced to 3000)
Currently 3000 by the end of the command course - January 2019
OMA 5.2.1
17
Q
What are the limits on alcohol consumption?
A
None within 10 hours of report
Moderation within 24 hours of report (5 units)
18
Q
How many hours off after anaesthetic?
A
24 hours after local
48 hours after general
19
Q
How many hours off after donating blood?
A
24
20
Q
How many hours off after diving?
A
24 (or 48 if deeper than 10m)
21
Q
What is a “decrease in medical fitness”?
A
Surgery Admitted to hospital for 12 hours+ New regular medication Injury/illness that affects ability to fly Pregnancy
OMA 6.12
22
Q
Which chemicals make up air and by what amount?
A
78% Nitrogen
21% Oxygen
1% others (mostly Argon)
23
Q
Who is head of operations (interim)?
May 2019
A
David Morgan
24
Q
Who is director of flight operations (interim)?
May 2019
A
Daniele Grassini (previously Head of Training and Standards)
25
What is the maximum amount an FDP can be increased by? (At what amount does the CAA get notified?)
2 hours (1 hours+ CAA gets notified)
OMA 7.1.5.4.5
26
What is the minimum rest can be reduced to? (Home base and out of base)
12 hours home base, 10 hours out of base
OMA 7.1.11.5
27
How much does rest need to be reduced by for the CAA to get notified?
1 hour (same as 1 hour extension for CAA notification)
28
Who can reduce standard report time?
Only the commander (not crewing!)
OMA 7.1.5.1.2
29
What are the minimum briefing/report times?
60 minutes - only reduced by captain. One flight crew member must receive 45 minutes
30
How does delayed reporting work? What is the key number of hours?
4 hours...
If the delay is less than 4 hours then;
- Max FDP is calculated based on original report time
- FDP starts at delayed report time
If the delay is more than 4 hours then;
- Max FDP is calculated based on the more limiting of original and delayed report time
- FDP starts at delayed report time
OMA 7.1.5.4.6
31
What are the maximum duty hours in 7, 14 and 28 days?
60 duty hours in 7 consecutive days
110 duty hours in 14 consecutive days
190 duty hours in 28 consecutive days
32
What are the maximum flight hours in 28 days, a calendar year, and 12 rolling months?
100 hours flight time in 28 consecutive days
900 hours flight time in any calendar year
1000 hours flight time in any 12 consecutive months
33
Does a positioning sector before an operating duty count towards FDP? What about afterwards?
Before yes it counts, afterwards it doesn't
34
How does a split duty work?
Minimum 3 hours break in "split"
Over 6 hours requires accommodation
Max FDP can be increased by 50% of break
OMA 7.1.8
35
What is the BALPA guideline on maximum awake time?
18 hours
36
When is max FDP calculated from following a callout from standby?
If on standby less than 6 hours: max FDP calculated from report time
If on standby more than 6 hours: max FDP is reduced by the time on standby above 6 hours
OMA 7.1.9.3
37
The Commander shall not commence a flight unless they are satisfied that...? (8 key points)
- Aircraft is airworthy
- MEL and CDL complied with
- Documents and forms are on board
- Ground facilities are available
- easyJet ops manuals can be complied with (fuel, oil, oxygen, MSAs, minima etc)
- Load is secure
- Weight means flight can be conducted above MFAs
- Any operational limitation can be complied with
OMA 8.1
38
What else can a Minimum Safe Altitude (MSA) be known as?
TAA: Terminal Arrival Altitude (for RNAV approaches)
39
What distance from the aerodrome reference point is the MSA valid?
25NM
40
How much clearance do Minimum Flight Altitudes (MFAs) provide on the OFP?
1000ft clearance of terrain up to 5000ft
2000ft clearance of terrain above 5000ft
MFAs are based on route MORA, and are valid within 20NM of the route centreline.
Minimum is 2000ft.
41
What is the minimum grid altitude (MGA) and what clearance does it provide?
Lowest safe altitude to be flown off track
1000ft clearance for terrain up to 6000ft
2000ft clearance for terrain above 6000ft
Minimum is 2000ft.
