Parasitology 2008 Flashcards

(100 cards)

1
Q

Hookworms can cause iron deficiency anemia which is characterized as:

A

Hypochromic, microcytic

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2
Q

Ancylostoma duodenale is characterized by the following, EXCEPT :

A

A. the infective filariform larvae penetrates skin and may cause ground itch. / B. larvae migrate through the lungs and are swallowed / C. iron deficiency anemia occurs in chronic cases / D. the most prevalent soil-transmitted helminth in the Philippines*

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3
Q

All cestodes (tapeworms) have the following structures, EXCEPT:

A

A. Proglottids / B. Scolex / C. Neck / D. Spicules*

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4
Q

This tapeworm may complete its life cycle in man without the need of an intermediate host:

A

Hymenolepis nana

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5
Q

This tapeworm may cause cysticercosis when its eggs are ingested by man.

A

Taenia solium

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6
Q

This tapeworm may cause a hydatid cyst in man:

A

Echinococcus granulosus

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7
Q

A 10 year old female from Samar presents with hepatosplenomegaly. You would want to run diagnostic tests to rule out

A

Schistosomiasis

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8
Q

The following areas are endemic for schistosomiasis, EXCEPT:

A

A. Leyte, Mindoro, Samar / B. Davao, Sorsogon, Bukidnon / C. Cebu, Pampanga* / D. None of the above

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9
Q

The COPT is a diagnostic test which demonstrates the presence of antibodies against:

A

Schistosoma japonicum

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10
Q

A 10 year old girl from Samar presented with an enlarged abodmen. Splenomegaly was apparent and a Kato Thick Smear showed eggs with laterla knobs. This child is probably infected with:

A

Schistosoma japonicum

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11
Q

The drug of choice for schistosomiasis and most trematode (fluke) infections is:

A

Praziquantel

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12
Q

The drug of choice for taeniasis and most cestode (tapeworm) infections is:

A

Praziquantel

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13
Q

The drug of choice for invasive amebiasis, giardiasis, and trichomoniasis is:

A

Metronidazole

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14
Q

The recommended diagnostic test for Enterobius vermicularis (seatworm/pinworm) is :

A

Peri-anal or Cellulose Tape Swab

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15
Q

Which of the following laboratory examinations would be the BEST step in identifying parasites responsible for chronic diarrhea:

A

examination of concentrated stools using formol-ether concentration technique

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16
Q

Giardiasis can be diagnosed with the following methods, EXCEPT

A

A. Formol Ether Concentration Test / B. The string test – where a ball of weighted string is ingested and pulled out to examine trophozoites / C. Immunofluroescence / D. Kato-Katz Smear*

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17
Q

Trypanosoma cruzi is endemic in:

A

South America

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18
Q

The tse-tse flies, Glossina sp., are the vectors for

A

Trypanosoma brucei

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19
Q

Romana’s sign, a swelling of the periorbital area, may be seen in :

A

Trypanosoma cruzi:

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20
Q

In cases of chronic diarrhea in communities where raw or inadequately cooked fish is traditionally eaten, which parasite would most likely be implicated?

A

Capillaria philippinensis

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21
Q

Which of these parasites is fish-borne and causes chronic diarrhea?

A

Heterophyes heterophyes

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22
Q

Which of these parasites is snail-borne and causes diarrhea?

A

Echinostoma ilocanum

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23
Q

In cases of chronic diarrhea with an underlying HIV infection, which parasite is most likely to be involved?

A

Cryptosporidium parvum

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24
Q

For which parasitic infections are repeated (periodic) chemotherapy of population groups a valid preventive and control measure?

