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Flashcards in Order of Draw Deck (180)
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1

Blood Cultures additive

nutrient broth

2

Light blue tube additive

sodium citrate

3

red tube additive

none

4

gold/tiger tube additive

silica/thixotropic gel

5

mint green tube additive

lithium heparin

6

dark green tube additive

sodium heparin

7

lavender tube additive

EDTA

8

Royal Blue tube additive

EDTA

9

Pink tube additive

K-EDTA

10

Grey tub additive

sodium fluoride, potassium oxalate

11

which tube must be filled completely and must have a discard tube?

light blue

12

what are the two options for discard tubes?

red tube or royal blue tube with a red stripe

13

the light blue top tube yields serum or plasma?

plasma

14

sodium citrate is a liquid additive that requires specific blood to additive ratio of ___ blood to ___ additive.

9 parts blood
1 part additive

15

the light blue top must be filled ____ to avoid an inadequate ratio of additive to blood.

completely

16

The light blue top tube must be inverted how many times?

3-4

17

name three common tests for the light blue top

Prothrombin Time (PT)
Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT)
Activated Partial Thromboplastin time (APTT)

18

Red tube top yields serum or plasma?

serum

19

Who is responsible for red tube top specimen testing?

chemistry

20

What 2 tubes can be used for a serum pregnancy test?

red or tiger

21

tiger, speckled or gold tube top yields serum or plasma?

serum

22

Who is responsible for tiger, speckled or gold tube top specimen testing?

chemistry

23

What test can a red top be used for? (4)

serum pregnancy test
cold agglutinins
digoxin
ethanol

24

What does SST stand for and which tube is it associated with?

Serum Separation Tube
Gold/tiger top

25

List 5 other names for the tiger top.

gold top
speckled tube
marble top
red/gray speckled top
gel

26

____ tube additive found in tiger top tubes promotes rapid clot formation of the blood.

silica

27

how many times should a tiger top be inverted?

8

28

What does PST stand for and what tube is it associated with?

Plasma separation tube
Mint Green

29

Name 3 common tests associated with the tiger top tube.

Basic Metabolic Panel (BMP)
Complete/comprehensive metabolic panel/profile (CMP)
Serum (Pregnancy Test)

30

____ evaluates the extrinsic system of the coagulation cascade. Therapeutic Drug Monitoring requites this test to be drawn when a patient is on a Coumadin regimen.

What tube is it associated with?

Prothrombin time (PT)
Light Blue

31

____ evaluates the intrinsic system of the coagulation cascade. Therapeutic Drug Monitoring requires this test to be drawn when a patient is on a Heparin regimen.

What tube is it associated with?

Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT)
Light Blue

32

This group of tests provide general information about the patients' metabolism, kidney function, electrolytes and fluid balance.

What tube is it associated with?

Basic Metabolic Panel (BMP)
tiger top

33

This test is similar to a BMP, it is a more comprehensive look at the patients' metabolism of chemicals in the body, kidney function, electrolytes and fluid balance. It also provides information about liver function and performance.

What tube is it associated with?

Complete/comprehensive metabolic panel/profile (CMP)
tiger top

34

Name two common tests used with the Mint Green Tube top

STAT electrolytes "Lytes"
hCG (plasma) Pregnancy Test

35

Measurement of ____ is necessary for the diagnoses and treatment fo renal and endocrine conditions. Low _____ levels are associated with arrhythmia and tachycardia. High levels are associated with heart failure.

What tube is it associated with?

STAT electrolytes "Lytes"
mint green

36

What does hCG stand for?

Human Chorionic Gonadotropin

37

What test is associated with the Dark Green Tube Top?

Ammonia

38

A high volume of ____ in the blood is an indication that the liver is not functioning properly. The liver is responsible for converting ____ into urea to be expelled from the body.

Ammonia

39

What laboratory is responsible for lavender or dark purple tube tops?

Hematology

40

How much must the lavender tube be filled?

2/3
completely for ESR

41

Name 3 tests associated with the lavender tube

Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate (ESR)
Sickle Cell Screening
Complete blood count (CBC)

42

How full should the Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate (ESR) test tube be filled? What color is it?

completely
lavender

43

True or false: the CBC can be tested using blood from a dermal puncture.

TRUE

44

Why should a CBC never be centrifuged?

