ORPTH ADONS BNGN n MLGNTN NONODNTGNC TUM Flashcards
(75 cards)
1
Q
- Irritation fibroma will be the most favored provisional diagnosis
for a firm, smooth surfaced, pinkish nodule, occurring on
(a) Buccal mucosa along the bite line
(b) Vermilion border of lip
(c) Soft palate
(d) Ala of nose
A
(a) Irritation fibroma being a noninflammatory, fibrous
lesion, manifests as a firm, smooth surfaced, swelling. It
represents a reactive hyperplasia of tissues in response to
local irritation/trauma. The most common cause of irritation
intraorally is occlusal trauma.
2
Q
- The developmental lesion, histologically similar to giant cell
fibroma, occurring on lingual gingiva of mandibular canines is
called
(a) Procuspid papilla (b) Retromandibular papilla
(c) Retrocuspid papilla (d) Retrocuspid fibroma
A
(c) Retrocuspid papilla is a developmental lesion, microscopically
similar to giant cell fibroma. It occurs in children
and young adults and occurs almost exclusively on lingual
aspect of mandibular canines
3
Q
- Single/multiple folds of hyperplastic tissue in alveolar vestibule,
occurring in association with flange of an ill fitting denture is
most likely to be
(a) Inflammatory papillary hyperplasia
(b) Inflammatory fibrous hyperplasia
(c) Giant cell epulis
(d) Congenital epulis
A
(b) This lesion is a reactive lesion occurring in response to
irritation caused by the flanges of an ill-fitting complete/
partial denture. It typically manifests as single/multiple
folds of hyperplastic tissue in alveolar vestibule.
4
Q
- Fibroepithelial polyp is a flattened leaf-like pink lesion occurring
on
(a) Soft palate (b) Hard palate
(c) Gingiva (d) Labial mucosa
A
(b) Also called leaf-like denture fibroma, it occurs on the
hard palate beneath a maxillary denture. It manifests as a
flattened pink mass that is attached to the palate by a thin
stalk (peduncle).
5
Q
- All except ____ are common causes of inflammatory papillary
hyperplasia.
(a) Ill-fitting dentures
(b) Poor denture hygiene
(c) Wearing dentures for 24 hours
(d) Infection by herpes virus
A
(d) Also known as denture papillomatosis, this lesion also,
like inflammatory fibrous hyperplasia occurs in response
to factors like poor oral hygiene, ill-fitting dentures, etc. It
occurs most commonly beneath a denture base on the hard
palate.
6
Q
- Microscopically, one of the most common types of arrangements
of tumor cells in fibrous histiocytoma is _____ pattern.
(a) Storiform (b) Herringbone
(c) Ductal (d) Glandular
A
(a) Fibrous histiocytoma is a true neoplasm and exhibits both
fibroblastic and histiocytic differentiation. Characterized
microscopically by proliferation of spindle-shaped cells with
vesicular nuclei in short, interlacing fascicles, resembling
the whorled appearance of a straw mat (storiform).
7
Q
- The most common cause of pyogenic granuloma is
(a) Infection by pyogenic organisms
(b) Granulomatous infection
(c) Exaggerated tissue reaction to local irritation/trauma
(d) Infection by herpes virus
A
(c) Initially believed to be a pyogenic infection, it is now thought
to represent an exuberant tissue reaction to local irritation/
trauma
8
Q
- 75% of pyogenic granulomas occur on the
(a) Palate
(b) Tongue
(c) Gingiva
(d) Lip
A
(c) Gingival irritation and inflammation being the most
common causes, pyogenic granuloma occurs most
commonly on the gingivae. Other common intraoral sites
are lips, tongue and buccal mucosa
9
Q
- Which amongst the following lesions does not occur commonly
on the gingiva?