A

Ascaris, Trichuris, Hookworms, and Schistosoma

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25
Why would Schistosoma japonicum persist despite identifying and treating all infected individuals in a community?
Farm and domestic animals are reservoir hosts of Schistosoma japonicum
26
Autoinfection occurs in the following, EXCEPT:
A.    Capillaria philippinensis / B.    Strongyloides stercoralis / C.   Enterobius vermicularis / D.   Schistosoma japonicum*
27
Entamoeba histolytica and Entamoeba dispar are best differentiated by:
stool ELISA
28
Bloody diarrhoea can be due to this parasitic infection:
Entamoeba histolytica
29
The following can be acquired by drinking fecally-contaminated water, EXCEPT:
A.    Entamoeba histolytica / B.    Giardia lamblia / C.   Capillaria philippinensis* / D.   Cryptosporidium parvum
30
Intestinal obstruction is a complication of :
Ascaris
31
Skin penetration is the mode of infection of:
Hookworm
32
Erratic migration into the bile duct occurs in:
Ascaris
33
The stage of Enterobius vermicularis that is infective to man is :
embryonated egg
34
The stages of development of Plasmodium which are responsible for malaria transmission :
gametocytes
35
The following provinces are endemic for malaria, EXCEPT:
A.    Palawan / B.    Mindoro / C.   Sulu / D.   Cebu*
36
As a malaria preventive measure, chemoprophylaxis is indicated for the following high risk groups EXCEPT:
A.    pregnant women / B.    Tourists / C.   occupationally exposed groups / D.   permanent residents*
37
As a malaria control measure, the use of Permethrin-treated mosquito nets is effective, EXCEPT:
A.   in killing the larval stages of Anopheles* / B.    in killing the adult stages /C.   in repelling the adult stages / D.   in preventing man-vector contact
38
The drug of choice for severe and complicated malaria is:
Quinine
39
The presence of schizonts in a P. falciparum smear indicates the following:
bad prognosis
40
Malabsorption and steattorhea (fatty stools) may be a clinical feature of this infection:
Giardia lamblia
41
Strawberry cervix may be a clinical feature of this infection:
Trichomonas vaginalis
42
Tse-tse fly is the vector for:
Trypanosoma brucei
43
Skin penetration is the mode of infection of:
Schistosoma
44
The natural mode of transmission of Plasmodium is
mosquito bite
45
The predominant species of Plasmodium in the Philippines is
Plasmodium falciparum
46
The species which causes cerebral malaria is
P. falciparum
47
The most common site in extra-intestinal amoebiasis is
Right lobe of the liver
48
The infective stage of this nematode is a larval stage, EXCEPT
A.    Hookworms / B.    Capillaria philippinensis / C.   Strongyloides stercoralis / D.   Trichuris trichiura*
49
The following statements are true regarding Capillaria philippinensis, EXCEPT:
A.    The intermediate host is a fish / B.    The natural definitive host is most probably migratory birds / C.   Diarrhea, abdominal pain and borborygmi compose the clinical triad of capillariasis. / D.   The infective stage is the embryonated egg*
50
The main pathology in schistosomiasis is:
granuloma formation around eggs
51
The habitat of the adult Schistosoma japonicum is the:
mesenteric veins
52
Most common cause of death in chronic schistosomiasis is:
bleeding esophageal varices
53
The following statements are true regarding paragonimiasis and TB:
Clinical manifestations (chronic cough, hemoptysis) are similar
54
The following statements are true regarding transmission of Paragonimus, EXCEPT:
A.    The infective stage is found in the muscles and gills of the mountain crab. / B.    The crab is commonly eaten inadequately cooked / C.   The ova are expelled only in feces* / D.   Snails serve as first intermediate hosts.
55
Cholangiocarcinoma is associated with:
Opistorchis spp.
56
The best time to collect blood to diagnose bancroftian filariasis:
between 10 pm and 2 am
57
The pathology caused by adult Ascaris include the following EXCEPT:
A.    intestinal obstruction / B.    Cholecystitis / C.   Volvulus / D.   Pneumonitis*
58
Clinical manifestations of angiostrongylosis may be any of the following EXCEPT:
A.   Asthma* / B.    impairment of memory / C.   Disorientation / D.   Incoherence
59
Which of the following preventive measures are specific for strongyloidiasis and hookworm infection?
use of protective shoes and gloves
60
One of the following is not true about the seatworm (Enterobius):
eggs undergo development in the soil
61
Respiratory symptoms can be observed in the following conditions, EXCEPT:
A.    Ascariasis / B.    Necatoriasis / C.   Strongyloidiasis / D.   Trichuriasis*
62
The trematode which is transmitted by skin penetration of infective cercaria
Schistosoma japonicum
63