It can cause hemolysis

45

Who is responsible for testing the pink tube top?

blood bank

46

Name two tests associated with the pink tube top.

type and screen ratio
cross match

47

This test provides a basic understanding of patients' blood type. It screens for antibodies present in plasma and serum. It also determines the patients' blood type and categorizes it into the one of the 4 blood types.

What color tube?

Type Screen Ratio (TSR)
pink

48

This test is required prior to blood transfusion. It is used to determine if donor blood is a compatible match for the recipient.

What color tube?

Cross match
pink

49

what is the preservative that prevents the breakdown of sugar? What tube is it in?

sodium fluoride
gray tube

50

How long will sodium fluoride preserve the integrity of glucose in the sample?

3 days

51

_____ and ____ are anticoagulants that prevents clotting by binding to calcium in the sample. In which tubes are the found?

potassium oxalate
gray

or

EDTA - lavender/RB

52

How many times do you invert a gray tube top?

8

53

What are the 3 common tests associated with the gray tube top?

oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT)
Lactic Acid
Alcohol

54

_____ is used to test hyperglycemia and diagnose diabetes mellitus. What color tube is used?

3-hour OGTT
gray

55

_____ is used to evaluate hypoglycemia for disorders of carbohydrate metabolism? What color tube is used?

5-hour OGTT
gray

56

when performing a 3 hour glucose test how many blood draws will you do? What color tube?

4 draws
gray tube

57

Abnormal _______ results are an indication that the body is not receiving proper oxygenation. What color tube?

lactic acid
gray tube

58

Should a lactic acid test be done with or without stasis?

without stasis

59

what 2 tubes can be used for ethanol levels?

red or gray

60

what should not be used to clean a site when doing an ethanol test.

do not clean the site with alcohol

61

What two common tests are done in with a royal blue tube and what lab is responsible?

lead (pb) poisoning, heavy metal
toxicology

62

When is the royal blue tube with the blue stripe drawn?

after lavender/purple

63

true or false. all royal blue tubes are the same

false: red stripe has no additive, royal blue has EDTA

64

Which panel/profile do the following belong to?
albumin, alkaline phosphatase, SGPT, SGOT, BUN, creatinine, glucose, potassium, sodium, total bilirubin, total protein, A/G ratio, BUN/creatinine ratio, calcium, CO2, Chloride

What tube is this test associated with?

comprehensive metabolic panel - CMP
tiger top

65

Which panel/profile do the following belong to?
glucose, BUN, creatinine, BUN/creatinine ratio, sodium, potassium, CO2, chloride, Calcium

What tube is this panel associated with?

basic metabolic panel -BMP
tiger top

66

Which panel/profile do the following belong to?
cholesterol, triglycerides, HDL, LDL, VLDL

lipid panel

according to LabCorp website: Gel-barrier transport, green-top (heparin) tube, or lavender-top (EDTA) tube

67

To which panel/profile do the following belong?
albumin, total bilirubin, direct bilirubin, alkaline phosphatase, AST (SGOT), ALT (SGPT), total protein

hepatic function panel (liver)

according to LabCorp:
Red-top tube, gel-barrier tube, or green-top (heparin) tube

68

Which panel/profile do the following belong to?
albumin, calcium, carbon dioxide, chloride, creatinine, glucose, phosphorus, potassium, sodium, BUN

renal function panel (kidney)

69

what state should a patient be in for a lipid panel?

fasting

70

this is the largest and most automated section of the laboratory

chemistry

71

This section is responsible for the detection of pathogenic microorganisms in patient samples and for hospital infection control.

microbiology

72

microorganisms that caused disease are ____

pathogenic

73

this type of test is done on the urine to detect disorders and infection of the kidney, urinary tract, metabolic disorders and drug abuse.

urinalysis

74

if a physician suspects drug abuse a ___ sample should be collected.

urine

75

when collecting a 24 hour urine sample the patient should be voiding in a ____ml or ___ liter graduated collection cylinder.

2,000ml
2 liter

76

when a sample has been mishandled or stored incorrectly it will be necessary to ____ the sample

recollect

77

A ____ test looks for hidden (occult) blood in a sample.

stool guaiac test

78

____ is a substance from a plant that is used to coat the FOBT test cards.

guaiac

79

is sputum the same as saliva?

no

80

___ is a type of thick mucus that is produced by the lungs when they are diseased or damaged.

Sputum

81

mucous membranes line the respiratory tract and ____ helps protect this tract from infection.

Sputum

82

Sputum specimens are usually collected when?

