OPM’s 400 Flashcards
(126 cards)
1
Q
Potentially infectious waste shall be properly disposed of at the _______ unless they refuse the waste.
A
Receiving emergency department that the patient is transported to
2
Q
All sharps must be disposed of in specially designed containers that must be?
A
-closable
-punctured resistant
-leak proof on sides and bottom
-labeled or color-coded containers for this purpose
3
Q
Strict adherence to infectious control practices/ policies is vital to the safety of the public as well as all members of the SFRD. The law mandates strict adherence, with fines as high as _______ per violation.
A
$10,000
4
Q
Firefighters donning SCBA shall ensure that their ____ has activated prior to entering an area where respiratory protection is required.
A
Personal alert safety system (PASS)
5
Q
Firefighters wearing SCBA shall conduct ______ prior to each use.
A
Seal check
6
Q
All firefighters shall continue to wear an SCBA until _____ determines, through monitoring or other means that respiratory protection is no longer required.
A
Officer in charge of
7
Q
The use of the airline respirator located in hazmat 92, TRT 92 or aerial apparatus shall only be used for?
A
-exterior firefighting operations
-confined space rescue
-trench rescue
- certain hazardous material incidents
* the airline respirator shall be worn in combination with an appropriate escape type SCBA*
8
Q
Firefighter wearing an SCBA shall be fully protected with the use of approved structural firefighting clothing that meets the requirement of NFPA ______.
A
NFPA 1971
Standards for firefighter
9
Q
In interior structural fires, fire department shall ensure that at least 2 firefighter enter the IDLH atmosphere and remain in ____ or ____ contact with one another at all times.
A
Visual or voice
10
Q
New recruits should be trained on SCBA in accordance to NFPA______.
A
NFPA 1404
11
Q
Each firefighter must pass a face piece fit test conducted ___ and or when a firefighter has experienced ____
A
Annually
Significant weight change, facial trauma, reconstructive surgery, major dental work and during initial training
12
Q
Any outward SCBA face piece leakage will ___ the rate of air consumption, reducing the time available for use and safe exit.
A
Increase
13
Q
SCBA cylinders shall be hydrostatically tested within the period specified by the manufacturer and applicable government agencies. The Scottish carbon fiber used by sunrise fire rescue must be tested every _____from the date of manufacturer or date of last hydrostatics test.
Escape cylinders are fiberglass and must be hydrostatically tested every _____.
Maximum service life for both is?
A
5 years
3 years
15 years
14
Q
All SCBA units shall be stored so that they are protected against?
A
-Direct sunlight
-Dust accumulation
-Severe temperature changes
-Excessive moisture
-Fumes
-Damaging chemicals
15
Q
Care is to be taken so that the means of SCBA storage does not distort or damage rubber or ______ components.
A
Elastomeric
16
Q
Breathing air in the SCBA cylinder shall meet the requirements of the compressed gas association with a minimum air quality of?
A
Grade D
17
Q
The purity of the air from the sunrise fire rescue department air compressor shall be checked by a competent laboratory when?
A
At least annually
18
Q
The most comfortable mask shall be donned and worn at least ______ to assess comfort.
A
5 minutes
19
Q
Assessment of comfort shall include reviewing the following points with the test subject and allowing the test subject adequate time to determine the comfort of the respirator/mask
A
-positioning of mask on nose
-room for eye protection
-room to talk
-positioning mask on face and cheeks
20
Q
During SCBA fit testing, the test conductor shall break both ends of a ventilation smoke tube containing____.
A
Stannic oxychloride or equivalent
21
Q
The pressure air pump to deliver air while SCBA testing is set at?
A
200 milliliters per minute
22
Q
The person conducting the SCBA fit testing, shall begin with the tube at least ____ from the face piece and gradually move to within 1 inch, moving around the whole perimeter of the mask.
A
12 inch
23
Q
A summary of all SCBA fit test results shall be maintained for a period of not less than ____ years
A
3 years
24
Q
It is the policy of sunrise fire rescue members to exit an IDLH environment prior to the activation of?
A
Low air alarm
25
Air pressure upon initial entry shall be at ____ or above recommended full pressure as stated by the manufacturer.