(a) Peripheral ossifying fibroma
(b) Pyogenic granuloma
(c) Peripheral giant cell granuloma
(d) Neurofibroma
A
(d) Pyogenic granuloma, peripheral ossifying fibroma and
peripheral giant cell granuloma are included under the
differential diagnosis of epulides (swelling occurring on
gingivae). Neurofibroma, however, occurs most commonly
on tongue and buccal mucosa
10
Q
- A gingival lesion which histologically shows trabeculae of osteoid
or droplets of basophilic cementum like material in a background
of fibrovascular connective tissue is suggestive of
(a) Central ossifying fibroma
(b) Juvenile ossifying fibroma
(c) Periapical cemental dysplasia
(d) Peripheral ossifying fibroma
A
(d) Although all other lesions show somewhat similar features
of presence of osteoid and/or cementum like material, all
of them occur centrally within the bone, while peripheral
ossifying fibroma, as the name suggests, occurs peripherally,
i.e. within soft tissue.
11
Q
- Intraoral lipomas occur most commonly on
(a) Gingiva
(b) Buccal mucosa
(c) Tongue
(d) Palate
A
(b) Lipomas occur most commonly in areas where there are
plenty of adipocytes, which will be more in buccal mucosa
compared to palate, gingiva or tongue
12
Q
- The most common histological variant of lipoma is
(a) Fibrolipoma
(b) Angiolipoma
(c) Myxoid lipoma
(d) Spindle cell lipoma
A
(a) This variant shows excessive fibrosis between the adipocytes
13
Q
- Damage to a nerve bundle is the most common cause of
(a) Solitary circumscribed neuroma
(b) Neurilemmoma
(c) Traumatic neuroma
(d) Neurofibroma
A
(c) It is not a true neoplasm but an exuberant attempt at repair
of a damaged nerve trunk.
14
Q
- Which amongst the following is the more common nerve tissue
tumor of head and neck region?
(a) Traumatic neuroma
(b) Schwannoma
(c) Neurofibroma
(d) Solitary circumscribed neuroma
A
(d) It represents a reactive lesion, with the etiology usually being
trauma. It shows a striking predilection for the face, especially
nose and cheeks.
15
Q
- Microscopic pattern of Antoni A type of tissue proliferation is
found in
(a) Neurilemmoma
(b) Neurofibroma
(c) Hodgkin’s disease
(d) Verrucous carcinoma
A
(a) Antoni type A tissue is made up of elongated/spindle shaped
cells with spindle-shaped/wavy nuclei which are aligned in
a characteristic palisading pattern, while the intercellular
fibers are arranged in parallel fashion between the rows of
nuclei.
16
Q
- _____________ is the most common location for occurrence of
neurilemmoma.
(a) Lip
(b) Tongue
(c) Palate
(d) Vestibule
A
(b) Although neurilemmoma shows a predilection for head and
neck region, tongue is the most common intraoral site, with
other locations being palate, floor of mouth, buccal mucosa
and gingiva
17
Q
- The most common peripheral nerve neoplasm is
(a) Neurofibroma
(b) Granular cell tumor
(c) Schwannoma
(d) Solitary circumscribed neuroma
A
(a) This common peripheral nerve neoplasm arises from a
mixture of cell types including Schwann cells and perineural
fibroblasts
18
Q
- The central, acellular, eosinophilic mass found in center of Antoni
A tissue of neurilemmoma is called
(a) Verrucous body
(b) Verruciform body
(c) Verocay body
(d) Basaloid body
A
(c) Verocay bodies are composed of reduplicated basement
membrane and cytoplasmic processes of the Schwann cells.
19
Q
- Ancient neurilemmoma are those tumors that show _______
changes.
(a) Degenerative
(b) Myxoid
(c) Squamous metaplasia
(d) Basaloid
A
(a) Degenerative changes within ancient neurilemmoma
consist of hemorrhage, hemosiderin deposit, fibrosis,
inflammation and nuclear atypia.
20
Q
- Neurofibroma arises from
(a) Perineural fibroblasts
(b) Schwann cells
(c) Mixture of (a) and (b)
(d) Fibroblasts
A
(c) Earlier believed to arise from Schwann cells, it is now
understood that it can arise from a mixture of cell types
including perineural fibroblasts
21
Q
- Neurofibroma can also be a component of
(a) von Willebrand’s disease
(b) von Recklinghausen’s disease
(c) van der Waals disease
(d) von Ebner’s disease
A
(b) Multiple lesions of neurofibromas occurring in a person
is referred to as neurofibromatosis/von Recklinghausen’s
disease. Unlike neurofibroma though, it is a hereditary
disease, inherited as an autosomal dominant trait
22
Q
- ______ cells are found in large numbers in neurofibroma, which
may be used as a diagnostic feature.
