Paeds Flashcards

1
Q

When does clincial concern beign for scoliosis?

A

lateral curvature exceeds 10 degrees
pain
not fully corrected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what type of radiographs for scoliosis

A

standing PA and lateral
all of the iliac crests included

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is the Risser staging?

A

assess skeletal maturity on the iliac crests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what can cause scoliosis that should be reviewed for?

A

malignancny and abscess paraspinally.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

MRi in scoliosis is reserved for who?

A

pain
neuro deficit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

MRI in scoliosis
what protocol

A

Sag T1 and T2 of whole spine
Coronal T2 to look at bones
Axial of abnormal area and the conus (for tethered cord)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Scoliosis what angle is used?

A

Cobb angle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Most common type of scoliosis

A

Idiopathic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Other types of scoliosis

A

Idiopathic

nerumuscula
congenital
developmental
tumour
miscellaneous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Congenital Vertebral Anomalies:Types of Anomalies

A

Unilateral.
Bilateral (balanced defect)
Incarcerated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

associated abnormalities with congenital vertebral anomalies

A

urinary tract
congenital heart disease
undescended scalulae
diastematomyelia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

which scoliotic defect causes loss of longitudinal growth?

A

hemivertebrae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what are the management options for scoliosis?v

A

Observe, if no disability and not beyond 25 degrees.

Bracing - for growing child, prevent progression

Surgery - fusion - hold progression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What time frame of onset in scolioisis is a definite indication for MRI

A

eary onset (<10yrs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Child back pain - reasons to CT

A

?osseous tumour
sondylolysis
history of truama
focal back pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Spondylolysis - what is it?

A

Spondylolysis is a defect in the pars interarticularis,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

difference between facet joint and spondylolyis

A

facet smooth
spndylo rough

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

MRI changes in a Pars defect

A

On MRI, there will be altered signal in the pars interarticularis (high signal on T2-weighted images and low signal on T1-weighted images) in pars defect.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Discitis is characterised by …..

A

disc space narrowing with end-plate irregularity and sclerosis.

may take two weeks to show on radiographs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

OSteoid osteoma appears as what on radiographs/v

A

central lucent nidus surrounded by sclerotic bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

cause of back pain and is typically worse at night, exacerbated by alcohol and relieved by non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs

A

OSteoid osteoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Osteoblastoma is what kind of tumour

what does it produce

A

is a benign osseous tumour that produces osteoid and wormian bone.

slow growing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Appearance of Osteoblastoma on MRI

A

low T1 and intermediate to high T2.

Signal void on all sequences related to matrix calcification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what can Langerhand cells histiocytosis cause in the spine

