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msra > Paeds > Flashcards

Paeds Flashcards

1
Q

What causes acute epiglottitis and how is it treated

Is there a vaccination option?

A

Heamophilus Influenze B (A BACTERIA)
Treated with IV cephlasporins & airway protection (call anaesthetics/nebulised adrenaline)

Babies are immunised with the 6 in 1 vaccine at 8.12.16 weeks old and with the HiB/Men vaccine at 1 year

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2
Q

What causes croup and how is it treated

Is there a vaccination option

A

Parainfluenza virus
peak incidence at 6 months - 3 years
more common in autumn

Larygnotracheobronitis

Dexamethasone to treat

Emergency treatment
high-flow oxygen
nebulised adrenaline

No vaccine

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3
Q

What causes whooping cough and how is it treated

Is there a vaccine option

A

Bordatella pertussis (gram -ve)

Treated with an oral macrolide (e.g. clarithromycin, azithromycin or erythromycin) is indicated if the onset of the cough is within the previous 21 days

Infants <6 should be admitted

Notifiable disease - household contacts get prophylactic Abx

infants are routinely immunised at 2, 3, 4 months and 3-5 years. Newborn infants are particularly vulnerable, which is why the vaccination campaign for pregnant women was introduced - vaccines from 16-32 weeks

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4
Q

Features of croup

A

stridor
barking cough (worse at night)
fever
coryzal symptoms

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5
Q

Features of whooping cough

A

Paroxysmal cough.
Inspiratory whoop.
Post-tussive vomiting.
Undiagnosed apnoeic attacks in young infants.

catarrhal phase
symptoms are similar to a viral upper respiratory tract infection
lasts around 1-2 weeks
paroxysmal phase
the cough increases in severity
coughing bouts are usually worse at night and after feeding, may be ended by vomiting & associated central cyanosis
inspiratory whoop: not always present (caused by forced inspiration against a closed glottis)
infants may have spells of apnoea
persistent coughing may cause subconjunctival haemorrhages or even anoxia leading to syncope & seizures
lasts between 2-8 weeks
convalescent phase
the cough subsides over weeks to months

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6
Q

Features of acute epiglottitis

A

rapid onset
high temperature, generally unwell
stridor
drooling of saliva
‘tripod’ position: the patient finds it easier to breathe if they are leaning forward and extending their neck in a seated position

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7
Q

Features of DiGeorge Syndrome

A

CATCH-22

Cardiac defects
Abnormal Facies
Thymic hypoplasia
Cleft palate
Hypocaleamia

Deletions from Chromosome 22

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8
Q

What does parvovirus cause

A

Slapped cheek illness

i.e. fifth disease

“pablo gets slapped”

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9
Q

What does Coxsackie A16 cause

A

Hand, foot and mouth disease

‘C for cows: foot and mouth disease’

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10
Q

Features of Fragile X syndrome

A

X linked trinucleoside expansion

Features in males
learning difficulties
large low set ears, long thin face, high arched palate
macroorchidism
hypotonia
autism is more common
mitral valve prolapse
Seizures
Long face / large jaw

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11
Q

Features of williams syndrome

A

Short stature
Learning difficulties
Friendly, extrovert personality
Transient neonatal hypercalcaemia
Supravalvular aortic stenosis

Deletion in ch 7

‘willy is the nice one’

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12
Q

Common organisms causing community acquired pneumonia in children and their Abx

A

Strep pneumoniae - amox
Mycoplasma pneumoniae - clari

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13
Q

Meningitis pathogen 2-5 year old

A

Nisseria meningitidis
Strep pneumnomiae

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14
Q

Focal seizures at night

A

Benign rolandic epilepsy
EEG centrotemporal spikes
Focal/partial seziures
Usually grow outof it by the time they are teenagers

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15
Q

Congential CMV infection

A

Intraventricular calcifications
Sensieonural deafness
Cerebral palsy
developmental delay

‘C for CMV and Calcifications’

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16
Q

Alports syndrome

A

X linked

Renal disease
Progressive hearing loss

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17
Q

Pendred syndrom

A

Childhood syndrome - goitre and hearing loss

Hypothyroidism

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18
Q

Buergers disease

A

IgA nephropathy

IgAt the same time as a resp infection

19
Q

What is the most common cause of acute renal failure in children?

A

Heamolytic Ureamic syndrome

20
Q

What is the triad of heamolytic uraemic syndrome and a traditional precipitent?

A
  1. Renal failure
  2. Thrombocytopenia
  3. Microscopic heamolytic anaemia

Triggered by exposure to e coli or shigella (bloody diarrhoea)

20
Q

G6PD blood film

A

Hienz bodies

20
Q

Complications of Mumps

A

Orchitis
Pancreatitis

21
Q

Machinery murmur

A

Patent ductus ateriorisis

Mixed oxygenated & deoxygemated blood flow
Acyanotic
Treated with indamethacin/NSAIDs to stop prostglandin production - unless in a syndrome where the PDA is vital (eg transposition of the GA)

22
Q

Features of Klinefleters

A

47 XXY or 48 XXXY

Gynaecomasteia
Small testes
Tall male

23
Q

Features of Ewards

A

Chromosome 18 trisomy

Rockerbottom feet
Developmental delay
Kidney malformations
Structural heart defects
oesophagela atresia
omephaloceole
Cleft palate

24
Q

Features of Noonan’s

A

Autosomal dominent

Pectus excavatum
Pulmonary stenosis
short
webbed neck
delayed puberty
bleeding disorderrs

25
Q

Features of Pierre Robin

A

Micrognathia
Cleft palate

26
Q

Normal HR for<1 y.o

A

110-160bpm

27
Q

Normal HR for 1-2 y.o

A

110-150 bpm

28
Q

Normal HR for a 2-5 y.o

A

95 - 140 bpm

29
Q

Normal HR for 5-12 y.o

A

80-120

30
Q

Normal HR for a >12 y.o

A

60 - 100 bpm

31
Q

Pan systolic murmur in child

A

Ventricular septal defect

32
Q

What are the 4 features of Tetralogy of Fallot

A
  1. Overriding aorta
  2. VSD
  3. Right ventricular outflow obstuction
  4. Right ventricular hypertrophy
33
Q

Double bubble sign is a sign of what?

A

Duodenal atresia

34
Q

What are the ‘pre-school booster’ vaccines ?

A

DPP and MMR

35
Q

Bartter syndrome

A

Bartter syndrome is a renal tubular salt-wasting disorder in which the kidneys cannot reabsorb sodium and chloride in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle. This leads to increased distal delivery of salt and excessive salt and water loss from the body.

36
Q

Alport syndrome

A

X linked ecessive

characterized by kidney disease, loss of hearing, and eye abnormalities. It occurs due to an abnormality of a gene that codes for type 4 collagen and usually presents in patients with hematuria, edema, and hypertension

37
Q

4 classic symptoms of CHD

A
  • tachycardia
  • tachypneoea
  • cardiomegaly
  • Hepatomegaly
38
Q

Codman triangle on X ray

A

osteosarcoma

39
Q

most common childhood epilepsy

A

bening rolandic epilepsy

40
Q

diet changes for lennox gestaut

A

seizure condition - ketogenic diet may be helpful

41
Q
A

msra (16 decks)

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