paramedic medical emergencies quiz Flashcards

medical emergencies, endocrinology, hematology, neurology, immunology, gastroenterology, urology/nephrology, infectious diseases/sepsis, diseases of the eyes/ears/nose/throat, non-traumatic musculoskeletal disorders, and a little cardiology (more on the chemical changes and key terms) (164 cards)

0
Q

graves disease

A

most common form of hyperthyroidism, auto immune disorder in which antibodies that mimi the roll of TSH produce and increase in secretion of thyroid hormones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

addison’s disease

A

primary adrenal insufficiency; a metabolic and endocrine ailment caused by a direct insult to or malfunction of adrenal cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

thyroid storm

A

endocrine emergency characterized by hyper-function of the thyroid gland, occurs when body is stressed by diabetic emergency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

hyperosmolar hyperglycemic non-ketotic syndrome (HHNS)

A

usually DM type 2; high plasma glucose concentration, absent keytone production, increase serum osmolality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

meningitis

A

inglamation of the meninges, headache, nuchal rigidity/ neck stiffness, fever/chills

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

MRSA

A

infection that usually effects several body systems; resistant to multiple antibiotics, small red localized bumps, pain, fever, redness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

clostridium difficile (c-diff)

A

direct result of antibiotic therapy, suppresses the normal flora in the GI tract;c-diff can predominate; non bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

renin- angiotensin system activation (RAS)

A

RAS converts angiotensin to andiotensin 1; lungs convert to angiotensin 2 via angiotensin converting enzymes (ACE);angiotensin 2 is a potent/short lived vasoconstrictor, RAS causes increase in preload, after-load, and reabsorption of sodium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

cyanide poisoning

A

anxiety, restlessness, initial hyperventilation,
bradycardia followed by tachycardia
hypertention followed by hypotention
dysrhythmia
bitter almond oder to breath
nausea, pupil dilation, headache, confusion, dizziness
TREATMENT- sodium thiosulfate IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

pulsus alternans

A

pulse waveform showing alternating strong and weak beats

* indicative of left ventricular disfunction*

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

pericarditis

A

can be confirmed with ST- changes in all leads

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Acetametaphen Overdose

A

characterized by diffuse abdominal pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

murphy’s sign

A

press firmly upward into RUQ and ask pt to take a deep breath; arrest on inspiration due to pain is a positive finding
*associated with gallbladder or hepatic involvement)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

PSOAS sign

A

appendicitis; left lateral recumbent position, extend right leg at hip, if pain increases in RLQ its a positive finding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

brudzinski’s sign

A

involuntary flexing of the legs from flexing neck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

kerning’s sign

A

flexion of knee and hip, extension of knee is painful, leading resistance and flexion of the torso

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

bata blocker OD

A

causes a drop in blood sugar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

calcium channel blocker OD

A

raises blood sugar, QT interval changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

ARDS

A

includes events and conditions that damage the epithelial cell layer; can be caused indirectly by a massive immune response in which chemical mediators are transported in the blood- stream (creates chain reaction where all organs including lungs start to disfunction called multiple organ disfunction syndrome (MODS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Acute pancreatitis

A

caused by alcohol, cholelithiasis, trauma, infection, inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

thunder clap headache caused by

A

sub arachnoid hemerage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

cullen’s sign

A

bruising around umbilicus, pancreatitis, intra-abdominal bleed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

paraoxmil nocturnal dyspnea (PND)

A

difficulty breathing when laying down / sleeping, patient will have a lot of pillows or possibly C-PAP or BI-pap

