ORPTH ADONS DSE PRDNTM Flashcards

1
Q
  1. All except _____ are deposits found on tooth surfaces.
    (a) Acquired pellicle (b) Calculus
    (c) Plaque (d) Nasmyth’s membrane
A
  1. (d) Nasmyth’s membrane or primary enamel cuticle is a basal
    lamina like material secreted by postfunctional ameloblasts.
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2
Q
  1. Acquired pellicle is primarily composed of
    (a) Glycoproteins (b) Glycosaminoglycans
    (c) Collagen (d) Heparan sulfate
A
  1. (a) Acquired pellicle is seen on teeth which have not been
    cleansed for more than 24 hours. It is essentially a precipitate
    of salivary glycoproteins
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3
Q
  1. Odontolithiasis is better known as
    (a) Plaque (b) Calculus
    (c) Salivary calculi (d) Caries
A
  1. (b) Calculus or tartar is deposited as a soft greasy material
    which gradually hardens by deposition of mineral salts in
    the organic interstitial spaces, varying in color from yellow
    to dark brown or black.
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4
Q
  1. Which amongst the following correctly depicts the stages in
    formation of calculus?
    (a) Pellicle → Bacterial colonization → Plaque formation and
    mineralization.
    (b) Pellicle → Bacterial colonization → Degradation of
    carbohydrates.
    (c) Bacterial colonization → Degradation of carbohydrates →
    Enamel dissolution
    (d) Pellicle → Plaque maturation → Bacterial colonization →
    Calculus
A
  1. (a) Dental plaque is initially deposited as a pellicle on the
    uncleansed tooth surfaces over which there is bacterial
    colonization. The initial bacterial flora undergoes a change
    over time, which is referred to as plaque maturation, which
    is then followed by mineralization
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5
Q
  1. Maximum accumulation of calculus can be seen in which of the
    following regions?
    (a) Palatal surfaces of maxillary anterior teeth
    (b) Palatal surfaces of maxillary posterior teeth
    (c) Buccal surfaces of maxillary posterior teeth
    (d) Buccal surfaces of mandibular anterior teeth
A
  1. (c) Calculus always accumulates most on the surfaces of teeth
    opposing the orifices of major salivary gland ducts. Buccal
    surface of maxillary posterior teeth are facing the openings
    of Stensen’s duct and thus they will show maximum calculus
    deposition amongst the given options.
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6
Q
  1. The chief inorganic component in calculus is
    (a) Calcium carbonate (b) Hydroxyapatite
    (c) Calcium phosphate (d) Calcium sulfate
A
  1. (c) Calculus is composed of approximately 75 percent calcium
    phosphate, 15–25 percent organic material and water and
    the rest calcium carbonate and magnesium phosphate.
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7
Q
  1. The hardness of calculus is almost like that of
    (a) Cementum (b) Enamel
    (c) Bone (d) Dentin
A
  1. (a) Since calculus consists of calcium phosphate arranged in a
    hydroxyapatite crystal lattice structure and is similar to other
    hard tissues like cementum, dentin, bone and enamel, it must
    be removed with great care, otherwise the associated tissues,
    especially cementum may be damaged.
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8
Q
  1. Which types of bacteria predominate in the organic matrix of
    calculus?
    (a) Gram-negative cocci (b) Gram-positive filamentous
    (c) Gram-positive bacilli (d) Gram-negative bacilli
A
  1. (b) Current evidence indicates that early plaque is composed
    of Gram-positive cocci and as the plaque ages, fusobacteria
    and filamentous organisms predominate.
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9
Q
  1. All except _________ are principal causes of halitosis.
    (a) Unclean prostheses (b) Taurodontism
    (c) Sweet odor of diabetes (d) Respiratory tract infection
A
  1. (b) Halitosis or oral malodor is one of the most common reasons
    for which a person seeks dental aid. It may be transient or
    persistent. The most common causes for persistent halitosis
    are food retention in or on the teeth, unclean prostheses,
    dental caries, chronic periodontal disease and dry socket,
    etc.
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10
Q
  1. What is the causative factor of plasma cell gingivitis?
    (a) Allergy to a component of chewing gum, dentifrices or food
    component
    (b) Allergy to antibiotics
    (c) Infection by filamentous bacteria
    (d) Infection by herpes zoster virus
A
  1. (a) This distinctive form of gingivitis manifests as mild marginal
    gingival enlargement and later on may extend to involve the
    attached gingiva also.
