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Flashcards in P&B Ch2 Deck (87)
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1

What is the predominant peripheral blood leukocyte in rats?

 

Lymphocyte

 

2

True or False:  Female rats have lower total leukocyte counts?

True

3

Polyploidy is a common morphological feature in ______ animals.

Adult

4

What is a common liver manifestation of decreased or absence of food intake?

Marked atrophy of hepatic cords

5

When is proteinuria normal in rats?

During tubular production of alpha globulins

6

When is proteinuria abnormal in rats?

When serum proteins are lost

7

Do rat bones possess Haversian systems?

No

8

True or False:  Hematopoiesis in long bones stops at 6 months?

False - remains active throughout life

9

True or False:  Rats have more extensive splenic hematopoiesis than mice.

False - it may indicate disease in rats

10

What accumulates in splenic macrophages throughout life, especially in breeding females?
 

 

 hemosiderin

 

11

What type of cells in the respiratory epithelium are unique to rats?

Serous cells

12

Who has the larger adrenals – male or female rats?

Females

13

Do young or old male rats have epithelial megalokaryocytes of the exorbital lacrimal glands?

Old

14

True or False:  The wild rat cytomegalovirus is antigenically similar to mouse cytomegalovirus.

False - distinct

15

Name the 3 major genetic/antigenic groups of rat parvoviral infections.

  • Kilham's rat virus (RV)
  • Toolan's H-1
  • Rat Parvovirus (RPV)

16

Which rat parvoviruses cause naturally occurring disease?

Kilham's rat virus (RV)

17

What are the clinical signs for RV?

  • Dyspnea
  • ruffled hair coat
  • muscular weakness
  • cyanotic scrotum

18

Hemorrhages in hepatocytes, bone marrow, cerebrum, cerebellar cortex, kidney, lung, genital tract are due to what process?

Endothelial cell and megakaryocyte damage associated with RV replication in these tissues

19

Why might dogs and cats have intestinal mucosal lesions due to parvo infection and not rats?

This is likely due to a lack of viral receptors on rat enterocytes

20

Besides SDAV, what other virus is in the coronavirus grouping?
 

Parker’s Rat Coronavirus

21

The reparative stages of SDAV begin when?
 

7-10 days post-exposure

22

The majority of the SDAV repair is complete by what day postexposure?

14 days post-exposure

23

The genus Hantavirus belongs to which family?

Family Bunyaviridae

24

Which two syndromes represent the 2 major lineages of hantaviruses?

  • Hemorrhagic Fever and Renal Syndrome (HFRS)
  • Hantavirus Pulmonary Syndrome (HPS)

25

Humans are what type of host for hantaviruses?
 

 

incidental

 

26

Compare the clinical signs of a rat and a human infected with hantaan virus.

The rat produces no clinical evidence of disease.

Human cases of HFRS:  fever, thrombocytopenia, capillary leakage resulting in myalgia, headache, petechiation, with prominent retroperitoneal and renal hemorrhage.

Human cases of HPS:  fever, capillary leakage localized to lungs.  Death occurs from shock and cardiac complications. 

27

The paramyxovirus, Pneumonia Virus of Mice (PVM), infects which species?
 

Mice, Rats, Hamsters, Gerbils

28

The acute multifocal nonsuppurative vasculitis and interstitial alveolities with necrosis and BALT hyperplasia of PVM results in what clinical signs?

None

29

True or False:  A rat may become infected with the paramyxovirus, Sendai virus, from  a hamster?

True

30

Is the Sendai virus an upper or lower respiratory disease?

Both - it replicates and causes lesions in the upper and lower tract.

31

What are the obvious clinical signs of Sendai?

None - asymptomatic

32

Rotavirus causes diarrhea in suckling rats 24-36 hours post infection. The rats continue to nurse despite intestinal villus attenuation and necrosis of enterocytes. What is pathognomonic for Infectious Diarrhea of Infant Rats (IDIR) and in which intestinal region are changes most evident?

  • Epithelial syncytia are pathognomonic
  • Changes are most evident in the ileal region.

33

Do rats react to reoviral infection as mice do?

No - rats may seroconvert, but do not develop disease.

34

Describe the morphology of the etiologic agent of Tyzzers. Include gram staining, ability for spore formation, intra or extracellular.