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Pulseless paradioxis

A

pulse change 10 points or grater, with inhalation, do to pressure differences in the thorax, ex. back flow into lungs do to heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
glycogenolysis Gluco=sugar; Lysis= lossen or unbind
breaks glycogen down into its component glucose molecules
25
gluconeogenesis Gluco= sugar; Neo= new; Genesis= origin
makes NEW glucose from non- sugar storage
26
diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)
associated with type 1 DM; insufficient insulin not allowing ells to take in glucose, to compensate the body starts gluconneogenesis only increasing sugars not insulin *sweet fruity acetone breath*
27
how much fluid does it take to distend the abdomen
4-6l
28
visceral pain
walls of hollow orgons
29
somatic pain
sharp pain; travels in specific routs to spinal cord
30
referred pain
originates in organ other then where its felt
31
gray turner's sign
ecchymosis in the flank
32
abdominal pain lasting longer then 6 hours is a...
surgical emergency
33
upper GI involves
mouth, stomach, esophagus duodenum
34
ligament of treitz
supports duodenojejunal junction
35
mallory-weiss tear
esophageal laceration secondary to vomiting
36
melena
black tarry stool
37
what makes a orthostatic BP a positive finding
increase in BP by 10 and/or increase in heart rate by 20 BPM
38
esophageal varix
swollen vein of the esophagus; 35% mortality rate
39
cirrhosis
fatty deposits and fibrosis in the liver; caused by but not limited to alcohol consumption
40
vomiting bright red blood
upper GI bleed, most likely a peptic ulcer
41
vomiting dark red blood
lower GI, possibly diverticulitis
42
zollinger ellison syndrome
in which an acid-secreting tumor provokes the ulcerations; one cause of duodenal ulcer
43
crohn's disease
idiopathic inflammatory bowl disorder
44
diverticulitis
inflammation of the diverticula; 2nd to infection
45
one of the most common causes of peptic ulcers
NSAIDS
46
McBurney's point
1 to 2 inches above the anterior iliac crest along a direct line from the anterior crest to the umbilicus *indicative to rupture in appendix causing diffuse pain to development of peritonitis*
47
appendicitis S/S
causes diffuse, colicky pain often associated with nausea and vomiting, low fever, pain in pre-umbilical region, loss of appetite, pain will advance to the RLQ as it progressively dilates
48
pancreatitis S/S
pain localized to the left upper quadrant or may radiate to the back or the epigastric region, nausea, uncontrolled vomiting and retching that can further aggravate the hemorrhage, ecchymosis and swelling of the LUQ, diaphoresis tachycardia, possible hypotension dependent on the size hemorrhage
49
inflamed gallbladder usually causes pain the the
URQ
50
index case
individual who first got the infection
51
bacteria
microscopic single cell organisms forms of spheres (cocci), rods, and spirals
52
endotoxins
toxic products released when bacteria die and decompose; come from the bacterial cell wall; consist of proteins, polysaccharids (large sugar molecules), and lipids
53
exotoxins
poisonous proteins shed by bacteria during bacterial growth (dead skin) triggers immune system response
54
incubation time
time between exposure to presentation
55
neutrophils cell
the most common phagocytic white blood cell, first to act, followed 12-24 hours later by macrophage's
56
macrophage cell
after neutrophils, the most common phagocytic white blood cell, release chemicals called chemotactic factors to trigger additional immune system responses
57
passive immunity
received antibodies from the maternal circulation via the placenta or from inoculation (injection)
58
active immunity
develops antibodies in response to an attenuated by a killed or modified form of an infectious agent AKA vaccine
59
hepatitis A is transferred by
fecal-oral
60
hepatitis B is transferred by
bloodborne
61
hepatitis C is transferred by
bloodborne and sexual ; not able to be vaccinated for
62
what blood type is the universal recipient
AB
63
what blood type is the universal donor
O
64
active transport in (urology)
only process that can produce a net movement of molecules from a lower concentration to a higher concentration
65
absolute refractory period
the period of the cardiac cycle when stimulation will not produce any depolarization