A

complete collapse of the vertebral body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Metastatic disease in the spine can be caused by what conditions in paeds
lymphoma, leukaemia, neuroblastoma, Ewing's sarcoma and rhabdomyosarcoma.
26
Kyphosis with anterior wedging and end-plate irregularity are typical findings in XXXX
Scheuermann's disease.
27
In infancy, torticollis is usually due to a
benign sternomastoid tumour (fibromatosis colli)
28
rotatory atlantoaxial fixation - what is it?
C1 is rotated and fixed. Out of alignment, not symmetrical
29
atlantoaxial dislocation - what is it
complete disruptin of the articular mechanism. likely truama but also congential segmentation of spine.
30
Torticollis and atlantoaxial subluxation may be secondary to retropharyngeal infection. what is the syndrome called
This is known as Griesel's syndrome.
31
Sandifer syndrome
Severe gastro-oesophageal reflux can cause abnormal posturing of the head and neck which may resemble torticollis.
32
Note the herniation of elongated cerebellar tonsils through the foramen magnum - what could be the problem?
Chiari 1 malformation
33
The hallmark of DDH is
acetabular dysplasia resulting in a shallow or dysmorphic socket for the femoral head
34
Is DDH present at birth?
No, only after first few months
35
early DDH treatment
abduction device short treatment (2-4 months) Normal or near normal hip likely
36
late DDH diagnosis considered when
4 months
37
complications of DDH
Osteoarthritis
38
Ortolani ad Barlow manoevres - WHEN?
DONE AT 6 WEEKS and birth
39
Ortolani and Barlow are done when
birth and 6 weeks
40
Ortolani and Barlow - which is which
Ortolani isto reduce the hip
41
what imaging is used for DDH based on patients age?
under 1 - US over 1 - CT or MRI Need to see the floor of acetabulum and cant if ossified
42
DDH US need to show
Labrum, coronol plane lower limb of the ilium
43
DDH Graf types of hip
4 types T1 and 2 - centred hips Types 3 and 4, decentred
44
biggest cause of intusseption
idiopathic
45
complications of intussepction
obstruction and ischmaeia
46
intussuseption associations
coeliac cystic fibrosis
47
why does intusseption present with rectal bleeding?
meckels
48
underlying causes of intussuseption?
meckels duplication polyp or lymphoma
49
plain film in intusseption?
can appear normal
50
What blood vessels to chekc in US scan of intusseption?
Always check the superior mesenteric artery (SMA)/superior mesenteric vein (SMV) orientation, if you can, during your ultrasound.
51
Factors contributing to the likely successful reduciton of intussuseptio
acute onset and scanning Vascular flow within the intussuseptio
52
which side of intussuseption is harder to reduce
left sided more difficult
53
prior to intersusseption suflation - what needs to be checked locally?
surgeons and anaesthetist available to do procedure and happy to IV access is a must
54
insufflation pressures
80 to 120mmHg
55
conditions that may cause intussuseption>
meckels peutz jeghers Henoch- Schoenlein
56
Cuases of acute abdo pain are categorised as what
surgical and non surgical
57
examples of non surgical casues of abdo pain
Gastroenteritis Diabetic Ketoacidosis Pneumonia / pharyngitis
58
aim of imaging in abdominal pain?
to work out who needs abx or surgery?
59
age related diagnosis - Nenonatal abdominal pain
Intestinal obstruction Malrotation with midgut volvulus Meconium ileus Hirschsprung's disease Bowel atresia Necrotising enterocolitis
60
age related diagnosis - Toddler abdominal pain
Malrotation +/- volvulus Intussusception Incarcerated hernia Gastroenteritis Haemolytic uraemic syndrome Meckel's diverticulum Urinary tract infection Constipation
61
age related diagnosis - Older school aged child abdominal pain
Appendicitis Mesenteric adenitis Bowel obstruction Inflammatory bowel disease Henoch-Schönlein purpura Urinary tract infection and obstruction Cholecystitis and pancreatitis Constipation Primary peritonitis Gynaecological causes Non-abdominal causes such as pneumonia and diabetic ketoacidosis
62
Until proven otherwise bilious vomitting is considered as WHAT until proven others
Surgical cause
63
Abdo pain and very high fevers (over 38.5) consider what
mesenteric adenitis over appendicitis
64
when should we do an abdominal radiograph in acute abdo pain
acute obstruction renal colic perforation unclear following initial assessment
65
is intestinal perforation more or less common at neonatal age
more common. as older child will have clear peritonitis with it
66
Psoas shadows and properitoneal fat stripes their absence suggests
indicate retroperitoneal inflammation, acute appendicitis
67
How is obstruction classified
mechanical or functional
68
normal size of appendix
less than 6mm
69
appendicitis Peri appendicular fluid may be a sign of
imminent perforation.
70
what happens to the mesentry in mesenteric adentiis
very vascular
71
Meckel's diverticulum is a true diverticulum arising from the
anti-mesenteric border of the distal ileum
72
Meckel's diverticulum rule of 2's
It occurs in 2% of the population It is two times more common in males It is 2 inches long It rises 2 feet from ileocaecal valve 2% become symptomatic Most patients present within the first 2 years of life Two out of three cases have ectopic gastric or pancreatic tissue
73
most common complication from Meckel's diverticulum is
GI haemorrhage
74
Meckels on US
incompressible, blind-ending tubular structure with hypervascularity on Doppler
75
Indications for a cranial USS
Prematurity low birth weight birth asphyxia clotting disorders seizures congenital abnormality large or small head circumference
76
Cranial US reviews what structures
Parenchyma CSF spaces
77
cranial US - grey matter is hypo or hyper
hypo echoic
78
Over what times of gestation does sulci form ?
Sulcal development begins during the 5th month of gestation. Primary sulci are present by the 7th month. In the 8th and 9th months, there is bending and branching of the 1° sulci with the appearance of 2° and 3° sulci.
79
Brainstem echogenicity
anterior is echogenic psoterior
80
what are the US cranial views needed
frontal lobes and then horns munro and 3rd ventricle bodies then trigone of lateral ventricles occipital lobes then sagittal - mid, lat ventricles then extreme lateral ventricles
81
what level is the US cranial ventricular index measures
level of foramen munro
82
if there is echogenic anterior to WHAT consider haemorrhage on paediatric ultrasound
Munro
83
In a term infant, a normal RI is
greater than 0.6.
84
UIS appearance of cerebral oedema
slit like ventricles increased parenchymal echogenicity, poor definition of sulci and gyri, and decreased vascular pulsations.
