Part 2

Question 1

The basic functional unit of bones is the:

a) compact bones
b) periosteum
c) spongy bones
d) osteons

Answer 1

d) osteons

contain a mineral matrix and living osteocytes cells connected by canaliculi, which transport blood

Question 2

Which cranial nerve controls the shoulder?

a) vagus
b) trigeminal
c) accessory
d) abucens

Answer 2

c) accessory

cranial nerve that supplies the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles. It is considered as the eleventh of twelve pairs of cranial nerves

Question 3

Your client is lying in the supine position and complains of lower back pain. What do you do first?

a) stop the massage
b) turn him on his side
c) ask him to relax
d) place a pillow under his knee

Answer 3

d) place a pillow under his knee

Question 4

Which nerve controls the heart and lungs?

a) trochlear
b) cranial cardiac
c) vagus
d) cardio-pulmonary

Answer 4

c) vagus (aka pneumogastric nerve)

Question 5

If your client has HIV, under what circumstances can you refuse treatment?

a) when your client thinks he is infected
b) when you are afraid of being infected
c) only when your client admits he is infected
d) none of the above

Answer 5

d) none of the above

Question 6

Which body cavity contains the heart and lungs?

a) thoracic
b) pleural
c) chest
d) dorsal

Answer 6

a) thoracic

pleural cavity = there are actually two (surrounding each lung), contains only the lungs, not the heart

Question 7

What term means the blood?

a) hemostasis
b) hemoiasiss
c) hematoma
d) emia

Answer 7

d) emia

Question 8

The suffix “ase” normally indicates a:

a) sugar
b) enzyme
c) carbohydrate
d) abnormal conition

Answer 8

b) enzyme

Question 9

Which of the following may lead to the revocation of your license?

a) opening 24 hours without approval
b) not closing the premises for repairs
c) abandoning the premises
d) having too many therapists on duty

Answer 9

c) abandoning the premises

Question 10

Which term indicates the use of ice?

a) cyanosis
b) sub-thermosis
c) hyposome
d) cry

Answer 10

d) cry

Question 11

Which bone connects the tibia, fibula, and the navicular?

a) phalanges
b) digitals
c) talus
d) calcaneus

Answer 11

c) talus (aka ankle bone)

Question 12

The origin of the sartorius muscle is:

a) femur
b) ilium
c) ischium
d) pubis

Answer 12

b) ilium

uppermost and largest part of the hip bone

Question 13

Which muscle is involved in the plantarflexion of the foot?

a) pectineus
b) gastrocnemius
c) gracilis
d) tibialis anterior

Answer 13

b) gastrocnemius

Question 14

Which are two muscles of the leg?

a) pectineus
b) sartorius
c) gracilis
d) peroneus brevis

Answer 14

d) peroneus brevis = lower leg
b) sartorius = hip to knee
pectineus = hip
gracilis = groin

Question 15

What do you do if your client does not comprehend what you are saying?

a) massage slowly and carefully
b) have him/her sign a consent form
c) do not massage
d) ask his/her friend for consent

Answer 15

c) do not massage

Question 16

What is the main physiological benefit of massage?

a) it breaks up fibrosis
b) increases blood circulation
c) it warms the skin
d) it sedates the client

Answer 16

b) increases blood circulation

general massage outcomes:
relaxation, stress management, pain management, functional mobility

Question 17

In which direction do you massage the abdomen?

a) with the peristalsis
b) counter-clockwise
c) toward the venous flow
d) from distal to proximal

Answer 17

a) with the peristalsis

Question 18

Spongy bone tissue is found:

a) in the nose
b) in the hyoid bone
c) between hard bones
d) end of long bones

Answer 18

d) end of long bones

Spongy bone has a lower density and allows the ends of long bones to compress as the result of stresses applied to the bone.
ends of long bones, as well as in the pelvic bones, ribs, skull, and the vertebrae in the spinal column

Question 19

What is melanin?

a) a cancer
b) a pigment
c) a protein
d) a membrane

Answer 19

b) a pigment

produced by melanocytes; Everyone has the same number of melanocytes, but some people make more melanin than others. The more melanin, the darker your skin/eyes/hair

Question 20

The mediastinum is located in the:

a) throat
b) abdominal cavity
c) thorax
d) umbilical region

Answer 20

c) thorax (between the two pleural sacs)

a membranous partition between two body cavities or two parts of an organ, especially that between the lungs

Question 21

What is exudate?

a) an inflammatory mediator
b) a waste product of metabolism
c) fluid that accumulates in inflamed tissue
d) excretion of the alimentary canal

Answer 21

c) fluid that accumulates in inflamed tissue

An exudate is any fluid that filters from the circulatory system into lesions or areas of inflammation; normal part of healing process; prevents wound from drying out and helps tissue-repairing cells to migrate and provides essential nutrients and growth factors