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10
Q
  1. Which amongst the following drugs are capable of inducing
    gingivitis either directly or systemically?
    (a) Acyclovir (b) Dilantin
    (c) Diclofenac (d) Ampicillin
A
  1. (b) Gingival enlargement can many times occur as a result of
    use of anticonvulsants, immune suppressants and calcium
    channel blockers.
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11
Q
  1. Acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis is on the rise globally in
    association with
    (a) Tuberculosis (b) Hepatitis B
    (c) AIDS (d) Diabete
A
  1. (c) HIV positive persons suffer from a severe form of ANUG as
    their immune function deteriorates and this progresses to
    HIV associated periodontitis.
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11
Q
  1. During the course of gingivitis if bony changes become evident
    on a radiograph, the condition is then referred to as
    (a) Acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
    (b) Periodontitis
    (c) Plasma cell gingivitis
    (d) Desquamative gingivitis
A
  1. (b) Periodontitis is defined as inflammatory disease of
    supporting structures of teeth, caused by specific microorganisms
    resulting in progressive destruction of periodontal
    ligaments and alveolar bone with pocket formation and/
    or gingival recession. Thus it encompasses
    a spectrum of
    manifestations of which gingivitis is the forerunner, followed
    by periodontitis.
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12
Q
  1. ANUG is now believed to be caused by a fusiform bacteria and
    (a) Actinomyces israelii (b) Actinomyces naeslundii
    (c) Treponema pallidum (d) Borrelia vincentii
A
  1. (d) ANUG is an endogenous, polymicrobial infection with
    principal agents being a fusiform bacillus and Borrelia
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13
Q
  1. Which is considered to be one of the most important predisposing
    factors in the causation of ANUG?
    (a) Allergy to drugs
    (b) Decreased resistance to infections
    (c) Hormonal changes
    (d) Malnutrition
A
  1. (b) Amongst other predisposing factors like stress,
    immunosuppression, smoking, upper respiratory tract
    infection, local trauma and poor oral hygiene, decreased
    resistance to infections is considered to be the most
    significant.
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14
Q
  1. All, of the following except _______ are potentially serious
    complications of ANUG.
    (a) Noma
    (b) Toxemia
    (c) Squamous cell carcinoma
    (d) Septicemia
A
  1. (c) Antibiotics, coupled with thorough oral prophylaxis is
    usually sufficient and the disease process begins to regress
    within 48 hours. However, serious sequelae like gangrenous
    stomatitis, toxemia, septicemia and even death have been
    reported.
15
Q
  1. All, except ________, are believed to be causative factors of
    desquamative gingivitis.
    (a) Dermatoses
    (b) Hormonal influences
    (c) Idiopathic
    (d) Decreased resistance to infections
A
  1. (d) Desquamative gingivitis is not a disease but a clinical
    term used to describe a condition of gingiva characterized
    by intense redness and desquamation of its surface
    epithelium. It is nowadays used to refer to oral manifestation
    of various diseases and factors like certain dermatoses,
    hormonal influences, irritation, chronic infections and even
    idiopathic
16
Q
  1. Which amongst the following are believed to be the most
    important dermatoses presenting with oral findings described
    as desquamative gingivitis?
    (a) Dyskeratosis congenita
    (b) Psoriasis
    (c) Erythema multiforme
    (d) Cicatricial pemphigoid
A
  1. (d) The most important dermatoses that present findings
    characterized as desquamative gingivitis are cicatricial
    pemphigoid, pemphigus, lichen planus, epidermolysis
    bullosa, systemic lupus erythematosus and linear IgA
    disease.
17
Q
  1. The etiology of which of the following gingival enlargements is
    still unknown?
    (a) Fibrous epulis (b) Plasma cell gingivitis
    (c) Scurvy (d) Fibromatosis gingivae
A
  1. (d) Also called elephantiasis gingivae, it is a diffuse gingival
    enlargement, sometimes completely covering the teeth.
    Cause is unknown, but it is believed to be a hereditary
    condition, transmitted as an autosomal dominant trait.
18
Q
  1. Pregnancy gingivitis is essentially a
    (a) Plasma cell gingivitis
    (b) Fibrous epulis
    (c) Pyogenic granuloma
    (d) Peripheral ossifying fibroma
A
  1. (c) Pregnancy tumor is an inflammatory gingival enlargement
    seen during pregnancy. Raised levels of estrogen and
    progesterone in pregnancy lead to change in vascular
    permeability which leads to altered inflammatory response
    to dental plaque.