(a) Macrophages
(b) Neutrophils
(c) Lymphocytes
(d) Mast cell
A
(d) Neurofibroma is composed of interlacing bundles of
spindle-shaped cells with thin, wavy nuclei. These cells
are associated with delicate collagen bundles and myxoid matrix. Mast cells are numerous in the lesion and can be a
useful diagnostic featur
23
Q
- Lisch nodules and Crowe’s sign are components of
(a) Neurilemmoma
(b) Neurofibroma
(c) Neurofibrosarcoma
(d) Neurofibromatosis
A
(d) Axillary freckling (Crowe’s sign) and translucent brownish
pigmented spots on the iris (Lisch nodules) belong to a set
of 7 features. The diagnostic criteria of neurofibromatosis
are met if a patient has 2 or more of these 7 feature
24
Q
- The most common and serious complication of neurofibromatosis
is
(a) Pheochromocytoma
(b) Wilms tumor
(c) Malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor
(d) Leukemia
A
(c) Neurofibrosarcoma/malignant peripheral nerve sheath
neoplasm occurs in about 5 percent of cases of neurofibromatosis.
They occur most commonly on trunk and
extremities
25
25. Development of ________ occurs in 90% of cases of multiple
endocrine neoplasia Type 2B.
(a) Pheochromocytoma
(b) Medullary carcinoma of thyroid
(c) Wilms tumor
(d) Rhabdomyosarc
(b) This carcinoma arises from the parafollicular (C) cells
of thyroid gland which are responsible for secretion of
calcitonin. They are most often diagnosed in patients
between the ages of 18–25 and have a marked propensity
for metastasis.
26
26. A pigmented tumor occurring in the 1st year of life, arising from
neural crest and associated with high urinary levels of vanillyl
mandelic acid is highly suggestive of
(a) MEN type 2B
(b) Melanotic neuroectodermal tumor of infancy
(c) Gingival cyst of infancy
(d) von Recklinghausen’s disease
(b) This tumor always occurs in the first year of life and is
accepted to arise from neural crest cells. Most commonly
seen in anterior maxilla as a rapidly expanding blue/black
mass. High urinary levels of VMA are seen in most neural
crest tumors like pheochromocytoma, neuroblastoma,
etc.
27
27. Paraganglioma or carotid body tumors are derived from
(a) Ectoderm
(b) Neural plate
(c) Neural crest
(d) Mesoderm
(c) Paraganglia are specialized tissue of neural crest origin
that are associated with autonomic nerves and ganglia
throughout the body.
28
28. The epithelioid cells in paraganglioma are arranged in nests
called as
(a) Zellballen
(b) Abtrofung
(c) Alveoli
(d) Islands
(a) These nests consist primarily of chief cells, which show
central, vesicular nuclei and a granular, eosinophilic
cytoplasm.
29
29. The most common site of occurrence of granular cell tumor is
(a) Tongue
(b) Gingiva
(c) Palate
(d) Vestibule
(a) Uncommon benign, soft tissue tumor that shows a
predilection for oral cavity especially tongue. Earlier
believed to arise from skeletal muscles, now it is believed
to arise from Schwann cells.
30
30. In contrast to granular cell tumor, the overlying epithelium in
congenital epulis never shows
(a) Ulceration
(b) Pseudoepitheliomatous hyperplasia
(c) Atrophy
(d) Acanthosis
(b) This tumor appears as pink red, polypoid mass on alveolar
ridge of a newborn infant and is characterized histologically
by sheets of large, closely packed, polyhedral cells showing
fine, granular eosinophilic cytoplasm.
31
31. The principal difference between hemangioma and vascular
malformation is
(a) Pigmentation
(b) Rate of blood flow through lesion
(c) Endothelial cell proliferation
(d) Site of occurrence
(c) Apart from endothelial proliferation, hemangiomas also
show gradual involution after a rapid growth phase in early
infancy
32
32. _______ is the most common tumor of infancy.