66
action potential
the stimulation of myocardial cells as evidenced by a change in the membrane electrical charge, that subsequently spreads across the myocardium
67
angina pectoris
chest pain that results when the heart's oxygen demand exceeds the oxygen supply
68
preload
the pressure in the ventricles at the end of distally
69
afterload
the resistance against which the heart must pump
70
automaticity
pacemaker cells ; capability of self-depolarization
71
bruit
the sound of turbulent blood flow through a vessel;usuall associated with atherosclerotic disease
72
cardiac depolarization
a reversal of charges at the cell membrane; inside of cells become positive in relation to the outside;the opposite of the cells resting stat where inside is more negative in relation to outside
73
chronotropy
heart rate
74
claudication
severe pain in the calf muscle due to inadequate blood supply; occurs on exertion, subsides with rest
75
contractility
the ability of cells to contract or shorten
76
pjc
inverted P waves; may appear before or after the QRS; P waves can be masked by QRS or absent
77
pac
P waves are there but it may be hidden in the preceding T wave
78
non-ST-segment elevation MI
affects on the deeper levels of the myocardium
79
refractory period
time where the myocardial cells have not yet completely re-polarized and can not be stimulated again
80
resting potential
normal electrical state of cardiac cells
81
two types of deafness
conductive;sensorineural
82
glaucoma caused by
increased intraocular pressure
83
down syndrome is caused by
a chromosomal abnormality, specifically and extra chromosome
84
cerebral palsy is caused by
german measles, cerebral hypoxia, head injury, or any number of diseases
85
which organ systems are affected by cystic fibrosis
respiratory and digestive
86
what age group and sex is commonly affected by multiple sclerosis
women between ages of 20-40
87
muscular dystrophy is classified as what type of disorder
hereditary
88
myasthenia gravis
autoimmune disorder characterized by muscle weakness, chiefly of muscles innervated by cranial nerves
89
what is guillin-barre' syndrome
a virus that triggers nerve damage and rapid loss of motor function
90
cellulitis
inflammation of cellular or connective tissue
91
sepsis
systemic, BP less then 90 HR, grater then 90, temp over 100
92
factors in elder abuse
increased life expectancy, financial stress of care taking, limited long-term care options
93
most common physical sign of abuse in children
soft-tissue injuries
94
type of patten found to a child accidentally exposed to HOT water
splash
95
NOT a common complaint among elderly
chest pain
96
comorbid conditions
CHF, renal insufficiency, and DM type 2
97
contributions of malnutrition in the elderly
loneliness, lock of mobility, low income, anorexia, decreased senses of taste and smell
98
osteoarthritis is caused by
loss of articular cartilage
99
MOST common form of bone disease
osteroporosis
100
common complaint form immobile patients
decubitus ulcers
101
fibromyalgia
chronic fatigue, muscle stiffness, tender areas on each elbow
102
gout
form of arthritis occurs from uric acid crystals being deposited in a joint
103
gangrene
Death of body tissue due to lack of blood supply, often a result of infection or injury.
104
fibrocartilage
strongest and MOST rigid type of cartilage
105
sclera
tough fibrous, protective tissue that is referred to as the white of the eye
106
choroid
part of the lining of the eye that supplies the eye with nutrients and is vascular
107
bacterial conjunctivitis
that cause of pinkeye
108
herpes zoster
caused by the shingles; common in the elderly
109
open angle glaucoma
Insidious onset, slight increase in IOP, and slow/gradual late onset symptoms; takes years to reach late phase; no symptoms until they start to lose their vision
110
retina detachment
blurred vision with possible floaters or shadows is part of the visual field
111
tympanic cavity
this portion of the ear contains the auditory ossicles
112
ludwig's angina
bacterial cellulitis that involves the floor of the mouth under the tongue that causes rapid swelling
113
cerumen impaction
earache sensation of plugging of the ears, tinnitus, and partial hearing loss
114
what three mechanisms can produce viceral pain
distension, ischemia and inflammation
115
disinfection
destroys some but not all microorganisms