42
When are temperature corrections required?
When surface temperature is -10 degC or below
OMA 8.1.1.3.1
43
What are the easyJet requirements for an approved aerodrome?
- Runway length and characteristics meet performance for takeoff and landing
- Pavement strength is compatible with weight
- Suitable approaches, ATS, communications, weather reporting and navaids are available
- RFFS
In addition, when necessary;
- Landing permissions obtained
- Flight crew have qualifications required
- Aerodrome has the correct ramp facilities
- Police, custom, immigration services available
OMA 8.1.2.1
44
What is the minimum RFFS category for departure/destination for each aircraft type? Can this be reduced and when?
A319/320 RFFS 6
A321 RFFS 7
Both can be reduced by 2 (to 4 and 5 respectively) in case of a temporary downgrade of less than 72 hours
For alternates: non-UK 4 and UK 5
45
Can easyJet operate to isolated aerodromes? What is the procedure?
No we can't
(It requires the alternate and final reserve fuel to be enough for 2 hours at cruise consumption above destination - around 4000kgs)
46
When is an aerodrome suitable?
Adequate for operation and met. conditions satisfy planning minima
47
Within what time frame must destination and alternate weather be above planning minima?
+/- 1 hour of ETA
48
For planning, does the cloud ceiling need to be taken into account?
No, only for non-precision and circling approaches
OMA 8.1.2.2.2.1
49
If weather minima is given in RVR at an aerodrome, does this need to be taken into account at the planning stage?
Yes, the forecast met vis should be at or above the RVR required. However, conversion (CMV) should not be used.
OMA 8.1.2.2.2.1
50
What is the maximum distance required for a takeoff alternate? What is this based on?
320NM
Based on one hour still air time at the one engine inoperative cruise speed in ISA at the actual takeoff weight (distance of 320NM from OMB assumes MTOW)
51
What is the maximum distance from an adequate aerodrome for twin engine aeroplanes without ETOPS?
A319 380NM
A320 400NM
(A321 400NM)
Based on one hour at the one engine inoperative cruise speed
52
When are two alternates required?
- Destination weather below minima
- No met. info. available
- Landing performance cannot be assured
- Night ban?
53
For alternate planning, what minima is required for the different types of approaches?
CAT I RVR for LTS CAT I, OTS CAT II, CAT II, CAT III
NPA VIS, MDH for CAT I
NPA VIS + 1000m, MDH + 200ft for NPA
Circling for circling
OMA 8.1.2.2.2.4
54
When is an alternate not required?
Flight less than 6 hours
Two runways (independent - incase one closes)
Independent nav-aids for each runway
Weather within +/- 1 hour ETA has a ceiling of 2000ft (or circling minima+500ft) and visibility of 5km
55
Do gusts need to be considered in TAFs?
No, but mean wind should be within limits
OMA 8.1.2.4 (table)
56
What is the approach category for our aircraft?
C
Calculated from a Vat of 121-140kts
57
What is the minimum RVR for take off? Can you use a certain number of centreline lights?
125m (400m for FO)
| 6 consecutive lights (90m) from cockpit
58
What are the minimum DH and RVR for each type of approach? (In low vis ops bank in more detail)
```
CAT I: 200ft/550m
CAT I LTS: 200ft/400m/450m
CAT II: 100ft/300m
CAT II OTS: 100ft/350m
CAT IIIA: <100ft/200m (50' RA in box)
CAT IIIB: <50ft/75m
```
OMA 8.1.3.3.1
59
When are multiple RVRs required?
For all CAT II and III approaches (not CAT I or CAT I LTS)
60
What is required midpoint RVR usually and how can it be reduced?
125m, reduces to 75m with rollout guidance
61
When are the restrictions on when you can use CMV (Conversion of reported Met. Vis.)?
Not for takeoff
Not for RVR <800m
Not for planning
62
What are the minima for a visual approach?
```
2500ft ceiling (BKN/OVC)
5000m visibililty
```
63
What is the easyJet fuel policy?