3 consecutive mornings

83

what is the most common non-blood specimen in the clinical lab?

urine

84

_____ specimen is the most common form of a urine specimen because you can collect the random specimen anytime.

random specimen

85

what needs to be avoided for a 24 hour urine collection

bedpans, urinals and toilet paper

86

what happens with the first specimen in a 24 hour urine collection?

discard the first specimen

87

If the blood sample you are centrifuging has been allowed to clot (ie plain red top tube, tiger top tube) the fluid portion of the sample that you have centrifuged is called _____.

serum (no clotting agents remain)

88

If you centrifuge a tube that contains an anti-coagulant (blood has not been allowed to clot) you have _____.

plasma (plasma still contains the clotting agents)

89

The main thing you need to understand about centrifuging is making sure your sample is

balanced in the machine

90

How do you balance a centrifuge machine?

place a tube of equal size and with an equal volume of fluid (blood or water) directly opposite each other in the centrifuge racks.

91

True or false: urine sample are commonly centrifuged to separate the fluid from sediment.

TRUE
urine is centrifuged to separate the fluid from sediment (blood cells, skin cells, bacteria, yeast, and other contaminants)

92

What is the most important thing when creating a blood smear?

feathered edge.

93

when creating a blood smear, you draw a sample into what color tube?

lavender

94

What seals the end of the capillary tube so that it can be placed in a centrifuge?

crit-o-seal

95

How much should a capillary tube be filled?

2/3

96

True or false: you can over and under invert a tube

FALSE
You can under invert but not over invert

97

The following are examples of what?
1. inadequate specimen volume
2. inadequate inversion with anticoagulant
3. icteric (jaundice) specimen
4. Lipemic specimen
5. hemolyzed specimen

variables in specimen quality

98

What does a hemolyzed specimen look like?

serum/plasma having a pink or reddish tint, usually caused by the phlebotomist

99

Who usually causes a hemolyzed specimen?

the phlebotomist

100

What is a Lipemic specimen and what does it look like?

a high amount of lipids in the blood
serum/plasma will appear milky or white

101

What is a icteric (jaundice) specimen and what does it look like?

high amount of bilirubin in the blood, serum/plasma will look green/brownish in color

102

When should inversion begin?

as soon as the blood is drawn

103

How long does it take for for blood in the system to make a complete circulation in the body?

one minute

104

The average person weighting 155 pounds has approximately ___ liters of blood in their system.

5-7

105

name the three layers of the heart

endocardium, myocardium, epicardium

106

What is the inner endothelial layer lining of the heart?

endocardium

107

Which is the muscular middle layer of the heart? This portion is the contractile element of the heart.

myocardium

108

Which part of the heart is the fibrous outer layer of the heart. The coronary arteries which supply blood to the heart are found in this layer.

epicardium

109

What are the valves on the right side of the heart?

pulmonary valve
mitral valve
tricuspid valve
aortic valve

tricuspid valve
pulmonary valve

110

What are the valves on the left side of the heart?

pulmonary valve
mitral valve
tricuspid valve
aortic valve

mitral valve
aortic valve

111

What is another name for the mitral valve?

bicuspid valve

112

Where is the mitral valve located?

between the left atrium and left ventricle

113

The right atrium and right ventricle are directly connected by the ____.

tricuspid valve

114

The primary function of the urinary system is to

maintain the volume and composition of body fluids within normal limits.

115

the urinary system maintains an appropriate fluid volume by

regulating the amount of water that is excreted in the urine.

116

The _____ system contains the largest organ of the human body, the skin.

integumentary system

117

What are the blood vessels in the human body? (5)

arteries
arterioles
capillaries
venules
veins

118

_____ blood is a mixture of arterial and venous blood

arteries
arterioles
capillaries
venules
veins

capillaries

119

____ and _____ carry deoxygenated blood back to the heart

arteries
arterioles
capillaries
venules
veins

venules and veins

120

Formed elements include (3)

arteries
venules
leukocytes
thrombocytes
arterioles
erythrocytes
capillaries
veins

thrombocytes (platelets)
erythrocytes (red blood cells)
leukocytes (white blood cells)

121

another term for thrombocytes

platelets

122

_______ contains hemoglobin, the oxygen-carrying protein.

erythrocytes (red blood cells)

123

what is the average life of RBCs?

120 days

124

Another name for leukocytes

white blood cells

125

_____ function to provide infection protection to the body.

leukocytes (white blood cells)

126

What are the 5 types of white blood cells in the blood stream?