90% (4050 psi)
26
When the first member of any crew/group has their ____ % display activated (____ light flashing slowly) the officer shall give notification to the proper ICS functionary that their team is at ___% air supply
50%
Amber
50%
27
When air alarm is set off and the crew is exiting a structure, the RIT team shall track down the members remaining time in the IDLH area and notify command if the member has not exited within ___ of low air notification.
1 minute
28
Wednesday will be deemed “air fill day” and as such, all SCBA and spare cylinders will be filled to their maximum capacity of
_____ psi.
4500
29
All SCBA bottles must be filled slowly to prevent “hot filling”. All bottles should be filled at a rate of ____ to _____ per minute but not to exceed ______.
300 psi to 500 psi
Not to exceed 600 psi
30
The structural firefighting protective ensemble care and maintenance guidelines policy complies with NFPA?
1851
31
The selection of structural firefighting protective ensemble will comply with all applicable specifications of NFPA ?
1971
32
Advanced inspections of firefighter gear will be conducted at a minimum of every ____.
12 months
33
All bunker gear records will be kept on file for ____ months after the item has been retired, and then stored for a minimum of ____ years
12 months
5 years
34
Proper storage of personal protective equipment extends its life, maintains its performance and reduces potential health risks. Improper storage can result in damage to the ensemble and compromise the members safety. Certain conditions can result in deterioration of performance of the ensemble or create potential health hazard if stored improperly such as?
-Ultraviolet light
-Wet or moist PPE
-Extreme temperatures for prolonged periods of time
-Storage in contact with fluids
35
The definition of decontamination is?
-The removal of hazardous substances from employees bodies, clothing, equipment, tools and or sites to the extent necessary to prevent the occurrence of adverse health and/or environmental effects
-To make safe by eliminating or reducing poisonous or otherwise harmful substances, such as noxious chemicals or radioactive material
36
What are the 2 types of decon?
-Emergency/gross decon
-Technical/secondary decon
37
Personnel can greatly reduce the amount of exposure by performing a fire attack from the ____ position, when possible, and utilizing the reach of the hose stream
Upwind
38
What is the hot zone?
-Any area with high risk
-Any area within the immediate perimeter of any fire or product of combustion
39
What is the warm zone?
-The area between the hot and cold zone
-The area not in the immediate vicinity of any fire or products of combustion
-Gross decon and cleaning of the body shall be located in the warm zone
40
What is the cold zone?
-Any area without risk
-Any area outside of the hot and warm zone, ideally uphill and upwind
-Rehab shall be located in the cold zone
41
Generally, gross decon should be set up by ______ closest to the incident where products of combustion exist.
The first arriving suppression apparatus
42
The drop zone ( where ppe is left after an incident) should be located?
In the warm zone
Remote and downwind of rehab due to off-gassing ppe
43
Once released by command and prior to leaving the scene, it is recommended that all PPE be bagged at the scene using department approved bags that are at least ____ thick.
6 mil
1 thousand of an inch
0.001
44
Employees can use up to ___ free sessions under EAP
6
45
When does size up start?
As soon as you receive a call
46
What is the primary responsibility of police at the scene of a fire department emergency?
To secure traffic and control crowds
47
Some danger signs from people may be?
-Antagonism towards crowds
-Verbal abuse
-Lack of cooperation
-Anyone may be a potential threat or danger even as passive and cooperative as they may seem
48
When dealing with patients and others with an altered mental status as a result of alcohol/drugs or mental illness, we need to introduce ourselves as _______, and that we are there to assist them and ask what we can do to help.
Sunrise fire rescue firefighters/paramedics
49
Uniforms sometimes can be threatening to certain people. They may confuse us with the police. To prevent confusion about who we are, ______
Introduce yourself as soon as possible
50
Weapons come in what 2 types?
Common —- guns and knives
Makeshift —- anything that wasn’t designed to be a weapon but can be used as one
51
When spotting the apparatus, spot the vehicle?
100 feet past the residence or 100 feet before.
52
When at a residence, the contact person stands in what side of the door? And why?
Door knob side of the door
This will require the person to open the door wide to see you
53
When spotting the apparatus to approach a vehicle (accident or medical emergency), park where?