Adequate block fuel to cover taxi, trip, contingency, alternate, final reserve. Carry the minimum fuel necessary for safe and efficient flight. Only take extra fuel for which there is a strong possibility it will be used (costs 3%/hour to carry)
OMA 8.1.7.1
64
Which “elements” of the flight do we carry fuel for? They are listed on the front of the OFP
- Taxi
- Trip
- Contingency
- Alternate
- Final reserve
- Additional
- Extra
65
What is the minimum contingency fuel required with and without statistical contingency fuel (SCF)?
With SCF: CONT95% or 5 mins (99% on some pairs)
Without SCF: 5% of trip or 5 mins
(5 mins is at 1500ft above destination, not above alternate like final reserve)
66
What can contingency fuel be reduced to if you have SCF?
It can be reduced to the greater of CONT90 and 5 mins above destination aerodrome at 1500ft
67
What are the minimum values of contingency fuel that must be carried for each type?
A319 190kg
A320 204kg
A320NEO 170kg
A321 200kg
OMA 8.1.7.6.4
68
What can contingency fuel be reduced to if you do not have SCF?
It can be reduced to the greater of 3% of trip fuel and 5 mins above destination aerodrome at 1500ft
69
How is alternate fuel calculated?
Fuel required from missed approach point (MDA/DH) at destination to landing at the alternate. Includes completing the full missed approach procedure and the expected arrival.
70
How is final reserve fuel calculated?
30 minutes at holding speed 1500ft above alternate
71
When is extra fuel required?
A "strong possibility" exists that it is required
Penalty to carry extra is 3% per hour
OMA 8.1.7.5.9
72
Where must a fuel enroute aerodrome be located?
(Recently shown on OFP above alternate on front page)
Aerodrome must be within 20% of the trip distance from a point centred 75% of the way into the trip distance
73
When can you dispatch with no alternate?
When the destination meets the requirements on OMA 8.1.2.2.2.4 and the additional fuel is not less than that required to fly for 15 minutes at 1500ft above aerodrome.
74
What standards weights are used for:
- Flight crew?
- Cabin crew?
- Dogs?
- Cellos?
- Flight crew 85kg
- Cabin crew 75kg
- Dogs 35kg
- Cellos 10kg
(Useful to know 4x cabin crew is 300kg, on positioning flights with no crew the DOW is usually 300kg less than what the OFP states...)
75
Does the captain have authority to defer a defect?
Yes, follow MOC guidance
76
Which original certificates must be carried onboard?
Certificate of Airworthiness
Airworthiness Review
Certificate of Registration
77
What colours are the deicing fluids?
Type I - clear/orange
Type II - straw
Type IV - green
78
Between which flight levels does RVSM apply?
FL290 to FL410
79
What the minimum required accuracies for PBN enroute, in the terminal area, and on final approach?
Enroute: RNAV 5, 5.0NM
Terminal: RNAV 1 or RNP 1, 1.0NM
Final: RNP APP, 0.3NM
OMA 8.3.3.6
80
When would you make a "MINIMUM FUEL" call to ATC?
When any changes to your current plan could mean you land below final reserve
81
When would you make a "MAYDAY MAYDAY MAYDAY FUEL" call to ATC?
When you are already planning to land below final reserve
82
What should you do flying through lightning?
Turn up the lights
Check your comms still work
Record in tech log
83
What wake turbulence category are our aircraft?
```
Medium (ICAO)
Lower Medium (UK)
```
84
What separation is required behind a departure from the same intersection?
Behind A380? 3 minutes
Behind heavy? 2 minutes
Behind medium? 0 minutes
85
What separation is required behind a departure from a different intersection?
Behind A380? 4 minutes
Behind heavy? 3 minutes
Behind medium? 0 minutes
86
What separation is given to aircraft on final approach after
- A380
- Heavy
- 757
- Medium?
- A380 7NM
- Heavy 5NM
- 757 4NM
- Medium 3NM/2.5NM (minimum radar separation)
87
What is the approach ban?