85
cavum septum pallucidem at birth
normal finding. 50% of babies it.
86
Bilateral choroid plexus cysts indicate .....
trisomy
87
Pre term or term Periventricular blush and asymmetry of lateral ventricles
Pre term more likely
88
most common US cranial pre term pathologies
intraventricular-germinal matrix haemorrhage (GMH) periventricular leukomalacia (PVL)
89
GMH is also called
subependymal haemorrhage
90
neonates with IVH-GMH subsequently develop an associated parenchymal flare due to
venous infarction
91
What are the sequelae of Germinal matrix haemorrhage / IVH in the preterm neonate?
Hydrocephalus Ventriculitis Porencephalic cyst Trapped fourth ventricle Spinal canal dilatation
92
post hypoxic ischaemic neonatal brain injury how long for cysts to be made `
2 - 4 weeks
93
At what age in pre term does the water shed area move to the periphery of the brain
36 weeks
94
hydrocephalus vs dilatation from atrophy hydrocaphalus features
temporal horns also dilated 4th centricle dilatation cortical sulci effacement raised iCP
95
causes of hydrocephalus
Congenital malformations, such as vein of Galen malformation or aqueduct stenosis Rarely neoplasia, for example posterior fossa tumours or choroid plexus papilloma Infection Benign infantile hydrocephalus Chiari malformation Meningomyelocoele
96
causes of fetus meningioencephalitis infection
Cytomegalovirus (CMV) Toxoplasma gondii Rubella virus Herpes simplex (HSV) type 2 virus (known as toxoplasmosis/rubella/cytomegalovirus/herpes simplex (TORCH) complex)
97
common infections for neonatal meningitis are.....
E Coli and Group B strep or HiB for 2 months to 2 years
98
Congenital malformations that Errors in histogenesis (development of tissues)
Vein of Galen malformation Tuberous sclerosis Sturge-Weber syndrome Neurofibromatosis
99
Congenital malformations Errors in organogenesis
Neural tube closure (3-4 weeks gestational age) Diverticulation (5-10 weeks gestational age) Neuronal proliferation (2-6 months gestational age) Sulcation and migration (2-5 months gestational age) Myelination (7 months in utero - 2 years)
99
Congenital malformations Errors in organogenesis of brain
Neural tube closure (3-4 weeks gestational age) Diverticulation (5-10 weeks gestational age) Neuronal proliferation (2-6 months gestational age) Sulcation and migration (2-5 months gestational age) Myelination (7 months in utero - 2 years)
100
Features of Dandy walker complex
Large fluid filled posterior fossa cyst (dilated fourth ventricle) Small or absent cerebellar vermis Small cerebellar hemispheres displaced superiorly Elevated tentorium Lateral ventricles and third ventricle may be dilated
101
What are the common palpable masses in an neonate
Ovarian mass hydronephrosis
102
what are the common cuases of a palpable abdominal mas in an infant
Pyloric tumour constipation hydronephrosis intussusception haptosplenomegaly
103
young female - abdo mass first line investigation is
Ultrasound
104
paediatric hydronephrosis - next imaging step?
Bladder outlet obstruction must be excluded. The next stage is to proceed to a micturating cystourethrogram (MCUG) (after antibiotics).
105
Renal tumours
Wilms tumour retroperitoneal adrenal neuroblastoma pelvic rhabdomyosarcoma
106
Liver tumours
hepatoblastoma HCC
107
the developing GI tract is divided into three parts: when
3 weeks
108
The ventral aspect of the foregut gives rise to the WHAT and its dorsal to the oesophagus.
respiratory primordium
109
Skin, central and peripheral nervous system is what embryonic layer
ECTOderm
110
GI and repsiraotry lining is what embryology layer
Endoderm think endoscopic
111
Muskuloskeletal
mesoderm
112
diffrence between an enteric cyst and neuroenteric cyst
neuroenteric cyst involved the ectoderm enteric only the endoderm
113
formes frustes TOF vs duplications
duplications are always posterior TOF
114
Oesophageal lung
In this condition, the right main bronchus arises from the distal oesophagus. Patients present with recurrent chest infections.
115
double bubble sign
duodenal atresia
116
what are the VACTERL associations
V: vertebral defects A: anal atresia C: cardiac defects TE: tracheoesophageal fistula R: renal anomalies L: limb abnormalities
117
what GI defects are ax with Downs syndrome
Duodenal atresia or stenosis Annular pancreas VACTERL Hirschsprung's disease Small bowel malrotation
118
twisted ribbon sign
twisting of the mesentry around the SMA
119
Conditions with malrotation
exomphalos or gastroschisis Congenital diaphragmatic hernia (often)
120
Hirshsprungs Short vs long segment
Short - dilated normal bowel. Coned abnormal bowel . Long - long affected length. Rare
121
inferior one-third of the anal canal is derived from the X
proctodaeum.
122
inferior one-third rectum is supplied by the:
Inferior rectal arteries Branches of the pudendal artery
123
Imperforate anus and anorectal anomalies which include:
Anal atresia Anal stenosis Rectal atresia Ectopic anus ('fistula')
124
Proliferation with hypertrophy of the mesenteric fat (fat wrapping) is a finding associated with
with inflamed bowel
125
Mucosal oedema, avid mucosal enhancement, mesenteric oedema and enhancing reactive lymph nodes are more commonly seen in ACUTE OR CHRONIC INFLAMMATION
ACUTE
126
Causes of abnormally shaped vertebral bodies Conditions with normal bone density
Deficient ossification of vertebral bodies (hypoplasia with anterior wedging/kyphosis, coronal or sagittal clefting) Hypoplastic peg Deficient ossification of pedicles Genetic, structural, congenital and acquired abnormalities of shape
127
Causes of abnormally shaped vertebral bodies include: Conditions with reduced bone density and vertebral body collapse
Osteoporosis Fracture
128
Odontoid hypoplasia is seen in
Achondroplasia Diastrophic dysplasia Metaphyseal chondrodysplasia (type McKusick) Kniest dysplasia Metatropic dysplasia Mucolipidoses Mucopolysaccharidoses (MPS) Pseudoachondroplasia Spondyloepiphyseal dysplasia congenita
129
Absent ossification of vertebral bodies
Achondrogenesis type I Atelosteogenesis Dyssegmental dysplasia Hypochondrogenesis Hypophosphatasia Opsismodysplasia
130
Cervical kyphosis results from hypoplasia of the anterior parts of one or several vertebral bodies seen in which conditions
telosteogenesis (Fig 1) Campomelic dysplasia (Fig 2) Chondrodysplasia punctata Diastrophic dysplasia (Fig 3) Kniest dysplasia Larsen syndrome Spondyloepiphyseal dysplasia congenita
131
Campomelic dysplasia means
(bent limbs)
132
Paeds vertebral body shape Beaks:
MPS type IV (Morquio)
133
Paeds vertebral body shape Bullets:
achondroplasia
134
Paeds vertebral body shape Codfish:
osteogenesis imperfecta
