Orthopaedics Flashcards

(42 cards)

1
Q

Imaging in osteomyelitis?

A

MRI

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2
Q

Genetic conditions predisposing to osteosarcoma?

A

Li-Fraumeni and retinoblastoma

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3
Q

Where does Ewing’s sarcoma commonly affect?

A

Diaphysis of long bones

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4
Q

Staging of bone tumours?

A

Enneking staging

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5
Q

Investigations in bone tumours?

A

XR
MRI - soft tissue involvement
CT - cortical involvement

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6
Q

Loss of fine motor function in UL?

A

Cervical myelopathy

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7
Q

What is classically impaired in adhesive capsulitis?

A

External rotation

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8
Q

Management of undisplayed intracapsular hip fracture?

A

Fit: Internal fixation
Unfit: hemiarthroplasty

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9
Q

Management of displaced intracapsular hip fracture?

A

Total hip replacement if:
1. not cognitively impaired
2. medically fit for anaesthesia
3. able to walk independently outdoor with no more than a stick

Hemiarthroplasty if do not meet above criteria

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10
Q

Management of stable extra capsular hip fracture (intertrochanteric)?

A

Dynamic hip screw

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11
Q

Management of extra capsular hip fracture (reverse oblique, transverse or subtrochanteric)?

A

Intramedullary device

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12
Q

Which location is a red flag in back pain?

A

Thoracic back pain

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13
Q

Type of bone lesion in metastatic prostate cancer?

A

Sclerotic lesions

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14
Q

Type of bone lesion in Paget’s disease and multiple myeloma?

A

Lytic lesions

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15
Q

Rotator cuff tear?

A

Shoulder pain and weakness (exacerbated by overhead activities)
Loss of active ROM
Common in elderly (> 60)
May occur after minor trauma

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16
Q

Investigation to carry out if osteoporosis in a man?

A

Testotsterone

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17
Q

Where is interosseous access most commonly obtained?

A

Proximal tibia

18
Q

What should be corrected before starting bisphosphonates?

A

Vit D
Hypocalcaemia

19
Q

What is divided in surgical management of carpal tunnel syndrome?

A

Flexor Retinaculum

20
Q

What fractures are most associated with compartment syndrome?

A

Supracondylar and tibial shaft

21
Q

Management of fracture of proximal pole of scaphoid?

A

Surgical fixation

22
Q

Sign of a scaphoid fracture?

A

Pain on longitudinal compression of the thumb

23
Q

1st line Pharma management of back pain with no red flags?

A

NSAIDS

Do not offer paracetamol alone

24
Q

Pott’s fracture?

A

Forced foot eversion
Bimalleolar fracture

25
Barton’s fracture ?
Distal radius fracture (Colle’s/Smith’s) with associated radiocarpal dislocation Fall onto extended, pronated wrist
26
Galeazzi fracture?
Radial shaft fracture with associated dislocation of radioulnar joint Direct blow
27
Monteggia’s fracture?
Dislocation if the proximal radioulnar joint in association with ulnar fracture Fall on outstretched hand with forced pronation Needs prompt management
28
Bennett’s fracture?
Infra-articular fracture of the first carpometacarpal joint Impact on flexed metacarpal Caused by fist fights
29
Condrocalcinosis on XR?
Linear calcification of articular cartilage
30
Management of undisplayed scaphoid waist fracture?
Cast for 6-8 weeks
31
What is a significant risk factor for avascular necrosis?
Previous chemotherapy
32
DM is a risk factor for developing what shoulder condition?
Adhesive capsulitis
33
Management of subluxation of radial head?
Passive supination of elbow joint whilst flexed at 90 degrees
34
Lateral epicondylitis?
worse on resisted wrist extension/suppination whilst elbow extended
35
Mutation in Marfan's?
Fibrilin
36
Type A Weber fracture?
Below syndesmosis
37
Type B Weber's fracture?
Originate at lad q tibial platform and may extend to involve syndesmosis
38
Type C Weber's fracture?
Above syndesmosis (which may itself be damaged )
39
Maisonneuve fracture?
Spiral fibra fracture which may lead to disruption of syndesmosis with widening of joint (surgery required)
40
Associations with posterior shoulder dislocation?
Seizures / electric shock
41
Associations with anterior shoulder dislocation?
Foosh
42
Nerve at risk of injury in total hip replacement?
Sciatic nerve (unable to dorsiflex foot?)