Neutrophils
Lymphocytes
Monocytes
Eosinophils
Basophils

(never let monkeys eat bananas)

127

Which white blood cell increases in the presence of a bacterial infection?

Basophils
Eosinophils
Lymphocytes
Monocytes
Neutrophils

Neutrophils

128

Which kind of white blood cell plays a role in immunity, and increases during a viral infection?

Basophils
Eosinophils
Lymphocytes
Monocytes
Neutrophils

Lymphocytes

129

This white blood cell is the largest white blood cell; their numbers increase in intracellular infections and tuberculosis.

Basophils
Eosinophils
Lymphocytes
Monocytes
Neutrophils

Monocytes

130

Which kind of white blood cell increases in allergies, skin and parasitic infection. An increased ____ count would be apparent during an allergic reaction.

Basophils
Eosinophils
Lymphocytes
Monocytes
Neutrophils

Eosinophils

131

This white blood cell accounts for 0-1% of WBCs in the blood. They carry histamine which is released during an allergic reaction. They never increase in number, only the amount of histamine being released increases in response to an allergic reaction.

Basophils
Eosinophils
Lymphocytes
Monocytes
Neutrophils

Basophils

132

____ is the liquid portion of anti-coagulated blood, it contains clotting factors.

plasma

133

____ is the liquid portion of coagulated blood, it does not contain clotting factors because they were used to make the blood clot.

serum

134

what does pH stand for?

potential of hydrogen or power of hydrogen

135

what does it mean if blood is agglutinated?

clumped

136

Which blood type is the universal doner?

O-

137

which blood type is the universal recipent?

AB+

138

What is a nosocomial infection

any infection contracted in a health care setting

139

What are 4 examples of a nosocomial infection?

MRSA
Staph
Pneumonia
flu

140

_____ is the specific way in which microorganisms travel from the reservoir to the susceptible host.

airborne transmission
contact transmission
droplet transmission
indirect contact transmission
mode of transmission
parenteral transmission
vector borne transmission
vehicle transmission

mode of transmission

141

___ occurs when a pathogen is transmitted directly from an infected individual to you, example skin to skin contact with infectious persons

airborne transmission
contact transmission
droplet transmission
indirect contact transmission
mode of transmission
parenteral transmission
vector borne transmission
vehicle transmission

contact transmission

142

This kind of transmission occurs when a fomite serves as a temporary reservoir for the infectious agent. This can include using a doorknob, faucet or public telephone, putting a contaminated pencil in your mouth.

airborne transmission
contact transmission
droplet transmission
indirect contact transmission
mode of transmission
parenteral transmission
vector borne transmission
vehicle transmission

indirect contact transmission

note: the book uses many of these examples for vehicle transmission, however it is incorrect.
Sources:
https://courses.lumenlearning.com/microbiology/chapter/modes-of-disease-transmission/

https://www.encyclopedia.com/education/encyclopedias-almanacs-transcripts-and-maps/common-vehicle-spread

143

____ is an inanimate object that carries disease

fomite

144

give an example of droplet transmission

sneezing and coughing

145

Tuberculosis, an intracellular infection contracted by infectious particles that remain suspended in the air is an example of what kind of mode of transmission?

airborne transmission
contact transmission
droplet transmission
indirect contact transmission
mode of transmission
parenteral transmission
vector borne transmission
vehicle transmission

airborne

146

Transmission through water, food, air, or the blood supply used by a transfusion are what kind of transmission?

airborne transmission
contact transmission
droplet transmission
indirect contact transmission
mode of transmission
parenteral transmission
vector borne transmission
vehicle transmission

vehicle transmission

(this is different than the book however the book is wrong)

147

This occurs when a pathogen is transmitted through an invertebrate such as an insect like malaria, lyme disease or dengue virus.

airborne transmission
contact transmission
droplet transmission
indirect contact transmission
mode of transmission
vector borne transmission
vehicle transmission

vector borne transmission

148

A disease or infection transmitted other than by mouth like needle-stick, open wound, hangnail, eyes, etc

airborne transmission
contact transmission
droplet transmission
indirect contact transmission
mode of transmission
parenteral transmission
vector borne transmission
vehicle transmission

parenteral

149

At what point do we aim to break the chain of transmission?

portal of entry

150

What is the easiest and most effective way to break the chain of transmission?

washing your hands

151

What are the most common kind of nosocomial infections?