Clostridium piliforme is a filamentous, weakly Gram-negative, spore-forming, obligate intracellular bacterium

35

For how long may the Tyzzer’s bacillus remain infectious in contaminated bedding?
 

one year

36

What is the typical age for Tyzzer’s enterohepatic disease outbreaks in rats?
 

post weaning

37

What is the term used for marked dilation of the rat terminal small intestine? Does it always occur with Tyzzer’s?

megaloileitis

No, it does not always occur in with Tyzzer's (enteritis may be evident only at the microscopic level)

38

Besides the ileum, what other regions of the rat GI tract may be affected in Tyzzer’s?

jejunum and cecum

39

Foci of necrosis for Tyzzer's in a rat may be found on what other organs besides the GI tract?

Liver and heart

40

Describe the ileal necrosis of Tyzzer’s in rats.

Necrotizing transmural ileitis, with segmental involvement of affected areas; necrosis and sloughing of enterocytes.

41

Infiltrating inflammatory cells in Tyzzer's disease in rats are primarily which cells?

Mononuclear cells

42

What stains are used to demonstrate the bundles of slender Clostridium bacilli in the cytoplasm of enterocytes in ileal lesions, in hepatocytes surrounding necrotic foci, and myocardial lesions?

Giemsa, Wartharn-Starry, PAS stains

43

How is Tyzzer’s diagnosed in rats?

Confirmation requires the demonstration of the typical organisms in tissue sections.  The triad of organs is useful.  A single isolate as antigen may not detect seroconversions among different host species due to significant antigenic heterogeneity.

44

True or False:  Helicobacter typhlonius and H. rodentium cause significant typhlitis and colitis in immunocompetent rats.

False - There is no convincing evidence that any of the Helicobacter isolates produce disease in immunocompetent rats

45

Which enrichment medium is often used to isolate Salmonella?

Selenite broth

46

What is the usual role of Bordella bronchiseptica in rats?

Opportunistic infection rather than primary pathogen

47

Species susceptible to Cilia-Associated Respiratory (CAR) Bacillus infection include:
a. Rats
b. Pigs
c. Cattle
d. Rabbits
e. All of the above

e - all of the above

48

Describe the morphology of CAR bacillus.

Filamentous, argyrophilic bacillus with gliding motility

49

CAR bacillus demonstration can be performed using what stains?

Silver stains such as Warthin-Starry and Steiners

50

What is the major pathogen in Chronic Respiratory Disease of rats?

Mycoplasma pulmonis

51

What environmental condition may worsen the progression of Mycoplasmosis in rats?

Ammonia levels > 25 ppm

52

What is the usual distribution of affected lung lobes in Mycoplasmosis?

Cranioventral

53

A prominent pulmonary feature of all stages of Mycoplasmosis in rats is infiltration of what types of cells?

Lymphocytes and plasma cells

54

In what organs does Pasteurella pneumotropica often colonize in rats?

Intestine, nasopharynx, conjunctiva, lower respiratory tract, uterus

55

Can Pasteurella pneumotropica cause fetal death in rats?

Yes

56

In rats, Corynebacterium kutscheri is  carried in the oral cavity and adjacent lymph nodes. Through hematogenous spread, to what area/organs might it disseminate?

Thoracic and abdominal viscera

57

In rats, Corynebacterium lesions most frequently occur in the lungs. What cellular infiltrates occur in the early and later stages of infection?

Early: neutrophils

Later: macrophages, lymphocytes, plasma cells

58

The Corynebacterium colonies are amorphous and basophilic. Which stains are used to best demonstrate the bacteria?

Tissue Gram stains, Warthin-Starry, Giemsa

59

In rats, detection of C. kutscheri in carrier animals is best accomplished by the culture of what areas/organs?
 

oropharnyx

60

Name the organism: In rats, this agent causes fibrinopurulent polyserositis, pleuritis, peritonitis, pericarditis, periorchitis, meningitis. Pulmonary changes include suppurative bronchopneumonia. Suppurative rhinitis and otitis media may occur. Morphology of the organism is that of an encapsulated diplococci.

Streptococcus pneumoniae (aka diplococcus and pneumococcus)

61

What is the vector for Mycoplasma hemomuris?

Polyplax spinulosa

62

True or False:  In rat, Klebsiella pneumonia is associated with abscesses of the cervical, inguinal, and mesenteric lymph nodes and the kidney.