To the rear of the vehicle (a full length from vehicle)
Park at a slight angle to driver side
54
The fire rescue department recognizes the need for an incident safety officer position on multi unit and special operations incidents in accordance with the most current edition of NFPA ____.
1521
55
The incident safety officer must be ____ level or above with documents training from the training division as a minimum.
Company officer (Captain)
56
What are limited access roadways?
Any interstate highway, U.S highway, state route, or county road with limited access
57
It is the responsibility of the on scene coordinator/ IC to notify the necessary agencies needed to provide resources that will successfully mitigate the incident scene and restore normal traffic flow and conditions. These may include FDOT, FDEP, DERM, private contractors, towing companies or additional public safety agencies. What do those abbreviations stand for?
Florida department of transportation
Florida department of environmental protection
Department of environmental resource management
58
The first arriving public agency will serve as the ___ and advice other responding units of the situation
Incident commander
59
In a car or highway incident, Multiple engine companies are dispatched from different stations to provide for additional manpower and for scene safety. Once the initial engine company arrives in scene and establishes command the second responding engine company should ?
Continue into the scene to provide for traffic control and to be used as a shield from oncoming traffic. This crew should remain uncommitted to the scene and aware of oncoming traffic
60
To prevent a vehicle from colliding with personnel or equipment, the front wheel should be _____ from the incident scene.
Turned away
61
Once emergency activities are ceased on a limited access roadway incident, the commander shall begin to scale down the incident with the highest priority given to?
Restoring normal traffic flow
62
Whose responsibility is it to insure that when incident management is transferred to another agency, safety of those still working in the area is maintained.
The incident commander
63
Where should carbon monoxide monitors be worn?
On an SCBA strap or on the flap of the top pocket of the bunker coat
64
The CO monitor has___ alarms, which are? And will be activated when CO reaches a low of _____ and a high of ___.
3 alarms
Visual, audible and vibrating
Low 35 ppm and high 70 ppm
65
Low battery indication in a CO monitor is indicated by?
The icon and a single beep every 30 seconds
66
The operations division chief shall oversee a periodic function of the CO monitors every ____ months.
6 months
67
Florida statutes requires receiving emergency departments to notify EMS agency designated officers within____ hours of determining a patient transported from to their emergency department has an infectious disease.
48 hours
68
For an illness to occur from an exposure what 5 things need to be?
1. There must be blood or other body fluids containing the virus
2. An opening to the inner part of the body
3. A means of getting the virus inside that opening
4. A large enough amount of virus
5. A defense system that does not have immunity already built up
69
Action and injuries that indicate a significant exposure when body fluids meet in contact are?
- percutaneous injuries (through the skin)
- mucous membrane
- non intact skin (increased risk if within 2 hours of shaving skin and scabs < 24 hours)
70
For non significant exposure what document needs to be completed
Infections disease exposure report form
71
For significant exposure what documents need to be completed?
-infectious disease exposure report form
-first report of injury or illness
-supervisor accident /injury form
-employee incident (FD 30)
-sunrise EMS report
-workers comp report from employee
-RMS
72
Notification to ____ , ____, and _____ must be made to any incident involving an injury, significant exposure or illnesses.
Station officer
Battalion Chief
Duty Chief
73
If an employee is incapacitated or for whatever reason cannot sign workers comp paperwork, it is appropriate to write _____ on the line designated for the employee signature
Unavailable
74
If there is no injury or illness resulting from an accident and it is unlikely that future injury or illness will occur as a result of the incident, the only reports that are necessary are the?
1. Supervisor report accident/ injury
2. FD 30 (for staff follow up)
***If it’s a vehicle accident no injury***
— Vehicle incident report
— Vehicle work order
— Photos
75
If at vehicle checkout or at any time during shift vehicle damage is found and the cause is unknown
-Immediately report damage to the station officer and on duty battalion and determine if safe operations may continue
-Complete a city sunrise vehicle incident report
-Enter work order into the electronic work order entry portal
76
Advance inspection of gear will be conducted when?
At a minimum every 12 months or whenever routine inspection indicate a problem exist
77
Fire rescue department will have specified personnel whom work under the direction of the Division chief of support services whom will be considered manufactured trained per NFPA ____ to assist with inspections, along with advanced cleaning.