Blood
Airborne
Respiratory
Contact

respiratory

152

name two diseases specifically addressed by the OSHA Blood-borne pahthogen standard

HIV and HBV

153

What is the most commonly occurring nosocomial infection for lab employees?

HBV

154

OSHA requires that all health care personnel exposed to blood and other bodily fluids must receive the vaccination series against ____

HBV
this must occur within 10 days of employment

155

Your employer is required by law to provide the HBV vaccination to you within ____ days of initial assignment to a position where occupational exposure exists.

10 days

156

Removing one or both gloves before draw is complete would be an example of a violation of OSHA's ____ pathogen standard.

blood-borne pathogen standard

157

_____ is responsible for the identification of various hazards present in the workplace and for the creation of rules and regulation to minimize exposure to such hazards.

OSHA

158

____ sensitivity can cause allergic reactions raging from simple dermatitis to anaphylaxis. You may also see raised, red blotches form on the skin.

latex

159

what do you do if you see raised, red blotches form on the skin after touching a patient with gloves or the tourniquet.

stop the blood-draw immediately and report the incident to your supervisor.

160

______ is an approach to infection control to treat all human blood and certain human body fluids as if they were known to be infectious for HIV, HBV and other blood-borne pathogens

Universal precautions

161

_____ are the minimum infection prevention practices that apply to all patient care, regardless of suspected or confirmed infection status of the patient, in any setting where health care is delivered.

Standard Precautions

162

The following are examples of what?

Hand hygiene.
Use of personal protective equipment (e.g., gloves, masks, eyewear).
Respiratory hygiene / cough etiquette.
Sharps safety (engineering and work practice controls).
Safe injection practices (i.e., aseptic technique for parenteral medications).
Sterile instruments and devices.
Clean and disinfected environmental surfaces.

Standard Precautions

163

In the NFPA diamond what does blue represent?

Flammability
Reactivity
Special
Health

health

164

In the NFPA diamond what does red represent?

Flammability
Reactivity
Special
Health

Flammability

165

In the NFPA diamond what does white represent?

Flammability
Reactivity
Special
Health

Special

166

In the NFPA diamond what does yellow represent?

Flammability
Reactivity
Special
Health

Reactivity

167

In the NFPA diamond ___ represents minimal hazard and ___ represents maximum hazard.

0, 4

168

In the NFPA diamond what does OX stand for?

oxidizer

169

In the NFPA diamond what does ACID stand for?

acid

170

In the NFPA diamond what does ALK stand for?

alkali

171

In the NFPA diamond what does COR stand for?

corrosive

172

RACE describes the steps for dealing with a fire. What does it stand for?

Rescue (patients and co-workers)
Alarm (sound the alarm and alert those around you)
Confine (confine a fire by closing the doors and windows)
Extinguish (use the nearest fire extinguisher to put out the fire)

173

PASS describes how to use a fire extinguisher to put out a fire. What does it stand for?

Pin (pull the pin)
Aim (aim at the fire)
Squeeze (squeeze the trigger)
Sweep the base of the fire

174

______ precautions are used when there is a possibility of contact with:

blood
body fluids
non-intact skin
mucous membranes

Standard Precautions

175

The second tier of precautions is to be used when the patient is known or suspected of being infected with a contagious disease, they may be referred to as _____. This includes contact isolation, airborne precautions, droplet precautions, reverse (protective) isolation.

isolation or precaution techniques
Transmission-based precautions

176

____ is designed to reduce the risk of transmission of microorganisms. Examples include: lice/scabies, RSV, diarrhea, herpes, impetigo

airborne precautions
contact isolation
droplet precautions
reverse or protective isolation

contact isolation

177

____ are designed to reduce the risk of airborne transmission of infectious agents. Examples: TB, measles, chickenpox, shingles, norovirus

airborne precautions
contact isolation
droplet precautions
reverse or protective isolation

airborne precautions

178

_____ precautions are designed to reduce the risk of _____ transmission of infectious agents. Examples: group A strep, Rubella, Pneumonic Plague, Mumps Influenza A and Pneumonia

airborne
contact
droplet
reverse

droplet precautions, droplet transmission

179

_____ is designed to keep susceptible patients isolated as not to infect them with a disease or infection we have or may be carrying from the outside, such as burn victims.

airborne precautions
contact isolation
droplet precautions
reverse or protective isolation

reverse or protective isolation

180

TB, measles, chickenpox, shingles, norovirus are contracted via _____ transmission

airborne transmission