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Flashcards in Other Mammals Deck (42)
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1

Ketamine

a.   Inhibits both the parasympathetic and sympathetic systems

b.   Stimulates both the parasympathetic and sympathetic systems

c.   Inhibits the parasympathetic and stimulates the sympathetic systems

d.   Stimulate the parasympathetic and inhibits the sympathetic systems

c.   Inhibits the parasympathetic and stimulates the sympathetic systems

2

Pyogranulomatous to granulomatous lesions in multiple visceral organs including spleen, mesenteric lymph nodes, intestines, and kidneys in ferrets may be caused by what kind of virus type? A. Enveloped, RNA virus B. Non-enveloped, RNA virus C. Enveloped DNA virus D. Non-enveloped, DNA virus

A. Enveloped, RNA virus

3

Name the three components of the pre-corneal tear film.

Lipid, aqueous, mucin

4

What five glands produce the pre-corneal tear film?

Harderian and nictitating glands, lacrimal, infraorbital, and exorbital glands

5

Differentiate the STT1 from the STT2.

STT1 is performed without a topical anesthetic and measures both basal and reflex tear production. STT2 is performed with topical anesthesia (tetracaine mentioned in the article) and measures only basal tear production.

6

Which best defines a rabbit?

a.   An induced ovulator with hemoendothelial placenta

b.   A spontaneous ovulator with hemoendothelial placenta

c.  A spontaneous ovulator with epithelialchorial placenta

d.  An induced ovulator with epithelialchorial placenta

a.   An induced ovulator with hemoendothelial placenta

7

What is the treatment of choice for pseudopregnancy in non-breeding rabbits?

 

Ovariohysterectomy

8

Which is FALSE regarding rabbit eye anatomy and physiology:

a.   Rabbits blink infrequently, 10-12 times per minute

b.   Rabbits have a nictitating membrane

c.   Rabbits lack a Harderian gland

d.   Rabbits have laterally placed eyes consistent with a prey species

c.   Rabbits lack a Harderian gland

9

Endodontic absorbent paper and phenol red thread are tests to determine what?

Tear production

10

According to a review of the social nature of Oryctolagus cuniculus, which of the following factors seems to be a major stimulus for group formation in wild rabbits?

a.   Resource abundance

b.   Resource limitation

c.   Favorable environmental conditions

d.   Unfavorable environmental conditions

b.   Resource limitation

11

According to a recent review of rabbit social behavior, which of the following practices seemed least beneficial for successful group housing of adult lab rabbits?

a.   Use of very large, enriched areas, such as large animal runs or whole rooms

b.   Use of a protected contact introduction period to assess compatibility prior to full contact housing

c.   Provision of neutral locations with multiple hide and escape opportunities

d.   Provision of multiple sources of food and water as well to avoid conflict over resources

b.   Use of a protected contact introduction period to assess compatibility prior to full contact housing

12

According to a recent review, in order to maintain the stability within socially housed groups of lab rabbits, researchers should remove and use which social group member last whenever possible?

a.   Dominant buck

b.   Dominant doe

c.   Subordinate buck(s)

d.   Subordinate doe(s)

a.   Dominant buck

13

How did the administrtion of methylnaltrexone affect GI transit time in rabbits administered buprenorphine?

Methylnaltrexone failed to mitigate the GI statis effects of buprenorphine

14

VX2 squamous cell carcinoma cell line was developed from cells isolated from a domestic rabbit with which virus?

a.   Rabbit hemorrhage disease virus

b.   Myxoma virus

c.   Shope fibroma virus

d.   Rabbit pox

e.   Shope papilloma virus

e.   Shope papilloma virus

15

VX2 carcinoma contained multiple integrated copies of highly methylated rabbit papilloma virus from which species?

a.   European rabbit (Oryctolagus)

b.   Cottontail (Sylvilagus

c.   Jackrabbit (Lepus)

b.   Cottontail (Sylvilagus

16

Vimentin is a marker for what type of cells?