116
N. meningitidis
it is the bacteria that most often causes serious cases of meningitis
117
disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
activated thrombin converts fibrinogen to fibrin in the circulating blood
118
delirium
AMS comes abruptly, may have life-threatening underlying cause, can be reversed with proper treatment
119
alzheimer's disease
most common cause of dementia
120
partial seziure
remains confined to a limited portion of the brain
121
myelomeningocele
form of spina bifida; some of the spinal cord and meninges are protruding from a defect in the spine
122
ingestion
substance enters the body through GI tract
123
tolerance
the need to progressively increase the dose of a drug to reproduce the effect originally achieved
124
examples of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
prozac, paxil, and zoloft
125
cellular immunity
immunity resulting from a direct attack on a foreign substance by specialized cells
126
GI emergency risk factors
excessive smoking, poor bowel habits, increased stress
127
dissecting abdominal aortic artery will produce a referred pain felt....
between the shoulder blades
128
hematemesis
bloody vomitus
129
abdominal pain lasting more the __ hours is considered a _____ ______
6; surgical emergency
130
H. pylori
most common infectious gastroenteritis
131
how many extra-ocular muscles move your eyes
6
132
lacrimal glands
manufacture tears
133
rods
light sensing receptors in dim light and do not perceive color
134
herpes simplex virus keratitis
most frequent cause of corneal blindness
135
labrynthitis
swelling and irritation of the inner ear
136
saddle joint
found at the base of the thumb
137
avascular tissue
cartilage ; NOT supplied by blood vessels
138
bursa
small sacs filled with synovial fluid
139
carpal tunnel syndrome
caused by pressure on the median nerve of the wrist
140
rheumatoid arthritis
joints become swollen to an extent where they lose range of motion
141
fasciitis
the so-called "flesh eating disease" is a life threatening form of
142
hemorrhagic stroke accounts for approximately what percent of all strokes
20
143
the majority of ischemic strokes are caused by a
thromboembolism
144
symptoms of a brainstem syndrome include
vomiting vertigo, double vision, facial numbness, and gait ataxia (imbalance)
145
most common cause of a subarachnoid hemorrhage
aneurysm rupture
146
ischemic penumbra is damaged by
hyperglycemia
147
Acute respiratiory distress syndrome ARDS is characterized by what pathological change
breakdown of the alveolar-capillary membrane
148
anaphylaxis is associated with ...
vasodilation
149
distributive shock
A condition that occurs when there is widespread dilation of the small arterioles, small venules, or both
150
obstructive shock
obstruction to flow of blood to heart (pulmonary embolism, dissecting aneurism)
151
hypovolemic shock
Condition in which there is a loss of blood, plasma, or water from the body that results in an inadequate volume of fluid in the circ. system to maintain adequate perfusion.
152
cardiogenic shock
This is when the heart fails, cardiac output and blood pressure decrease. Blood backs up into lungs, causing pulmonary edema. Inadequate amounts of oxygen reach the myocardium, impairing heart's pumping action.
153
use extreme caution with nitroglycerin when ST elevation is present in what 3 leads
II, III, aVF
154
hyperkalemia on a ECG presents with.
peaked T waves
155
organophosphate poisoning will present with which signs and symptoms
salivation, incontinence of urine and liquid stool
156
bell's palsy
A localized facial nerve dysfunction that causes facial droop and numbness do to cranial nerve disfunction
157
lyme's disease
tick-borne bacterium; marked my arthiritis, myalgia, malaise, and neurologic & cardiac symptoms
158
working diagnosis is dependent on providers assessment critical thinking and _____ ______ skills
pattern recognition
159
determining whether a patient is sick or not sick is initially done when
first impression
160
leads I, aVL, v5, v6 show what part of the heart
lateral (left circumflex artery)
161
II, III, aVF show what part of the heart
inferior (right coronary artery)
162
v1, v2 show what part of the heart
septal (left anterior descending coronary artery)
163
v3, v4 show what part of the heart
anterior (left anterior descending coronary artery)