1000ft - cannot continue past this point unless the RVR is above minima - consider delaying the approach
88
What defines "relevant" RVR?
The part of the runway needed to decelerate to around 60 knots
89
What visual elements are required for NPA?
Elements of the ALS
90
What visual elements are required for CAT I?
Elements of the ALS
91
What visual elements are required for CAT II and CAT II OTS?
3 consecutive lights and lateral
92
What visual elements are required for CAT I LTS?
3 consecutive lights and lateral
93
What visual elements are required for CAT IIIA?
3 consecutive lights
94
What visual elements are required for CAT IIIB?
With DH - 1 light
| NO DH - 0 lights
95
What is the minimum time required for the flight deck oxygen to supply the pilots? What about at 100%?
2 hours (or 30 minutes at 100%)
OMA 8.8.2.1
96
What is the minimum time required for oxygen to supply the cabin crew?
30 minutes
97
What is the minimum time required for oxygen to supply the passengers?
Different limitations depending on altitude, but 10% of passengers must have oxygen for the entire time above 10000ft
98
For OTP, when should you plan to be at the aircraft?
STD-35
99
For OTP, when should green light boarding begin?
STD-25
100
What is the maximum you should leave the stand early with passengers?
STD-10
101
What is the maximum you should arrive compared to STA?
No more than 15 minutes early
102
When should doors be closed for an on time departure?
STD-3
103
What should you do if there is no crew food loaded?
Don't delay the flight - commander can authorise food to be taken from the bar for the crew
104
On the loading form for wheelchairs, what is it for and which box always get forgotten?
To show wheelchair loaded correctly and battery disconnected and isolated as required. Small box on bottom left of form always left unticked - needs to be!
OMA 9.1.5.2
105
What are some key thoughts if you receive a red bomb threat?
- Disembark all passengers
- Slides only in extreme cases
- QRH checklist
- Least risk bomb location
106
What happens in the event of an amber bomb threat?
Speak to the Network Duty Manager and he/she will assess the risk as red or green
107
What are the implications of a green threat?
No action - continue normal ops
108
Describe what happens during an in-flight bomb search (in the flightdeck and in the cabin)
1 pilot flys, 1 pilot searches flight deck
Cabin crew conduct aircraft security search in accordance with OMA 10.2.5
Passengers identify all bags, open on laps, moving through systematically of front to back, aisle to window
Passengers moved from seats
If found, don't touch bomb! Consider moving to LRBL (2R)
OMA 10.1.8.7
109
Where is the least risk bomb location? What should you do if you have to place a suspect item near to it?
Door 2R
- Disarm it
- Don't change bomb attitude
- Cover with cabin bags
- Use tape to support if necessary
110
What is the hijack transponder code?
7500
111
What are the four levels of disruptive passenger?
Level 1: non-compliance, disorderly
Level 2: physically disruptive, damage, assault
Level 3: life-threatening, weapons, tries to open doors
Level 4: attempt on accessing flight deck door
112
What are the 3 aspects required to "positively ID" a customer?
Name
Passport/ID Number
Date of birth
113
What are your actions in the case of a laser attack?
- Don't look at the laser
- Consider automatics
- Try to note location of attack
- Inform ATC
- Use blinds and cockpit lights
- ASR
114
When is an aircraft security search required?
- Prior to all departures from UK, Jersey, Gibraltar, Isle of Man, Tel Aviv
- All cold aircraft
- Going to Tel Aviv
OMA 10.2.5.1
115
What are your actions on the ground following a divert regarding passenger and bag reconciliation/searches?
Diverted from UK? 3 row procedure
Diverted from elsewhere? Full search, if one gets off, everyone gets off
OMA 10.2.5.2
116
During an aircraft security search, where are some of the key areas that flight deck crew must check?
- Standby compass
- Under panels areas
- Vents
- All stowage areas (rope, torch, ground lock, toolkit, smoke hood, disks storage)
- Lifejackets
- Rain repellant
- Waste bin
- External power receptacle
- Cargo door panels
- Refuel panel
And many more! OMA 10.2.5.4
117
Where are additional security measures used and what are they?