NFPA 1851
78
The purpose of cleaning the gear is to?
Remove substances that could affect the performance of ensembles or personal protective equipment and to remove substances that are potentially hazardous to the user
79
Personal protective equipment should be rinsed off with garden hose but _____ shall not be used
High velocity water jets shall not be used
80
If there is no temporary gear available for use, what guidelines will be used to have gear remain available for operational readiness until the end of current shift
1. Protective gloves and safety glasses should be worn
2. Pre-treat heavily soiled areas or spots either department approved product
3. Use warm water (if available) that does not exceed 40 degrees C (105 F)
4. Gently brush with soft bristle brush
5. Rinse thoroughly
6. Air dry by hanging or placing in the open (away from the sun)
7. Inspection for cleanliness
81
What does proper storage of personnel protective equipment do?
Extends its life
Maintains its performance
And reduces potential health risks
82
The retirement of structural personnel protective equipment will be overseen by?
The division chief of support services
83
The post fire gross decon procedure was formulated using recommended best practices from?
-Florida firefighters safety and health collaborative
-IAFF
-IAFC
-Firefighter cancer network
-Sylvester cancer institute UM
84
Contamination is?
The exposure to chemicals, radioactive or biological material on personnel or physical material
85
Contamination occurs when?
When a foreign substance gets on, or in, clothing, equipment or the body (via absorption, ingestion, inhalation, etc)
86
Personnel should be cognizant that an exposure to products of combustion does not require?
Visible smoke;
Inhalation and absorption of low doses, in the part per million (ppm) range or microscopic amounts, have a potential carcinogen
87
Why is a garden hose setup preferred for gross decon?
It will provide a flushing with sufficient flow but lower water pressure which better eliminates the possibility of embedding particulate / toxins further into fabric
88
Contamination high potential collection points are?
Neck, armpit and groin
89
Rinsing off debris and products of combustion shall be done in a systematic and thorough manner from _____ down
Collar-line down
90
Inspection of all personnel will be completed by the station commanders at each station during shift change. Items checked will include, but are not limited to,
Grooming and uniform compliance
All personal protective gear
Valid and current drivers license
EMT and paramedic certificate
CPR card
ACLS card
91
Quarterly inspections of all stations will be completed by the____
Fire chief and/or other designated staff personnel
The emphasis on these inspections will be on environmental and safety conditions, cleanliness of stations, and readiness and cleanliness of emergency vehicles
92
“Right to know” training is provided _____ for those personnel who use or come into contact with chemicals
Annually
93
Material safety data sheets (MSDS) assist in?
Identifying any hazardous chemicals that are used and/or stored in or around the work place.
The MSDS will be posted in an obvious location where employees are free to review them at any time
94
The initial phase of the pre-empt is?
The equipment satélite will “see” enabling them to predict the time to approach at an intersection, allowing emergency vehicles to pre-empt traffic signals
The radio transmitter communicates with the traffic signal boxes at each intersection.
95
What is the second phase of traffic pre-empt?
Emitters positioned in the bay at each fire station that “sees” each apparatus in the bay and sends the position of those apparatus overhead satellites via a re-radiating antenna placed on the station roof
96
In the vehicle control unit indicator of the pre-empt,
what is flashing green light?
What is flashing amber light in the GPS indicator?
What is flashing amber light in the radio indicator?
Vehicle is in disable mode
Not receiving GPS, radio not transmitting
No communication between radio/GPS unit & vehicle control unit
97
Once a unit has arrived on scene and the vehicle driver opens the driver door, what happens to the pre-emption system?
It disabled
This wiring scheme allows units to operate at motor vehicle accidents without continuing to pre-empt traffic while on scene
98
When leaving the scene to transport a patient or to return to service the vehicle driver simply “reactivates” the traffic pre-emption system by?
Pressing the on/off button on the control head twice
99
Incident safety officer is in accordance to NFPA ____
1521
100
______ should be the final authority on all recommendations and decisions made by the incident safety officer
The incident commander
101
The incident safety officer must be _____ level or above. With documented training from the training division as a minimum.