Mesenchymal cells

17

18

Which of the following species is most resistant to experimental infection with mycobacterium tuberculosis?

a.   Mus musculus

b.   Oryctolagus cuniculus

c.   Cavia porcellus

d.         Macaca mulatta

a.   Mus musculus

19

Which of the following viruses, when infecting the laboratory rabbit, most closely results in similar clinical signs of Human Papillomavirus (HPV) in humans.

a.   HPV 16

b.   HPV 18

c.   Cottontail Rabbit Papillomavirus (CRPV)

d.   Canine Papilloma Virus

c.   Cottontail Rabbit Papillomavirus (CRPV)

20

Which of the following statements about experimental HIV1 infection in rabbits is true?

a.   HIV1 infection in rabbits predictably induces AIDS

b.   Rodents are more susceptible to HIV1 infections than rabbits

c.   Transgenic rabbits expressing CD4+ human cells are when infected with HIV1 will develop HIV infection and eventually AIDS

d.   In vitro testing of HIV1 infection of rabbit cells expressing human genes CD4 and CCR5 is highly permission to HIV1 infection.

d.   In vitro testing of HIV1 infection of rabbit cells expressing human genes CD4 and CCR5 is highly permission to HIV1 infection.

21

Shope fibroma virus is associated with what kind of inclusion bodies?

a. intracytoplasmic

b. intranuclear

c. no inclusion bodies

d. both intracytoplasmic and intranuclear

a. intracytoplasmic

22

What adjuvant may be a useful alternative to Fruend's for polyclona antibody production in rabbits?

Cationic liposome oligonucleotide complexes (CLDC)

23

Many FR3 researchers prefer what rodent model of filariasis?

Gerbil

24

            What are the definitions of open-formula diet, closed-formula diet, fixed-formula diet, and constant nutrition diet?

Open-formula diets disclose the concentrations of all ingredients. Closed-formula diet – ingredients are listed, but the quantitative ingredients are not publicly available. Fixed-formula diets keep the quantitative formulation the same. Constant nutrition diet is the trademark of Purina. The concentrations of known nutrients remain constant, but the quantitative ingredient formulations can be varied without public disclosure. 

25

What is the average life span of a hamster?

2 years

26

Who is likely to live longer, a male or a female golden hamster?

Male

27

Hamsters are often used in what kind of cardiovascular disease studies?

evaluating the effects of various dietary ingredients

28

Which direct-contact bedding is cellulose based?

a.   ALPHA-dri®

b.   Bed-o’Cobs®

c.   Alpha Chip

d.   CareFresh

a.   ALPHA-dri®

29

      Which of the following FDA protein biomarkers of Rattus norvegicus urine indicates renal tubular damage?

a.   Total urinary protein

b.   Cystatin C

c.   Β2-microglobulin

d.   KIM-1

d.   KIM-1

30

31

In which species does polycystic disease not affect the kidneys?

a.   Ovis aries

b.   Mesocricetus auratus

c.   Bos taurus

d.   Mustela putorius furo

b.   Mesocricetus auratus

32

      What protozoan is known to encyst in the kidney of Cavia porcellus?

a.   Dentostomella translucida

b.   Stephanurus dentatus

c.   Klossiella cobayae

d.   Tritrichomonas blagburni

c.   Klossiella cobayae

33

What combination of positive and negative staining would you expect with CD163, cytokeratin, and vimentin IHC on a histiocytic sarcoma section?

CD163+, cytokeratin -, vimentin –

34

What is CD163 a cellular marker of?

a.   Monocytes and histiocytes

b.   Histiocytes alone

c.   B-cells

d.   A hemoglobin scavenger receptor protein

e.   a and d           

e.   a and d       

35

36

Environmental stressors were suspected as the cause of what condition in Eptesicus fuscus?

E. fuscus (big brown bat)

hepatic lipidosis

37

Odocoileus virginianus recently served as an animal model for which infectious agent that required ABSL-3 containment?

Mycobacterium bovis

38

What was the only significant difference between guinea pigs housed in open top cages vs. individually ventilated cages?

Food consumption

39

What is the scientific name of the domestic goat?

Capra hircus

40

What is the primary mechanism of action of lidocaine?

inhibition of sodium channels, preventing nerve conduction in A-delta and C fibrers.

41

What were the adverse effects of transdermal fentanyl solution in sheep, and what was administered to reverse the effects?

sedation, polydypsia, pacing, head pressing, nystagmus, hypersalivation, recumbency, obtunded mentation

naloxone

42

Age-related changes in sheep were larger at what intervertebral disc?

L6S1