135
Paeds vertebral body shape Diamonds:
metatropic dysplasia
136
Paeds vertebral body shape Hooks:
Hurler syndrome (MPS type IH)
137
Paeds vertebral body shape Pears:
spondyloepiphyseal dysplasia congenita (SEDC)
138
Paeds vertebral body shape Scalloped:
MPS, achondroplasia, neurofibromatosis
139
Paeds vertebral body shape Wafers:
thanatophoric dysplasia
140
Ataxia and absent reflexes are the clinical signs of ....
Guillain–Barré syndrome
141
a solid tumour of the spine in paeds MRI will look like
hyperintense on T2W hypointense on T1W imaging Is a well-defined mass enhances gadolinium associated with a tumoral cyst May have a central area of necrosis, which has the MR characteristics of cyst formation
142
MRI haemorrhage does what intensities over time
Within several days of the haemorrhage, the state of oxygenation will change to deoxyhaemoglobin (which is hypointense on T1W and T2W imaging), and further to intracellular methaemoglobin, and the area of haemorrhage will become hyperintense on T1W and hypointense on T2W imaging.
143
Axial T1W imaging shows a flow void within the cord indicating the presence of a
blood vessel and an arteriovenous malformation.
144
Intramedullary masses have the following radiological features:
Enlargement of the spinal cord in all three planes The spinal cord above and below the mass is positioned normally within the bony spinal canal The margins of the mass may be well defined or poorly defined
145
Extramedullary masses have the following radiological features
The margins of the mass are always well defined Small masses can be seen separated from the cord by CSF Large masses will obliterate the space between the mass and the cord
146
1. IntramedullarY - TUMOURS
pilocytic astrocytoma, ependymoma and ganglioglioma
147
Extramedullary CORD TUMOURS
neurofibroma, schwannoma and disseminated leptomeningeal metastases
148
The MR features of a discitis are
the same as in an adult. The disc space will be narrow and the disc will have both prolonged T2 (hyperintense on T2W images) and T1 (hypointense on T1W images) signals and will enhance
149
STAGE age t1 t2 DRAW THE TABLE FOR THESE ACROSS HYPERACUTE ACUTE EARLY SUBACUTE LATE SUBACUTE CHRONIC
Hyperacute <24 h Isointense Mildly hyperintense Acute 1-3 d Mildly hypointense Hypointense Early subacute 3-7 d Hyperintense Hypointense Late subacute 7-14 d Hyperintense Hyperintense Chronic >14 d Hypointense Hypointense
150
ASSOCATION of NG2 and intramedullary tumours
pilocytic astrocytomas of the cord are seen in children with NF1 and ependymomas in children with NF
151
Thoracic, lumbar locations; conus (especially myxopapillary) Centra Well-demarcated Potential hemosiderin 'cap sign' on T2 Can have drop metastases diagnosis
ependymoma
152
Cervicomedullary junction Eccentric Can calcify Heterogeneous T1 Little peritumoral oedema diagnosis
gnagliiogllioma
153
Well circumscribed Cyst/slow voids Can be haemorrhagic Vigorous enhancement diagnosis
haemangioblastoma
154
Cervicothoracic junction Eccentric Cystic with enhancing nodule/infiltrative with irregular enhancement and ill-defined margins diagnosis
astrocytoma
155
round fusiform well-defined masses that can expand out of the neural foramen giving them a dumbbell appearance. They are usually isointense on TI and hyperintense on T2 with homogeneous enhancement post-contrast.
neurofibromas
156
when does malrotation presentations normally occur
first month of life
157
bile stained vomitting in a neonate is what until proven otherwsie
malrotation
158
what does an abdominal radiograph offer in malrotation
nothing
159
does US exclude malrotation?
no thought the duodenum passing behind the sma is highly reassuring
160
what is the relationship of the mesentry and DJ flexure to consider malrotation
should swing under. The DJ flexure should be at the same level as the duodenal cap
161
commonest gastrointestinal emergency in neonates.
NEC
162
when does NEC occur
second or third week of life
163
what happens to bowel wall blood flow in NEC
more and more blood flow until sloughing leaving only the serosa intact ischaemia wall becomes thin walled and no blood
164
in NEC - what signs are there to look for
Pneumotosis intestinalis portal venous gas free intraperitoneal gas
165
in neonatal abdo xr - bowel width can be compared to
widtth of L1
166
how to differentiate intramural vs intraluminal gas in NEC on US
intramural gas is all the way around the bowel. ` intraluminal rises to the top
167
if on fluoro there is uncertainty of level or position of DJ flexure what can you do later?
abdo film to see if the caecum is seen in the righ tplace
168
newborn with lung mass differentials include
Congenital cystic adenomatoid malformation Bronchopulmonary sequestration Congenital diaphragmatic hernia Lung filled with retained amniotic fluid secondary to a congenital lobar emphysema or bronchial atresia
169
how to differentiate congenital cystic adnematoid malformation in the lung from sequestration
blood supply Sequestration from the systemic Also cysts in CCAM.
170
what is Transient Respiratory Distress of the Newborn
delay in normal physiological clearance
171
typical of meconium aspiration syndrome chest radiograph
Normal or slightly overinflated lungs Extensive patchy lung shadowing with some peripheral overinflation Often cardiac enlargement due to concomitant myocardial ischaemia
172
differential for meconium aspiration
amniotic fluid apsiraiton this clears more quickly and no complications such as pulmonary hypertension and secondary infection
173
Overinflated lungs Course reticular shadowing 'Barrel' shaped chest chest radiograph
bronchopulmonary dysplasia
174
patent ductus arteriosus causes what kind of shunting
left to righ
175
why can the patent ductus arteriosus remain open in hypoxia ?
hypoxia which has led to higher pulmonary artery pressures due to failure of pulmonary artery resistance to fall after delivery
176
Well-recognised but rare complication of surfactant treatment (due to capillary engorgement)
pulmonary haemorrhage
177
features of pulmonary hypoplasia
Small volume chest Hazy lungs due to associated pulmonary oedema Clinical difficulty in ventilating (high pressures required) and poor oxygenation
178
Common causes of pulmonary hypoplasia include
Oligohydramnios in pregnancy Lung compression, e.g. by tumour or diaphragmatic hernia or effusion or large heart Thoracic cage compression (e.g. bone dysplasia) or muscular disease (e.g. dystrophy)
179
Unilateral Pulmonary Hypoplasia/Agenesis features
Often asymptomatic Can be discovered incidentally May show associated rib or vertebral anomalies association with oesophageal atresia and tracheal abnormalities More serious if aplasia is right-sided (due to severity of associated cardiac anomalies)