The training criteria should be determined by the fire chief
Company officer (Captain)
102
It is policy of sunrise fire rescue department to maintain a comprehensive safety and health program based upon?
-Sound engineering
-Education
And
-Training
103
The SCBA fitting test conductor shall advice the test subject that the smoke can be _____ to the eyes and instruct the subject to keep the eyes closed while the test is in progress
Irritating
104
The following criteria shall be used to help determine the adequacy of the respirator / mask fit
1. Chin properly placed
2. Strap tension
3. Fit across nose bridge
4. Distance from nose to chin
5. Tendency to slip
6. Self-observation
105
During respiratory fit testing motions have to be made when?
Made about every second
106
If at any time during the test, the subject detects the irritant smoke odor, the test has ?
The test has failed
107
The fit test shall not be conducted if there is any questionable _________ ?
Hair growth between the skin and the face piece sealing surface
108
The fit test summary should include at a minimum?
1. Name of test subject
2. Date of testing
3. Name of test conductor
4. Respirator selected
5. Testing agent
109
If a low air alarm activates in the IDLH environment, it calls for an immediate transmission to command specifying?
WHO you are
WHERE you are
WHAT status is
110
In situations of low visibility and with crews of 3 or more members, the member in low air alarm should be moved to _____ position from the front and remain in touch contact at all times
Second position from the front
111
Where do stations fill bottles on Wednesdays?
Station 39 & 72 go to 59
Station 83 goes to 92
112
The selection and repair of gear is done under NFPA
NFPA 1971
113
The driver operator shall ensure that the apparatus tank water or any water used in the decontamination process is from where?
From a clean municipal (hydrant) water source and is not from a stagnant or potentially contaminated water source
114
What is the drop zone during decon? And where shall it be located?
Where all PPE except for bunker pants and boots are left
Shall be located in the warm zone
Remote and downwind of rehab due to off-gassing PPE
115
What agency responds to county roads, state roads, and turnpike?
County roads: the appropriate agency
State roads: FHP
Turnpike: FHP
116
CO monitors should be turned on?
Daily and allowed to warm up and enter the gas reading mode
117
______ is the primary deterrent for transmitting infectious diseases
Hand washing
118
The department works in conjunction with who regarding issues of workers compensation and on the job injuries
- City’s third party administrators (TPA)
- Risk management department
119
For injury reporting, what documents need to be completed?
1. First report of injury
2. Employee workers compensation report
3. Patient care report
4. Supervisor report accident/injury
5. RMS with casualty section completed
7. FD30
Then call in report of injury to risk management
*** if vehicle accident ***
— vehicle incident report
— vehicle work order
— photos
120
For a chemical exposure (not treated) what reports need to be done?
1. First report of injury or illness
2. Supervisor report accident/injury
3. Chemical exposure report
4. RMS entry with casualty completed
121
For a chemical exposure treated what reports need to be completed?
1. First report of injury or illness
2. Supervisor report accident/ injury
3. Chemical exposure report
4. EMS report
5. RMS entry with casualty completed
6. Employee workers comp report
122
All work related and illness reports are returned in the _____ interoffice envelope.
“Special attention”
This red envelope is to be used for work related injuries only
123
Vehicle accidents no injury reporting procedure
1. Notify station officer & battalion
2. Police report from appropriate police department
3. Vehicle incident report
4. Enter work order
5. Supervisor investigation report
6. Unit taken to garage (if possible)
7. Contact risk management
8. Battalion submit report to administrative officer
124
Vehicle accident with injury reporting procedure
1. Follow medical protocol
2. Notify station officer, battalion, on duty chief, fire chief
3. Appropriate police department paperwork
4. Vehicle incident report
5. Unit taken to garage (if possible)
6. Workers compensation report
7. Notify risk management
8. Battalion insure all paperwork sent to administrative officer
125
Examples of when you should monitor your air
Approximately every 5 mins
10 min CAD notification from dispatch
Change of work area
Passing a major landmark
Completion of assignment
As situation dictate
126
Personal protective equipment that is removed from service because it is no longer suitable for primary personal protection will be
Destroyed or marked and allocated to non live fire training dependent reason for retirement