(a) Melanotic neuroectodermal tumor of infancy
(b) Congenital epulis of newborn
(c) Gingival cyst of newborn
(d) Hemangioma
(d) Hemangiomas are not present at birth, but develop within
first month of life. They are the commonest tumors of
infancy affecting primarily the head and neck region.
33
33. The most common complication of hemangioma is _______
(a) Amblyopia
(b) Ulceration
(c) Airway obstruction
(d) Hemorrhage
(b) Ulceration may occur with or without secondary infection.
Although hemorrhage may be seen, there is usually no
significant blood loss
34
34. Port wine stain is a common component of __________________
syndrome.
(a) Osler Weber-Rendu (b) Kelly Paterson
(c) Sturge-Weber (d) Klinefelter
(c) It is a nonhereditary developmental condition manifested
by facial port-wine stain, leptomeningeal angiomas,
tramline-like calcification on skull radiographs and ocular
involvement like glaucoma and vascular malformations on
conjunctiva, choroid and retina.
35
35. Which special stain can be employed to diagnose hemangiopericytoma?
(a) PAS
(b) Alcian blue
(c) Masson trichrome
(d) Reticulin
(d) The reticulin stain is used to demonstrate the reticulin
network surrounding the blood vessels and individual
tumor cells.
36
36. The most probable diagnosis for multiple translucent vesicle like
lesions on the anterior 2/3rd of tongue, that appears enlarged
(macroglossia) could be
(a) Neurilemmoma
(b) Neurofibroma
(c) Lymphangioma
(d) Pemphigus vulgaris
(c) Lymphangiomas are benign, hamartomatous tumors
of lymph vessels. They are classified according to size
of lymph vessels as lymphangioma simplex, cavernous
lymphangioma and cystic lymphangioma
37
37. Lymphangiomas occur most frequently in _______ region.
(a) Head and neck
(b) Skin
(c) Lower extremities
(d) Abdomen
(a) About 50 percent to 75 percent of all cases occur in head
and neck region. About half of all lesions are noted at birth
and around 90 percent develop by 2 years of age.
38
39. Active endothelial cell proliferation is not seen in which of the
following lesions?
(a) Cavernous hemangioma
(b) Capillary hemangioma
(c) Port-wine stain
(d) Kaposi’s sarcoma
(c) Portwine stains/nevus flammeus represent vascular
malformations where there is no endothelial cell proliferation.
38
38. Which amongst the following tumors occurs almost exclusively
in males?
(a) Sjögren’s syndrome
(b) Hemangioma
(c) Nasopharyngeal angiofibroma
(d) Pyogenic granuloma
(c) It is a rare fibrovascular lesion that occurs only in the
nasopharynx and almost exclusively in males. It is believed
to be a vascular malformation rather than a true neoplasm.
39
40. Sturge-Weber syndrome/angiomatosis demonstrates port-wine
stain usually distributed unilaterally along the course of one or
more branches of ________ cranial nerve.
(a) VII
(b) V
(c) III
(d) VIII
(b) Sturge-Weber angiomatosis is a nonhereditary developmental
condition characterized by hamartomatous vascular
proliferation of brain and facial tissues. It is believed to
be caused by persistence of a vascular plexus around the
cephalic portion of the neural tube.
40
41. All except ____________ are histological types of leiomyoma.
(a) Alveolar
(b) Solid
(c) Vascular
(d) Epithelioid
(a) Leiomyomas are benign tumors of smooth muscle origin,
probably vascular smooth muscle. Solid, vascular and
epithelioid are its three types.
41
42. Oral leiomyomas are either solid or _______ in type.
(a) Epithelioid
(b) Vascular
(c) Alveolar
(d) Myxoid
(b) Oral leiomyoma manifests as slow growing firm mucosal
nodule. Most common sites are lips, tongue, palate, and
cheek.
42
43. Which stain is employed to stain the smooth muscles in
leiomyoma?
