Other DSA Stuff Flashcards

(58 cards)

1
Q

stage 1 radiographic findings sarcoidosis

A

hilar adenopathy alone

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2
Q

stage 2 radiographic findings sarcoidosis

A

hilar adenopathy w/ parechymal involvement

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3
Q

stage 3 radiographic findings sarcoidosis

A

parenchymal involvement alone

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4
Q

stage 4 radiographic findings sarcoidosis

A

advanced fibrotic changes principally in the upper lobes

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5
Q

most prominent sx of IPF

A

progressive dyspnea

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6
Q

hallmark features on lung biopsy of IPF

A

heterogenous distribution of parenchymal fibrosis against background of mild inflammation

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7
Q

first tx in pts with UA/NSTEMI

A

aspirin

- clopidogrel if aspirin intolerant

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8
Q

initial conservative tx in pts with UA/NSTEMI

A

anticoag therapy

  • enoxaparin
  • fondaparinux (less common)
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9
Q

after initiating enoxaparin, what tx for pts w/ UA/STEMI in conservative tx

A

clopidogrel

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10
Q

initial invasive strategy in pts with UA/NSTEMI

A

anticoag thearpy

  • enoxaparin
  • bivalirudin
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11
Q

after initiating enoxaparin, what tx for pts w/ UA/STEMI in invasive tx

A

add second anticoag for precatheterization

  • clopidogrel
  • GP IIb/IIIa inhibitor (eptifibatide or tirofiban)
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12
Q

3 P2Y12 inhibitor antiplatelet therapies

A

clopidogrel
prasugrel
ticagrelor

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13
Q

3 GP IIB/IIIA inhibitors

A

tirofiban
epitifibatide
abciximab

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14
Q

MOA fondaparinus

A

Xa inhibitor

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15
Q

MOA bivalirudin

A

direct thrombin inhibitor

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16
Q

do you treat unstable angina with CCB

A

NO, third line therapy only

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17
Q

Killip classification 1-4 (part of GRACE score)

A

1: absence of rales and S3
2: rales that do not clear w/ coughing over 1/3 or less lung fields, or presence of S3
3: rales that do not clear w/ coughing more than 2/3 lung fields
4: cardiogenic shock (rales, hypotension, signs of hypoperfusion)

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18
Q

GRACE risk score

A

measure risk stratification for coronary angiography in pts w/ or w/o ST elevation

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19
Q

TIMI risk score is based on what factors

A
  • age 65 or older
  • 3 or more cardiac risk factors
  • prior coronary stenosis 50% or more
  • ST segment deviation
  • 2 anginal events in prior 24 hours
  • aspirin in prior 7 days
  • elevated cardiac markers
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20
Q

what type of shock is associated w/ pulmonary edema

A

cardiogenic

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21
Q

tension pneumothorax, cardiac tamponade, PE, and severe pulmonary HTN cause what type of shock

A

obstructive

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22
Q

elevated serum lactate is associated with what type of shock

A

septic shock

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23
Q

GI effects of hypotension

A

splanchnic vasoconstriction –>

  • oliguria
  • bowel ischemia
  • hepatic dysfunction
  • multiorgan failure
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24
Q

CNS effects hypotension

A
  • restlessness
  • agitation
  • confusion
  • lethargy
  • coma
25
what to do with shock patients who become unresponsive
check glucose and if levels are low give 50% dextrose IV
26
central venous pressure < 5 mmHg indicates | CVP > 18 mmHg indicates
hypovolemia | volume overload, cardiac failure, tamponade, pulm HTN
27
PACs measure what
- pulmonary artery pressure - left sided filling pressure - PCWP
28
what can you use to distinguish b/w cardiogenic and septic shock
pulmonary artery catheters
29
what does POCUS look at
inferior vena cava (intravascular volume status)
30
cardiac index < 2L/min/m2 means | cardiac index > 4L/min/m2 in hypotensive pt means
<2: needs inotropic support | >4: early septic shock
31
``` systemic vascular resistance low (<800): SVR high (>1500): ```
low: sepsis and neurogenic shock high: hypovolemic and cardiogenic shock
32
what fluid is used for volume replacement in shock
crystalloid solution
33
compare fluid replacement in cardiogenic and septic shock
cardiogenic: smaller fluid challenges in increments of 250 mL septic: large volumes of fluid (usually more than 2L)
34
compare vasoactive therapy in: pt w/ hypotension and high CO after volume resuscitation pt with low CO w/ high filling pressure
pt 1: vasopressor support to improve vasomotor tone pt 2: inotropic support to improve contractility
35
what vasoactive therapy to give in pts with vasodilatory shock
NE and E
36
vasopressor of choice in septic shock
NE | - phenylephrine can also be used
37
1st line vasopressor agents in cardiogenic shock
NE or dopamine
38
tx of choice for pts with shock secondary to adrenal insufficiency
corticoteroids
39
what endogenous pyrogens mediate fever
IL-1, TNF, interferon a
40
elevation of temperature related to inability of body to dissipate heat
hyperthermia
41
5 categories of fever
``` hypersensitivity rxns altered thermoregulatory mechanisms related to administration of drug direct extensions of pharmacologic action of drug idiosyncratic (we don't know) ```
42
near universal agreement that core body temp of ___ represents a fever
38.3 (100.9)
43
most common causes of fever of unknown origin
tuberculosis and intra-abdominal abscesses
44
malignancies associated with fever of unknown origin
hodgkin's dz, non-hodgkin's lymphoma
45
inflammatory conditions associated w/ fever of unknown origin
SLE giant cell arteritis IBD
46
very high fever, consider --->
CNS infections NMS heat stroke
47
fever w/ rash, consider -->
meningitis bacteremia w/ septic shock rickettsial dz bacterial endocarditis
48
fever w/ change in mental status, consider -->
``` meningitis encaphlitis NMS heat stroke bacterial infections w/ septic shock ```
49
fever w/ dizziness or light-headedness, consider -->
bacterial infection w/ septic shock adrenal insufficiency PE
50
fever w/ recent chemotherapy, consider -->
nosocomial infection w/ neutropenia
51
fever w/ SOB and CP, consider -->
PE, pneumonia, empyema
52
tertian fever and quartan fever are associated w/:
tertian: malaria due to plasmodium vivas or ovale quartan: malaria due to plasmodium malariae
53
DUKE criteria for infectious endocarditis
- positive blood culture - persistent positive blood culture - echo positive for IE minor criteria: - fever
54
criteria for fever of unknown origin:
fever >101 on at least two occasions | illness duration of > 3 weeks
55
maculopapular rash in a sparse distribution over the anterior trunk in the groin and upper legs - intermittent fever
rickettsial infection
56
sx of human monocytotropic erlichiosis (HME)
- fever - headache - myalgia - malaise - 8 day illness - thrombocytopenia, leukopenia, elevated serum aminotransferases
57
sx rocky mountain spotted fever
- fever, rash, hx of tick exposure | - rash characterized by macules appearing on wrists and ankles and then spreading to rest of extremities and trunk
58
sx lyme dz
erythema marginatum, fever, chills, myalgia