180
Features of pulmonary lymphangiectasia
Very rare condition Intractable respiratory distress with cyanosis Survival beyond neonatal period unlikely May be isolated or associated with generalised lymphatic problems Radiological appearances are a combination of distended lymphatics leading to streaky lung and chylous pleural effusion Can be associated with Noonan's syndrome and Turner's syndrome
181
right to left shunting through the patent ductus arteriosus - radiograph features
Right to left shunting Poor lung vessel visualisation Right heart enlargement (due to raised right heart pressures, tricuspid incompetence and myocardial dysfunction)
182
at what time can bronchopulmonray dysplasia be diagnosed
at least 28 days of age caused by surfactant deficinecy, prolonged ventilation and prematurity
183
what are the surgical causes of neonatal respiratory distress
Oesophageal atresia and tracheo-oesophageal fistula Congenital diaphragmatic hernia Congenital cystic adenomatoid malformation of the lung Pulmonary sequestration Enteric duplication cysts Diaphragmatic eventration Bronchogenic cyst Congenital lobar emphysema
184
imaging post chest radiograph confirming oesophageal atresia
normally just an echo for sid eof aortic arch and cardiac anomalies ahead of surgery
185
mediastinal mass which is displacing the trachea to the left differentials
bronchogenic cyst cystic hygroma enlarged lymph nodes
186
We must define where in the chest the abnormality exists. The fact that the lesion extends below the diaphragm means it must be XXXX on chest XR
posteriorly situated
187
if the chest drain is too medial it can damage what structure
phrenic nerve
188
how to determine laterality of pathology on a unilateral hypodense lung
inspiratory vs expiratory film: no change is abnormal dense normal vessels: normal low vessels: abnormal
189
Causes of a large hyperlucent hemithorax
Compensatory emphysema Obstructive emphysema Pneumothorax
190
categories of obstructive emphysema
INtraluminal - mucus, foreign body intramural - haemangioma, bronchomalaica extraluminal - bronchogenic cyst, lymph
191
hyperlucent hemithorax primary abnormality of pulmonary blood flow
Pulmonary arterial hypoplasia Unilateral pulmonary stenosis Cardiac shunt procedure with unequal pulmonary blood flow Pulmonary embolism (rare in children)
192
The presence of the small lung, decreased pulmonary vascularity and evidence of bronchiolitis obliterans is often referred to as
McCleod’s or the Swyer-James syndrome. A hyperlucent small lung In association with a previous history of pneumonia It is not unusual to demonstrate abnormalities in the 'normal' lung on ventilation/perfusion imaging and CT scanning
193
Increased translucency of both hemithoraces is commonly associated with hyperinflation of the lungs and may be related to
Exuberant inspiration Hyperinflated lungs, which may be obstructive or non-obstructive Decreased pulmonary blood flow (may be normal lung expansion) Free intrathoracic air
194
Non-obstructive hyperinflation This is also referred to as physiological hyperinflation. causes
acidosis and congential heart disease mechanical ventilation dehydration (through oligaemia)
195
obstructive hyperinflation Peripheral airway obstruction, such as
Meconium aspiration Bronchiolitis Asthma Bronchopulmonary dysplasia Cystic fibrosis (CF) Immunologic deficiency
196
obstructive hyperinflation central airway obstruction
Tracheal foreign body Tracheal compression Tracheobronchomalacia
197
Peribronchial cuffing is best seen in the
right middle lobe.
197
Peribronchial cuffing is best seen in the
right middle lobe.
198
oligaemia and boot shaped heart think
Tetrology of fallot
199
Anterior tracheal and posterior oesophageal impressions, with bilateral lateral oesophageal impressions Innominate artery with left aortic arch what vascular anomaly is this?
double aortic arch
200
Post oblique oesophageal impression and normal trachea
RSA with left aortic arch
201
Post tracheal impression and anterior oesophageal impression
pulmonary artery sling
202
Anterior tracheal impression and normal oesophagus
innominate artery with left aortic arch
203
Anterior tracheal and posterior oblique oesophageal impressions
right aortic arch with lsa
204
anatomy relations of the pulmonary artery bronchus and vein at the hilum on left and right
Note that the left pulmonary artery crosses over the left main bronchus becoming posterior to the left main bronchus. This is unlike the right pulmonary artery which passes anterior to the right main bronchus.
205
Categories of enlarged lymph nodes
Infection: lower respiratory tract infection, mycoplasma, tuberculosis (TB), fungal Neoplasm: lymphoma/leukaemia and secondary neoplasms such as osteosarcoma, Ewing's, metastasis Cystic fibrosis Histiocytosis Sarcoidosis
206
Cold agglutinins are positive on blood testing
think mycoplasma
207
unilateral hilar adenopathy +/- paratracheal adenopathy.
TB`
208
pulmonary valve stenosis causes unilateral or bilateral hilar enlargement
bilateral
209
what is cystic fibrosis - gene and how it transpires
Auto Recessive mutation of fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator gene 1 in 2500
210
cystic fibrosis - associated abnormalities
Pancreatic insufficiency Gastrointestinal and hepatobiliary disease Nasal polyps Sinusitis Infertility
211
Cystic fibrosis - pathogens for pneumonia
Staph aureus and pseudomonas
212
most common presentation of gastro-intestinal disease in cystic fibrosis is with bowel obstruction in the newborn due to XXXX
meconium ileus others volvulus fibrosing colonopathy intussusception Peptic ulcer colitis rectal prolapse
213
complications of meconium ileus
occurs in 50% of infants meconium peritonitis ileal atresia perforation volvulus
214
CT scan shows the liver has a lower attenuation than the spleen consistent with....
fatty liver
215
if a patient has meconium ileus, 90% will have
Cystic fibrosis
216
prtoprtion of paeds tumours are neuro?
15% second commonest tumour
217
supra vs infra tumours based on age
supra more comon in under 3 infra more common 4 to 10 and over 10 the same
218
Raised ICP is a sign of aggreessive or insiduous brain tumours?
aggressive
219
symptoms of cranial sutures unfused
Increasing head circumference Nausea/vomiting Irritability
220
If sutures are fused brain malingnant features are
Headaches Visual disturbances Seizures and focal neurological signs and symptoms, such as ataxia and cranial nerve (CN) palsies
221
cOMMONEST CHILDHOOD BRAIN TUMOURS