19
Q
  1. Chronic periodontitis usually begins as
    (a) Marginal gingivitis (b) Marginal periodontitis
    (c) Pyogenic granuloma (d) Chronic gingivitis
A
  1. (a) The earliest manifestation of chronic periodontitis is
    marginal gingivitis, which if left untreated, progresses to
    periodontitis. The most common cause is local irritation.
20
Q
  1. One of the early microscopic signs of advancement of
    inflammatory process into the periodontium is
    (a) Ulceration of crevicular epithelium
    (b) Infiltration of connective tissue with plasma cells
    (c) Appearance of osteoclasts on alveolar crest
    (d) Appearance of osteoblasts on alveolar crest
A
  1. (c) Appearance of osteoclasts lodged in small bays called
    Howship’s lacunae indicates the beginning of bone
    resorption usually at the alveolar crest. At this stage
    underlying tissues of periodontium do not show any
    changes.
21
Q
  1. The earliest radiographic finding in periodontitis is
    (a) Widening of periodontal space
    (b) Blunting of alveolar crest
    (c) Loss of trabeculae in the alveolar crest
    (d) Formation of suprabony pocket
A
  1. (b) Due to commencement of bone resorption at the alveolar
    crest, there is blunting of alveolar crest.
22
Q
  1. Factors that interfere with reattachment of fibrous connective
    tissue to the tooth include all of these except
    (a) Crevicular epithelium
    (b) Tooth mobility
    (c) Necrotic cementum
    (d) Dental caries
A
  1. (d) For reattachment to occur, crevicular epithelium must be
    curetted away, tooth should remain relatively immobile,
    region should be free from inflammation and all necrotic
    cementum should have been removed
23
Q
  1. The localized form of aggressive periodontitis is largely caused
    by all of the following bacteria except
    (a) Porphyromonas gingivalis
    (b) Bacteroides forsythus
    (c) Actinomyces actinomycetemcomitans
    (d) Lactobacillus acidophilus
A
  1. (d) Local aggressive periodontitis appears to be a result of
    defect in immune response rather than plaque and calculus
    deposition. The bactericidal activity of PMNLs appears to
    be diminished.
24
Q
  1. Palmar and plantar hyperkeratosis, generalized hyperhidrosis,
    peculiar dirty colored skin along with aggressive periodontitis is
    referred to as
    (a) Frey’s syndrome
    (b) Desquamative gingivitis
    (c) Papillon—Lefevre syndrome
    (d) Scurvy
A
  1. (c) It is an autosomal recessive disorder characterized by dermal
    and oral findings. Due to rapid bone loss, tooth mobility and
    pathological migration occurs, resulting in loss of entire
    dentition at a very young age
25
Q
  1. A pseudopocket is
    (a) Periodontal pocket with furcation involvement
    (b) Pocket limited to gingiva
    (c) Pocket with base extending past cementoenamel junction
    (d) Pocket with base extending past the crest of alveolar bone
A
  1. (b) Pseudopocket is usually seen in early periodontitis when
    the pathological changes are limited to gingiva. In such
    cases, the gingival tissues increase in bulk due to which
    the depth of gingival sulcus increases although the gingival
    attachment is located on the cementoenamel junction.
26
Q
  1. An infrabony pocket is a pocket with bone on its ________ wall.
    (a) Buccal (b) Lateral
    (c) Lingual (d) Apical
A
  1. (b) An infrabony pocket occurs when the depth of pocket
    extends apically past the crest of alveolar bone. Such a
    pocket then has bone only on its lateral wal
27
Q
  1. All of the following statements except one are true regarding
    chronic periodontitis
    (a) It begins as marginal gingivitis
    (b) The epithelial attachment begins to migrate cervically
    (c) Teeth become mobile
    (d) Patients may complain bleeding gums and hyper-sensitivity
    around necks of their teeth
A
  1. (b) As periodontitis advances and pathological changes
    progress to deeper layers of periodontium, the crevicular
    epithelium migrates apically and as it does so, it gets
    detached coronally.
28
Q
  1. Which amongst the following systemic diseases involves gingivae
    prominently?
    (a) Tuberculosis (b) Syphilis
    (c) Crohn’s disease (d) Leprosy
A
  1. (c) Regional enteritis or Crohn’s disease is a slowly progressive
    disease of unknown etiology manifested by granulomas,
    ulceration of intestines along with diffusely swollen,
    erythematous gingivae, glossitis and cobblestone
    appearance of buccal mucosa and vestibule.