(a) Mallory
(b) Masson trichrome
(c) Van Gieson
(d) PAS
(b) Being a spindle cell lesion, special stains like Masson’s
trichrome may be required to demonstrate muscle fibers.
Smooth muscle fibers are stained bright red with Masson’s
trichrome stain.
43
44. The most common site of occurrence for rhabdomyosarcoma is
(a) Abdomen
(b) Lower extremity
(c) Head and neck
(d) Trunk
(c) Rhabdomyoma are benign tumors of skeletal muscle tissue
and show a striking predilection for head and neck region
44
45. The most common choristomas of oral cavity consist of
(a) Fibrous tissue
(b) Myxoid tissue
(c) Bone and/or cartilage
(d) Adipose
(c) Choristoma is a tumor-like growth of microscopically
normal tissue in an abnormal location.
45
46. The most common location for occurrence of choristomas
intraorally is
(a) Ventral surface of tongue
(b) Posterior tongue near foramen cecum
(c) Anterior 2/3rd of tongue
(d) Floor of mouth
(b) Choristomas show a striking predilection for the tongue,
which accounts for 85 percent of cases. The most common
location is the posterior tongue near the foramen cecum.
46
47. “Herringbone” pattern of proliferation of spindle-shaped cells is
typically seen in
(a) Fibrous histiocytoma
(b) Malignant fibrous histiocytoma
(c) Neurofibrosarcoma
(d) Fibrosarcoma
(d) Well-differentiated fibrosarcomas consist of fascicles of
spindle-shaped cells that classically form a “herringbone”
pattern.
47
48. The most common soft tissue sarcoma of adults is
(a) Malignant fibrous histiocytoma
(b) Neurofibrosarcoma
(c) Osteosarcoma
(d) Fibrosarcoma
(a) It is a malignant neoplasm displaying both fibroblastic as
well as histiocytic features
48
49. The most common of histopathological varieties of liposarcoma
is
(a) Round cell
(b) Well-differentiated
(c) Myxoid
(d) Pleomorphic
(c) This variety accounts for nearly 50 percent of all cases. They
demonstrate proliferating lipoblasts within a myxoid stroma
that contains a rich capillary network.
49
50. Malignant triton tumor is a variety of neurofibrosarcoma wherein
there is __ tissue differentiation.
(a) Smooth muscle
(b) Cartilage
(c) Glandular
(d) Skeletal muscle
(d) Apart from malignant atypical spindle cells, some tumors
can demonstrate heterologous elements which include
skeletal muscle differentiation, cartilage, bone or glandular
structures.
50
51. Vascular tumor with histological features intermediate between
hemangioma and angiosarcoma is called
(a) Hemangioendothelioma
(b) Hemangiopericytoma
(c) Kaposi’s sarcoma
(d) Ewing’s sarcoma
(a) Hemangioendothelioma demonstrates microscopic features
which are intermediate between those of hemangiomas
and angiosarcoma. Such tumors are considered to be of
intermediate malignancy
51
52. Kaposi’s sarcoma is now believed to be caused by
(a) Human papilloma virus 2
(b) Cytomegalovirus
(c) Human herpes virus 8
(d) Herpes simplex virus 2
(c) Kaposi’s sarcoma occurs most commonly in association
with AIDS. It is now believed to be caused by the human
herpesvirus 8, also called Kaposi’s sarcoma associated
herpesvirus.
52
53. All except _____ are a variety of Kaposi sarcoma.
(a) Pleomorphic
(b) Endemic African
(c) Classic
(d) AIDS related
(a) Four clinical presentations of Kaposi sarcoma are recognized:
classic, endemic African, iatrogenic immunosuppression
associated and AIDS related.
53
54. Which amongst the following endemic African type of Kaposi’s
sarcoma is seen primarily in children and young adults?
(a) Florid
(b) Lymphadenopathic
(c) Aggressive
(d) Benign nodular
(b) Occurs primarily in young black children and exhibits
generalized, rapidly growing tumors of the lymph
nodes, occasional visceral organ lesions, and sparse skin
involvement.