atrocytic tumours (50%) then primitive neurectoderman tumours - infratentorial medulloblastoma - supratentorail PNET
222
Commonest adult brain tumours
high grade astrocytic tumours such as anaplastic astrocytoma Glioblastoma multiforme
223
Neonatal tumours are...
teratoma, hypothalamic astrocytoma choroid plexus papilloma and PNET.
224
brain cancer - MRI sequence and protocol
bolus of paramagnetic contrast and should include post-contrast T1W images. Coronal FLAIR DWI and ADS axial T1 T2 SPine sag T1 (post gad) ax T1
225
Which imaging modality is the modality of choice when there is high suspicion of an intracranial tumour in a child and why?
MRI
226
propensity to spread via the CSF -tumours will appear as
resulting in either multiple (usually) enhancing lesions in the subarachnoid space and/or diffuse smooth or nodular enhancement of the pia mater over the brain
227
tumours have the propensity to spread via the CSF
Primitive neuroectodermal tumour e.g. medulloblastoma, supratentorial PNET, Pineoblastoma/pineocytoma Supra and infratentorial ependymoma Germ cell tumours High grade astrocytic tumours e.g. anaplastic astrocytoma, glioblastoma multiforme (GBM) Choroid plexus tumours e.g. papilloma and carcinoma
228
common cerebellar tumours
Medulloblastoma Astrocytoma - low grade (e.g. pilocytic astrocytoma) and high grade (e.g. anaplastic astrocytoma) Ependymoma
229
common brainstem tumours
Pontine glioma Tectal plate glioma
230
most common infratentorial paediatric brain tumour
medulloblastoma
231
why does medulloblstoma have solid CT apperaance and cuase hydrocephalus
invasdes vermis and 4th ventricle. made up of tightly compact round cells
232
grades of astrocytoma
1 to 4 1 juvenil pilocytic astrocytoma 4 - anaplastic astrocytoma
233
ASTROCYTOMA FOUND WHERE
MIDLINE STRUCTURE
234
ASSOCIATIONS astrocytoma
NF1
235
what are the three appearances of an astrocytoma?
Cyst with mural enhancing nodule: 50% (Fig 1) Rim-enhancing mass with necrotic/cystic centre: 40-45% (Fig 2) Non-necrotic solid mass
236
astrocytoma enhance
YES
237
what density is astrocytomas
can be low density most of th etime. high grade can be isodense to grey matter though - increased cellularity
238
what is the fluid in cystic astrocytomas like
slight denser than csf
239
who gets affected by ependymoma?
kids 1 to 5 slightly more boys
240
what disease is true (rare) and pseudo- (more common) perivascular rosettes,
Ependymomas
241
why does ependymoma present with lower cranial nerve palsies ?
extension through the Lushka and Magendie formaina
242
appearance of infratnetorial ependymoma
clacification and small cysts invades 4th ventricle and expands it invades lushka and magendie out through foramen magnum enhances around necrotic areas
243
Ependyomoma MRI features
predominantly iso to hypointense to GM on T1W especially heterogeneous on T2W imaging iso to hyperintense solid components, hyperintense intratumoural small cysts and hypointense areas due to calcification or blood products Mild to moderate heterogeneous enhancement
244
How to differentiate a medulloblastoma and ependymoma infratentorial lesion
Does it invade lusdka / magendie
245
features of glioma to wathc out for
surround the bsailar artery can compress the 4th ventricle invades the pons, infiltartes
246
Tectal plate gliomas are assocaited with
NF1
247
Subependymal giant cell astroxytosis is only found in which disease
Tuberous sclerosis
248
differentiate suependyaml astrocytoma and hamartoma that look similar
the subependymal astrocytoma will grow
249
pyloric stenosis presents when
6 weeks
250
where to find the pylorus on US
behind the gallbladder
251
pylorus measurements taken in which plane
longitudinal
252
Laryngitis causes can be divided by
Location of obstruction
253
Supraglottic
Laryngomalacia Epiglottitis Foreign body Trauma
254
Glottic
Laryngeal web vocal cord palsy recurrent respiratory papillomata foreign body trauma
255
Subglottic
Laryngo tracheo bronchitis subglottic stenosis tracheomalacia haemangioma abnormal vessels complete tracheal ring foreign body truama
256
acute epiglottitis is uncommon now due to
HiB vaccine
257
tracheobroncholmalacia - hwat happens to the aireway in expiration
it collapses
258
Risk factors for tracheobronchomalacia include
prematurity, tracheo-oesophageal fistula, vascular ring and congenital heart disease
259
The laryngeal web is usually located
between the cords anteriorly.
260
chest xr - posterior junctional line suggests what?
hyperinflated lungs present
261
mbryologically thymus is derived from
the third pharyngeal pouch
262
At what age won't you see the thymus on a chest xr
6 plsus often after 3 though
263
thymus size will change acutely with
illness reduces with endogenous steroids. Cna then get rebound much bigger
264
22q11 deletion syndromes eg
DiGeorge/congenital thymic aplasia, velo-cardio-facial syndrome (VCFS) or Shprintzen syndrome
265
22q11 deletion syndromes caused by what
failure of normal development of the third and fourth branchial arches Absence of the thymus and parathyroids, congenital heart disease, oesophageal atresia and facial abnormalities
266
5 normal features of cxr thymus
Widened superior mediastinum Notch at the junction with the heart Smooth, well-defined, convex lateral border Scalloped/wavy left lateral border cause by indentation by the anterior rib ends No mass effect or adjacent structure,
267
which embryological layer gives rise to the kidneys
dorsal mesoderm
268
What are the common kidney congenital abnormalities?
Autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease (PCKD) Autosomal dominant PCKD Multicystic dysplastic kidneys (MCDK) Potter syndrome Duplication of the urinary collecting system Nephroblastomatosis: persistence of undifferentiated metanephric blastema cells Wilms' associations Ureterocoele
269
What is the anatomical differnece between recessive and dominant polycystic kidney disease?
Recessive - collecting ducts
270
how does wilms tumour come about?
nephric blastema remains undifferentiated
271
syndromic associations of WIlms
Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome and hemihypertrophy.
272
nship of nephtogenic rests, Nephroblastomatosis and wilms
normal cells that involute. nephroblastomatosis is benign involvement. Wilms is malignant
273
multiple arteries to a kidney due to
failure of resorptoin of vessles as the kidneys move higher up the abdomen
274
what is crossed fused ectopia for a kidney
This variant results when one kidney crosses over and fuses with the contralateral kidney, and both ascend together to form a unilateral kidney.
275
what classic feature distinguishes Wilms tumour from neuroblastoma?
Vascular invasion
276