Granuloma formation and subsequent fibrosis around schistosome eggs result in the following EXCEPT:
A.    portal hypertension / B.    Hepatosplenomegaly / C.   portosystemic collateral circulation / D.   intestinal fistulas*
64
Relapse which is caused by reactivation of hypnozoites is present in the following Plasmodial species:
P. vivax
65
Malignant tertian fever is present in the following Plasmodial species:
P. falciparum
66
The following mechanisms cause severe malarial anemia EXCEPT
A.    post - schizogonic mechanical destruction of RBCs / B.    complement- mediated lysis of RBCs / C.   immune-mediated depression of erythropoiesis / D.   severe blood loss*
67
The presence of schizonts in a P.falciparum smear indicates the following:
bad prognosis
68
Quartan malaria is characterized by a 72-hour (3-day) cycle of fever, chills and sweating> This is caused by::
Plasmodium malariae
69
The flask-shaped ulcer is the characteristic lesion of the following protozoa:
Entameba histolyitca
70
The species of ameba which causes primary amebic meningoencephalitis is:
Naegleria
71
In communities of high socio- economic status, food borne amebiasis is transmitted through:
food handlers who are asymptomatic cyst passers
72
“Barbers-pole” is one of the diagnostic features of:
Angiostrongylus cantonensis
73
Man acquires infection with Trichinella spiralis by:
ingestion of half-cooked meat containing encysted larvae
74
Trichinosis in man can be diagnosed by the following EXCEPT:
A.   stool examination* / B.    biopsy of superficial skeletal muscle / C.   Bentonite flocculation test (BFT) / D.   Fluorescent antibody test
75
Chiclero’s ulcer, usually found in the ear lobe, may be seen in :
Trypanosoma cruzi
76
Winterbottom’s sign, a swelling of posterior cervical nodes, may be seen in :
Trypanosoma brucei
77
Espundia, a form of mucocutaneous ulcer, may be seen in :
Leishmania braziliense
78
Kala azar is characterized by hyperpigmentation of the skin and splenomegaly with amastigotes found in the involved organs. The protozoan that causes this is:
Leishmania donovani
79
Hydrocoele is most likely caused by :
Wuchereria bancrofti
80
Nocturial periodicity is demonstrated by :
Wuchereria bancrofti
81
Confluent body nuclei is characterstic of :
Brugia malayi
82
The large intestine is the natural habitat of this adult worm :
Trichuris trichiura
83
Which is true concerning cutaneous larva migrans:
Man is an accidental host
84
Rectal prolapse can occur with this infection :
Trichuris trichiura
85
Perianal itching is a manifestation of infection with :
Enterobius vermicularis
86
The lungs is the natural habitat of this adult worm :
Paragonimus westermani
87
Larvae pass through the lungs for all of these worms, EXCEPT :
A.    Ascaris lumbricoides / B.   Trichuris trichiura* / C.   Ancylostoma duodenale / D.   Necator americanus
88
These parasites can all cause significant anemia, EXCEPT:
A.   Ascaris lumbricoides* / B.    Trichuris trichiura / C.   Ancylostoma duodenale / D.   Plasmodium falciparum
89
These parasites can involve the heart, EXCEPT :
A.    Heterophyes / B.    Trypanosoma cruzi / C.   Trypanosoma brucei* / D.   Haplorchis sp.
90
These parasites have obligate intracellular stages, EXCEPT :
A.   Entamoeba histolytica* / B.    Cryptosporidium parvum / C.   Plasmodium falciparum / D.   Leishmania sp.
91
The species of ameba which can cause keratitis is:
Acanthameba
92
The following molecules are associated with the virulence of E. histolytica, EXCEPT:
A.    Lectin / B.    cystein protease / C.   Amebapore / D.   excretions / secretions*
93
In the circumoval precipitin test (COPT), the specimen to be collected from the patient is:
whole blood
94
The stage of the filaria parasite which is responsible for chronic deforming disease is is:
Adult
95
Man is an accidental host of the following parasites, EXCEPT:
A.    Raillietina garissoni / B.    Dipylidium caninum / C.   Hymenolepis nana / D.   Taenia sagniata*
96
The following statements are true of animal hookworms, EXCEPT:
A.    They do not develop into adult stage in man / B.   They produce respiratory symptoms in man*/ C.   They produce serpiginous lesions on human skin / D.   They are provided with definite dentition
97
A 4-year old boy had skin lesions which showed burrowing tracks in the skin and intense itching in the affected area. Application of lindane resulted in improvement. The lesions were most probably due to:
scabies
98
The infective stage of Ascaris and Trichuris is the :
embryonated egg
99
An 18 year old female complained of vaginal discharge. A smear of the discharge showed a pear-shaped, flagellated organism. This pathogen is:
Trichomonas vaginalis
100
The reduviid or kissing bugs are vectors for :
American trypanosomiasis