54
55. The most common soft tissue sarcoma of children is
(a) Leiomyosarcoma
(b) Fibrosarcoma
(c) Rhabdomyosarcoma
(d) Ewing’s sarcoma
(c) Rhabdomyosarcoma, a malignant neoplasm of skeletal
muscle origin is the most common soft tissue sarcoma of
children. The most frequent site is the head and neck, which
accounts for 40 percent of all cases.
55
56. Only one amongst the following is a round cell tumor. Identify it
(a) Fibrosarcoma
(b) Kaposi’s sarcoma
(c) Rhabdomyosarcoma
(d) Ewing’s sarcoma
(d) Ewing’s sarcoma is composed of small round cells with welldefined
nuclear outlines and ill-defined cellular borders.
55
57. Which amongst the following is not a round cell tumor?
(a) Ewing’s sarcoma
(b) Kaposi’s sarcoma
(c) Olfactory neuroblastoma
(d) Round cell liposarcoma
(b) Kaposi’s sarcoma is basically a vascular lesion which in
initial stages shows proliferation of miniature vessels, with
development of spindle cell population in later stages
56
58. Which one of the lesions given below is a congenital lesion?
(a) Embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma
(b) Port-wine stain
(c) Fetal rhabdomyosarcoma
(d) Angiosarcoma
(b) Port-wine stain is a form of vascular malformation which is
present at birth and persists throughout life
57
59. A hemangioma can be best classified as
(a) Hamartoma
(b) Choristoma
(c) Neoplasm
(d) Cyst
(a) Hamartoma is a tumor developmental malformation.
58
60. All are true neoplasms except
(a) Hemangioma
(b) Granular cell tumor
(c) Lymphangioma
(d) Sturge-Weber angiomatosis
(b) It is an uncommon soft tissue neoplasm that is currently
believed to originate from either Schwann cells or
neuroendocrine cells
59
61. Which virus is most commonly associated with squamous
papilloma?
(a) Human papilloma virus
(b) Human herpes virus
(c) Epstein-Barr virus
(d) Human immunodeficiency virus
(a) HPV 6 and HPV 11 viruses have consistently been
demonstrated in the lesions of oral squamous cell papilloma
60
62. The squamous papilloma is clinically and microscopically
indistinguishable from which other lesion occurring in skin?
(a) Verrucous carcinoma
(b) Verruca vulgaris
(c) Molluscum contagiosum
(d) Dyskeratosis congenita
(b) Squamous papilloma is the mucosal variant of the common
wart occurring on skin, called verruca vulgaris. They cannot
be clinically and histologically differentiated.
61
63. Multiple papilloma like lesions occurs in which one of the
following syndromes?
(a) Cowden
(b) Treacher Collins syndrome
(c) Rubinstein-Taybi syndrome
(d) Grinspan syndrome
(a) Cowden syndrome is an autosomal dominant disease
characterized by multiple papilloma like lesions, multiple
hamartomas and neoplasia of thyroid, GIT and CNS, etc.
62
64. Which one of the following benign lesions resembles squamous
cell carcinoma clinically and microscopically?
(a) Verruca vulgaris
(b) Keratoacanthoma
(c) Squamous acanthoma
(d) Leukoedema
(b) Keratoacanthoma is a low-grade malignancy originating
from the sebaceous glands and is considered to be variant
of invasive squamous cell carcinoma
63
66. Which amongst the following types of nevi shows the greatest
risk of developing into malignant melanoma?
(a) Intradermal nevus
(b) Compound
(c) Blue nevus
(d) Junctional nevus
(d) Microscopically, the junctional activity or proliferation and
lateral spread of nevus cells along the basal layer has been
known to be associated with a high risk of development of
malignant melanoma.
64
65. The nevus cells in junctional nevi are located in _____ layer of
epithelium.