Under 6 months - freqwuency of uti to need an US scan
just the one
277
filler bladder - normal wall thickness
up to 3mm
278
what pathology is looked for on US bladder
Thickening of the bladder wall Ureterocoele Dilated distal ureter(s) Pelvic masses
279
Antenatal hydronephrosis
calyceal dilattion parenchymal thinning cortico-medullary differentitation increased parenchymal echogenicity renal cysts ureteric dilatation oligohydraminos
280
Antenatal hydronephrosis - what are the markers of poor prognosis ?
renal dysplasia and oligohydramnios
281
imaging options for suspected renal obstruction in postnatal baby
MAG3 MRI IV U
282
If vesicoureteric reflux is susspeced
direct imaging - fluro, radionuclide, cystosonography indirect - voiding mag3
283
what should be done ig posterior urethral valves are suspected?
catheter prophylactic abx voiding cystourethrogram
284
what is the Weigert-Meyer rule
up obstruct, low flow(reflux) There is obstruction of the upper renal moiety and ureter by an ectopic ureterocele situated at an abnormal ureteric insertion, as illustrated: the dilated upper moiety pelvicalyceal system is associated with a tortuous, dilated ureter and an obstructing ureterocele The lower moiety vesicoureteric junction is normally sited, superior and lateral to the upper moiety ureteric opening, but is prone to VUR
285
how to differentiatie hydronephrosis from MCDK
MCDK has lots of cysts so the areas aren't connected
286
The most frequent cause for a solitary normal kidney which exhibits compensatory hypertrophy is ?
complete involution of a contralateral MCDK.
287
commonest cause of haematuria in children
UTI Calculi Trauma
288
Glomerular causes of haematuria: charachterised by what features
abnromal red cell morphology (distorted as traverse the basement membrane) Proteinuria red cell and tubular casts in urine non-urological cause if most frequent OFTEN MICROhaematuis
289
non-Glomerular causes of haematuria: charachterised by what features
presence of intact red cells in the urine urological cause is most frequent macrohaematuria most common
290
Cuases of microhaematuria
Glomerulonephritis (various types) Familial nephritis (Alport's disease) IgA nephropathy Poststreptococcal Henoch-Schönlein purpura
291
causes of macrohaematuria
Urinary tract infection Trauma (including iatrogenic) Calculi Tumours Vascular lesions, for example renal venous or arterial thrombosis and arteriovenous connection
292
What is Henoch Schonlein purpura
acute vasculitis affecting small vessels in children. It is caused by a systemic allergic response, which may be caused by conditions such as infections, insect stings and drug reactions.
293
UTI accounts for what proportion of macro haematuria in kids
25%
294
7 types of calculi
rate, struvite, cystine, calcium oxalate, calcium phosphate, matrix (mucoprotein) and xanthene
295
can tumours cause haematuria?
yes, but very rare. Wilms tumour. Rhabdomyosarcoma normally obstuction. angiomyoliopomas, possible
296
Renal vein thrombosis risk factors in neonates
dehydrated and hypotension
297
US fetures of renal vein thrombosis
Enlargement of one or both kidneys Reduced echogenicity in the kidney owing to oedema, but echogenic intrarenal haemorrhage may be seen Reduced/absent flow in the renal vein with or without thrombus Diminished/reversed diastolic flow in the renal artery
298
recommended scheme of investigation of an atypical UTI in a child aged <6 months is
Sonography A DMSA scan (after 4-6 months for scarring) An MCUG
299
DMSA binds to what?
proximal tubular cells
300
coloiform bacteria is typcial or atypcial for uti
atypical
301
how is hypertension meausured in kids
x3 occasions where bp is greater than 95% percentile for age
302
what is the main cause of hypertension in paeds
renal pathology - RAS, renovascular malformations. neonate - occlusion from catheter over 12 think drugs or renal parenchymal disease
303
in US kidneys for hypertension what needs to be examined?
Renal size The presence of parenchymal scarring` The presence of collecting system dilatation The presence of adrenal masses Examination of the aorta
304
In Renal US - if the RI is 0.5 (normal is 0.7) what are the thoughts on diagnosis.
more of a parvus et tardus waveform. Upstream dilatation (could be in aorta) - no pulsitile waveform
305
what is the difference between dimercaptosuccinic acid and mercaptoacetyltriglycine for renal studies.
DMSA stays in proximal convoluted tubules - can show defects like scarring. Mercaptoacetyltriglycine - for dynamic studies of tubular secretion. Perfusion, transit and drainage
306
most common renovascular disorder encountered in children is
fibromuscular dysplasia
307
differnetials for FMD
Williams NF1
308
what takes up MIBG?
Neurblastoma Haeo Normal adrenal medulla Ganglionneuroma
309
why are first and second ribs spared in coarctation rib notching
supplkied by the sublcavians
310
Renal cysts can be classified into which two groups?
Genetic disease and non genetic disease
311
genetic causes of cystic kidneys
Autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease (ARPKD) Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD) Tuberous sclerosis Juvenile nephrophthisis Glomerulocystic kidney disease Cysts with multiple malformation syndromes
312
non genetic causes of cystic kidney
simple dysplastic kidney Multilocular renal cysts CKD calyceal diverticulum Medullary cystic kidney medullary sponge kidney
313
which imaging is used for renal cysts
US MRI NucMed
314
extra renal cysts - look in which organs
pancreas, spleen and liveer
315
The most important feature of ARPKD is that
both kidneys are enlarged and this diagnosis should never be made if the kidneys are normal or small in size.
316
ARPKD - what happens to liver and biliary tree
hepatic fibrosis and cystic dilatation of the biliary tree look for portal hypertension ect
317
bone lesions - over 40 differential diagnosis includes
infective mets myeloma lymphoma
318
Types of matrix mineralisation
osseous chondral ground glass
319
Ground glass bone matrix mineralisation is what
'Ground-glass' density due to numerous fine spicules of bone is seen within the lesion. Punctate calcium is also possible.
320
slow growing lesions are which
Cysts/geodes Simple bone cysts (SBC) Enchondroma Resolving LCH Brodie's abscess
321
types of cortical response to a tumour
Expanded = scaplloped - Chondral and fibrous trabeculated - cysts/GCT
322
Types of periosteal reaction and their cancers (solid/cortical thickening) onion-skin (spiculated) Aneurysmal bone cyst (periosteal buttress)
Osteoid osteoma (solid/cortical thickening) Ewing's sarcoma (onion-skin) Osteosarcoma (spiculated) Aneurysmal bone cyst (periosteal buttress)