Turkey, Isreal, Morocco, Egypt, Jordan (May 2019)
- Additional screening of bags and passengers
- Protection of aircraft
- Protection of screened bags
- Selection of passengers for additional searches
118
Are guns allowed onboard?
Yes - but rarely and with strict rules about who and how. Usually locked away and unloaded in the hold.
OMA 10.4.2.1
119
Is filming allowed on board?
Yes - but not of security processes, such as check-in, baggage reconciliation, cabin crew safety demonstration, flight deck door
120
What is OMA Section 0?
Administration and Control of Ops Manuals
121
What is OMA Section 1?
Organisation and Responsibilites
122
What is OMA Section 2?
Operational Control and Supervision
123
What is OMA Section 3?
Management System
124
What is OMA Section 4?
Crew Composition
125
What is OMA Section 5?
Qualification Requirements
126
What is OMA Section 6?
Crew Health Precautions
127
What is OMA Section 7?
Flight Time Limitations (FTL)
128
What is OMA Section 8?
Operating Procedures
129
What is OMA Section 9?
Dangerous Goods and Weapons
130
What is OMA Section 10?
Aviation Security
131
What is OMA Section 11?
Handling, Notifying and Reporting Accidents, Incidents and Occurrences and Using the CVR
132
What is OMA Section 12?
The Rules of the Air
133
What is OMA Section 13?
Leasing
134
How would you contact the Employee Assistance Programme?
By freephone: 0800 282193
135
What is a reportable occurence?
- Any event or defect endangering the aircraft, occupants, or other person
- Any defect or malfunctioning of any facility on the ground which if not corrected would endanger aircraft or its occupants
OMA 11.1.3.3
136
Who do you first contact to advise of a serious incident?
OCC (Duty Pilot)
137
Can you pull the CVR circuit breakers? Where are they?
Not normally, but after a serious incident - yes. This prevents them from overwriting the incident. It only records the last 2 hours of recording.
Located on overhead panel: E13 and E14 (check)
138
Where would you find the Rules of the Air?
OMA Section 12 refers you to the GEN Route Manual (Annex 2 - ICAO)
139
What type of aircraft leasing do easyJet use?
Wet and dry
OMA 13.2
140
What is the difference between Category A, B, B Restricted and C airfields?
A: Non-complex and routine
B: Complexity requiring specific briefing (e.g. audio visual brief)
B Restricted: Complexity and threat levels requiring specified restrictions
C: Special crew qualification required
OMA 8.1.2.5
141
Which category of airfields require self briefing?
Category B and B restricted
142
Which category of airfields require a visit as operating crew or simulator training?
Category C
143
What does TEMPO mean in a TAF?
Temporary fluctuations of less than 1 hour and in total less than half the period indicated
144
What is the difference between a fuel alternate and a commercial alternate?
Fuel alternate if diversion unlikely, commercial alternate if likelihood of diversion
OMB 5.2.8
145
You're in the hold, and have committed to your destination. When is the latest, fuel wise, you would leave the hold?
Using the FMGC, minimum fuel is enough to fly approach and still land with final reserve fuel (around 1T). You can use your alternate fuel if you have committed. You are now MINIMUM FUEL. Consider: fuel for another go without having to go MAYDAY.
OMA 8.3.8.2
146
Are VFR flights allowed?
No, except when authorised by the Duty Pilot
OMA 8.3.2
147
What types of radar do ATC use?
Primary Surveillance Radar (PSR): principal radar employed by ATC for control of the aircraft
Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR): to assist in aircraft identification and establish level/altitude of aircraft through the transponder
OMA 8.3.2.1.3
148
Who is the Director of Flight Operations (DFO) (interim)?
Daniele Grassini
149
What is the minimum age for children to travel alone (as an unaccompanied minor)?
Children under 16 cannot travel unless they are accompanied by an adult over the age of 16 who takes full responsibility for them
OMA 8.2.2.5