(a) Stratum granulosum
(b) Stratum spinosum
(c) Stratum intermedium
(d) Stratum basale
(d) In junctional nevus, the nevus cells located within the basal
layer of epithelium proliferate, spread laterally along the
basal layer and then begin to cross the junction and spread
into the underlying connective tissue in groups and nests
65
68. The only lesion out of the following that can be diagnosed
histologically is
(a) Proliferative verrucous leukoplakia
(b) Leukoplakia
(c) Erythroplakia
(d) Verrucous hyperplasia
(d) Although verrucous hyperplasia (VH) and proliferative
verrucous leukoplakia (PVL) are clinically related, the term
PVL is clinical while the diagnosis of VH is always confirmed
histologically. VH is considered a forerunner to verrucous
carcinoma and once the diagnosis of VH is confirmed it is
treated as verrucous carcinoma
65
67. Spot the only premalignant lesion from the below given
conditions
(a) Oral submucous fibrosis
(b) Sideropenic dysphagia
(c) Leukoplakia
(d) Lichen planus
(c) A premalignant lesion is defined as a morphologically
altered tissue in which cancer is more likely to develop
than its normal counterpart. Leukoplakia, erythroplakia
and palatal changes associated with reverse smoking are
the examples of premalignant lesions.
66
69. Indicate the incorrect statement regarding microscopic
appearance of epithelial dysplasia
(a) Enlarged nucleoli
(b) Basilar hyperplasia
(c) Flattened rete ridges
(d) Individual cell keratinization
(c) Flattened rete ridges is a feature of atrophy of epithelium
which may or may not show dysplastic histological features,
while drop-shaped rete ridges is a feature of hyperplasia
occurring in basal layer which is a dysplastic feature.
67
70. Only one amongst the following is a developmental condition,
while others are premalignant lesions/conditions
(a) Leukoedema
(b) Leukoplakia
(c) Oral submucous fibrosis
(d) Erythroplakia
(a) Leukoedema is a benign lesion which occurs usually
bilaterally on the buccal mucosa. Since it resembles
leukoplakia closely, it must be differentiated from it. That
is easily done by stretching and everting the mucosa due to
which the lesion of leukoedema becomes indistinct while
leukoplakia does not. Also microscopically, leukoedema
presents with a markedly hyperplastic spongiotic layer
showing prominent intracellular edema.
68
71. Spot the only lesion from below given ones which presents as
bright red velvety patch
(a) Median rhomboid glossitis
(b) Oral submucous fibrosis
(c) Nicotina palati
(d) Keratoacanthoma
(a) Also called central papillary atrophy of tongue, this lesion
is now believed to be a candidal infection, manifesting as
a well-defined, oval, pink area on the center of tongue due
to absence of papillae
69
72. Rodent ulcer is another name of
(a) Verrucous carcinoma
(b) Basal cell carcinoma
(c) Squamous cell carcinoma
(d) Osteosarcoma
(b) Basal cell carcinoma is the most common malignancy
in humans caused by prolonged exposure to ultraviolet
radiation. It manifests clinically as a small ulcer with rolled
margins, it infiltrates to adjacent as well as deeper tissues
like bone, muscles, etc. thus its synonym.
70
73. The commonest malignant neoplasm of oral cavity is
(a) Basal cell carcinoma
(b) Verruca vulgaris
(c) Epidermoid carcinoma
(d) Malignant melanoma
(c) Epidermoid or squamous cell carcinoma is a malignant
neoplasm arising from the epithelium and its cause is
attributed to the use of tobacco in various forms, including
smokeless variety.
71
74. Which amongst the following is a common clinical presentation
of squamous cell carcinoma?
(a) Soft, fluctuant swelling
(b) Hard swelling with egg shell crackling
(c) Chronic, non-healing ulcer with indurated margins
(d) Multiple, vesicles and bullae
(c) The classical presentation of squamous cell carcinoma is
that of a chronic nonhealing ulcer with indurated margins,
although verrucous carcinoma as well as carcinoma of
buccal and alveolar mucosae may manifest as exophytic
growths
71
75. Lentigo maligna, acral lentiginous and mucosal lentiginous are
forms of which of the following neoplasm?
(a) Oral melanocytic nevus
(b) Adenosquamous carcinoma
(c) Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
(d) Malignant melanoma
(d) It is tumor of epidermal melanocytes and is associated with
factors like sun exposure, artificial ultraviolet radiation
exposure, fair, freckled skin, number of melanocytic nevi and
genetic factors like familial and xeroderma pigmentosum