323
types of spiculated bone for bone lesion
Perpednciular - reactive bone - ewings, mets, divergent - sunburst. osteosarcoma. velvet - disorgansied, ewings
324
Typically, osteosarcoma will be found WHERE
metaphyseal in location, often found in the distal femur, proximal tibia or proximal humerus (Fig 3).
325
OSteosarcoma - what age
adolescents
326
Ewing s- age group
5 - 25
327
In ARPKD what should the parents have?
Normal kidenys as it is recessive
328
AD PKD manifests when?
third decade of life half patients are spontaenous mutations, no fam histroy
329
what is the main dangerous assocation with AD PKD
subarachnoid haemorrhage
330
AD PKD needs to be differentiated form which condition ?
Tuberous sclerosis
331
What are some of the other manifestations of TSC that one might look for?
Rhabdomyelomas cardiac Corticol tubers in brain
332
The renal abnormalities associated with TSC include:
Cysts Angiomyolipomas Angiomyolipomas and cysts
333
What is Multicystic dysplastic kidneys
non hereditory. Failure of that kidney. wide spectrum non functioning on Nuc Med sponatenous involution
334
Medullary sponge kidney is a rare diagnosis to make in children, and must be characterised by:
Haematuria Nephrolithiasis Infection NOT enlarged
335
investigation algorithm for unliateral cysts
MCDK - MAG3 Simple cysts - IVU Multilocular cystic nephroma- cross section
336
investigat algorithm for bilateral cysts
Genetic - TSC, ARPKD, ADPKD Dysplasia - MCU / MAg3
337
VACTERL stands for
vertebral defects, anal atresia, cardiac defects, tracheo-esophageal fistula, renal anomalies, and limb abnormalities
338
Autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease. This condition describes
very large kidneys with small cysts, which result in a large bright kidney appearance
339
Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease is a common condition that starts in childhood. The kidneys vary from
normal to enlarged, and there are a variable number of large cysts on each kidney. Renal involvement is often not bilaterally symmetrical
340
In TSC, the kidneys may contain
angiomyolipomas and/or large cysts. There may be a family history of TSC, or the condition might have arisen as a new mutation
341
how bright is the kidney in neonates to 6 months
should be brighter than the liver The reasons for this difference are the relatively large volume of glomeruli versus medullary pyramids and the lack of echogenic sinus fat in the neonate.
342
Pre renal causes of AKI
hypovolaemia hypotension hypoxia
343
Renal causes of aki
Glomerulonephritis Intravascular coagulation ATN AIN Tumours Developmental Hereditary nephritis
344
Post renal causes of AK I
Obstructive uropathy Vesicoureteral reflux Acquired - stones
345
The renal medullae appear hypoechoic and prominent on normal ultrasonographic examination of the neonate why?
lack of echogenic sinus fat
346
How to commnet on kidneys in US
size, morphology, echotexture, pelvicalyceal dilatation and perfusion
347
what is the cut off of difference between kidneys that raises suspicion?
over 10% concern for scarring
348
demonstrating pelvicalyceal dilatation. The possibility of false positives should be borne in mind; for example,
extrarenal pelvis, large major calyx, recent obstruction or infection, clubbed calyces, secondary to reflux or papillary necrosis.
349
Renal venous thrombosis leads to diminished venous signals and produces characteristic changes in the waveforms of the main renal artery and its branches with....
sharp systolic peaks and reversed diastolic flow.
350
What are the differentials for echogenic kidneys with loss of corticomedullary differentiation
Unwell baby - Asymmetrical, renal vein thrombosis - symmetrical, ATN Well baby - Enalarged, ARPCKD - Small, dysplastic kidneys
351
What are the main causes of CKD in kids under 5
anatomical abnormalities - hypoplasia, dysplasia, obstruciton, malformation
352
What are the main causes of CKD in kids over 5
Acquired glomerular disease and herediatary - HUS - Alport - Cystic disease - Glomerulonephritis
353
Lentiform nucleus + caudate nucleus =
basal ganglia
354
Putamen + globus pallidus =
lentiform nucleus
355
Putamen + head of caudate nucleus =
corpus striatum
356
what is Periventricular Nodular Heterotopia
neurons develop in the germinal matrix and do not migrate bumbpy inner ventricle lining
357
what is focal heterotopia?
Groups of neurons may start to migrate but not reach the surface. These can be recognised as a clump of tissue of grey matter intensity lying within the brain substance.
358
what is classical lissencephaly
disorder of neuronal migration in which the cortex is abnormally organised and thicker than usua
359
Types of classical lissenencephaly
agyira pachy gyria SBG
360
how to differentiate between polymicrogyria and pachygyria
polymicrogyria are small so interdigitate with the wqhite matter - so no boundary is seen
361
abnormal grey matter is what on T2W
high signal
362
Grey matter - corpus striatum (head of caudate and putamen) are affected what are the differentials ?
Mitochondrial disorders Leighs, MELAS, hypoglycaemia
363
Grey matter - mainly globus pallidus is affected with high signal T2 what are the differentials?
Methylmalonic acidaemia L-2 hydroxyglutaric acidaemia CO poisoning Kernicterus NG1
364
Grey matter - mainly globus pallidus is affected with high signal T2 what are the differentials?
Methylmalonic acidaemia L-2 hydroxyglutaric acidaemia CO poisoning Kernicterus NF1
365
Grey matter Mainly thlamic involvement what differentials
Krabbes disease Gangliosidoses Wilsons
366
Bilateral proptosis in early infancy is often due to a
developmental bone abnormality.
367
Unilateral proptosis is usually due to
an orbital mass.
368
Rapidly progressive proptosis suggests an aggressive neoplasm such as
rhabdomyosarcoma
369
main causes of proptosis in children?
Haemangioma Venous lymphatic malformation Dermoid cyst Sinusitis and orbital cellulitis Optic nerve glioma Rhabdomyosarcoma Neuroblastoma Langerhans' cell histiocytosis Bone dysplasias (e.g. fibrous dysplasia, osteopetrosis, craniofacial abnormalities)
370
Causes of periosteal reaction in children ?
Physiological Trauma Infection Tumour Metabolic Chronic disease Inherited conditions Caffey disease Iatrogenic
371
sickle cell osteomyelitis is what organism?
Sallmonella
372
chronic relapsing mutifocal ostemyelitis typcially involves what bones?
medial clavicle
373
Physiological peri osteal reaction is allowed to be how deep
2mm
374
Leukaemia and metastatic neuroblastoma may both give rise to periosteal reactions with.... what
lucent metaphyseal bands
375