True

63

Pseudomonas aeruginosa may be associated with what type of surgical procedure?

Inplanting indwelling jugular catheters.  May result in vegetative lesions.

64

What is the bacteria causing Rat Bite Fever?

Streptobacillus moniliformis

65

What part of the rat’s body does the causative organism for rat bite fever inhabit?

nasopharynx

66

What rat develops an increased bronchiolar responsivness and IgE post allergen exposure and have been used to study asthma?
 

Brown-Norway (BN)

67

Administration of sephadex IV to rats causes all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Pulmonary eosinophilia
b. Granulomatous vasculitis
c. Pneumonia with epithelioid and giant cells
d. All of the above are seen

c

68

Infection by Aspergillus niger or A. fumigatus in rats typically results in:
 

rhinitis

69

Pneumocystis infection in rats consists of:
a.  Infection by Pneumocystis carinii
b. Infection by Pneumocystis wakefieldiae
c. Co-infections by both a and b
d. All of the above

d - all of the above

70

Infection by P. carinii in rats can be diagnosed by:
a. Histopathologic observation of lungs
b. Impression smears of lungs
c. PCR of lung tissue or BAL samples
d. All of the above

d - all of the above

71

Which ectoparasite is only associated with rats while feeding?:
a. Polyplax spinulosa
b. Hoplopleura pacifica
c. Ornithonyssus bacoti
d. Xenopsylla muris

Ornithonyssus bacoti

72

81. Which endoparasite normally results in an asymptomatic infection unless the rat is immunocompromised?
a. Cryptosporidia
b. Trypanosoma lewis
c. Giardia muris
d. Spironucleus muris

Cryptosporidia

73

Which pinworm has a direct life cycle:
a. Syphacia muris
b. Aspicularis tetraptera
c. Syphacia obvelata

d. All of the above

d - all of the above

74

True or False: Trichosomoides crassicauda infection can be diagnosed by the presence of double-operculated eggs in the urine.

True

75

Which tapeworm can be eliminated by increasing sanitation (since it requires beetles or fleas as an intermediate host):
a. Rodentolepis nana
b. Rodentolepis microstoma
c. Hymenolepis diminuta

d. All of these agents have a direct life cycle

c - Hymenolepis diminuta

76

True or False:  Infection by Cysticercus fasciolaris results in a polycystic disease with cirrhosis.

False.  Typically results in 1-2 cysts with possible sarcoma development

77

Which is not normally a predisposing factor for the development of chronic progressive neuropathy in rats?
a. Sex (males are more prone)
b. Strain (F344 and S-D are more prone)
c. Immune status (Immunocompromised animals are more prone)
d. High protein diet

c

78

Clinical signs seen in chronic progressive neuropathy include:
a. proteinuria and hypoproteinemia
b. polyarteritis nodosa
c. elevated BUN and creatinine (renal insufficiency)
d. all of the above

d

79

Select the correct statement regarding myocardial degeneration in SD rats:
a. Lesions are more common in female rats
b. Interstitial fibrosis is an important feature of the disease
c. Lesions are typically seen in 1 month old rats
d. Lesions are typically restricted to the right ventricle.

b

80

True or False: Bilateral hydronephrosis is a common incidental finding in rats.

True

81

True or False: Posterior paresis in older rats may be due to spontaneous radiculoneuropathy.

True

82

Which rats are most predisposed to polyarteritis nodosa?
 

SD, SHR, and rats with late-stage CPN

  • most frequently in medium-sized arteries of mesentery, pancreas, pancreaticoduodenal artery, and tesis

83

What are the possible consequences of constant light in rats? 

Constant light for as little as 3 days can induce:

  • persistent estrus
  • hyperestrogenism
  • polycystic ovaries
  • endometrial hypertrophy

84

What is a nongenetic, non-infectious cause of corneal lesions in rats?

Ketamine-xylazine

  • drug-induced vasoconstriction of ciliary and iridal vessels
  • subsequent corneal hypoxia, corneal opacity, mineralization of anterior limiting membrane

85

True or False:  Retroviruses are associated with the development of lymphoreticular tumors in mice and rats.

False - only in mice

86

Histiocytic sarcomas are seen most often in which rat strains?

SD, Osborne-Mendel, Wistar

87

Pituitary adenomas can be differentiated from hyperplasia by the presence of ?
 

pseudocapsule