Question 22

Which quadrant is the stomach located in?

a) right upper
b) right lower
c) left lower
d) left upper

Answer 22

d) left upper

Question 23

What is phagocytosis?

a) eating microbes
b) inflammation of the phalanges
c) bad breath
d) excess gas in the large inestines

Answer 23

a) eating microbes

process by which certain living cells called phagocytes ingest or engulf other cells or particles

Question 24

What is the function of pacinian corpuscles?

a) defend the body
b) detect vibration and pressure
c) detect light touch
d) transport gases

Answer 24

b) detect vibration and pressure (aka lamellar)

one of the four major types of mechanoreceptor cells; others types are tactile corpuscles (Meissner’s corpuscles), Merkel nerve endings, and bulbous corpuscles (Ruffini corpuscle)

Question 25

What is the function of Meisner's corpuscles? a) defend the body b) detect vibration and pressure c) detect light touch d) transport gases

Answer 25

c) detect light touch (aka tactile corpuscle) one of the four major types of mechanoreceptor cells; others types are Merkel nerve endings, lamellar (Pacinian) corpuscles, and bulbous corpuscles (Ruffini)

Question 26

What is the function of red corpuscles? a) defend the body b) detect vibration and pressure c) detect light touch d) transport gases

Answer 26

d) transport gases red corpuscles = red blood cells = erythrocytes corpuscle basically just means "tiny piece" carry oxygen from the lungs to the body tissues and carbon dioxide, as a waste product, away from the tissues and back to the lungs

Question 27

What is the function of white corpuscles? a) defend the body b) detect vibration and pressure c) detect light touch d) transport gases

Answer 27

a) defend the body against infection and disease white corpuscles = white blood cells = leukocytes White blood cells originate in the bone marrow but circulate throughout the bloodstream; there are several types

Question 28

What muscle elevates and depresses the scapula? a) rhomboids b) teres major c) trapezius d) subscapicularis

Answer 28

c) trapezius used to tilt and turn the head and neck, shrug, steady the shoulders, and twist the arms; The trapezius elevates, depresses, rotates, and retracts the scapula, or shoulder blade. Innervation of the trapezius is derived from the spinal accessory nerve.

Question 29

The ulna is what to the radius? a) medial b) proximal c) lateral d) distral

Answer 29

a) medial

Question 30

How many segments are in the spinal cord? a) 24 b) 26 c) 31 d) 36

Answer 30

c) 31 remember: vertebral column refers to bones; spinal cord is part of the central nervous system; The spinal cord is shorter than the length of the bony spinal column; the vertebral column encloses and protects the spinal cord

Question 31

What is metastasis? a) increased metabolism b) ability of cells to mutate c) change in equilibrium d) migration of cancer cells

Answer 31

d) migration of cancer cells

Question 32

Which is a highly contagious staphylococcal infection in young children? a) pedococcal syndrome b) impetigo c) infectious cocci d) staphantiasis

Answer 32

b) impetigo Impetigo usually appears as red sores on the face, especially around a child's nose and mouth, and on hands and feet. The sores burst and develop honey-colored crusts

Question 33

2nd degree burns are characterized by: a) sunburn b) destruction of the dermis c) peeling of the skin d) blisters

Answer 33

d) blisters pain, redness, swelling, and blistering affect the epidermis and the dermis

Question 34

The lowest area of the abdomen is the: a) hypogastric b) umbilicus c) inguinal d) subabdominal

Answer 34

c) inguinal (groin)

Question 35

Which muscle reaches from the thorax to the pubis? a) rectus abdominus b) external abdominal obliques c) vastus abdominus d) transverse abdominus

Answer 35

a) rectus abdominus (6 pack muscle) Rectus abdominis flexes the trunk anteriorly (bending over)

Question 36

At what structure in the lungs does gas exchange occur? a) bronchioles b) pulmonary arteriole c) endothelial membrane d) alveolus

Answer 36

d) alveolis exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide molecules to and from the bloodstream

Question 37

What movement of the mandible is parallel to the ground? a) extension b) protraction c) abduction d) adduction

Answer 37

b) protraction (aka protrusion, forward movement) mandibular depression = opening mouth elevation = closing mouth retraction aka retrusion = moving backwards lateral movement

Question 38

The frontal bone is located in what part of the body? a) thorax b) neck c) head d) hands

Answer 38

c) head (forehead)

Question 39

The origin of the semimembranosus and the semitendinosus is the: a) ilium b) pubis c) coxal d) ischial tuberosity

Answer 39

d) ischial tuberosity (sit bones) Tuberosity - A moderate prominence where muscles and connective tissues attach four posterior thigh muscles that are responsible for extending the hip: semimembranosus, semitendinosus, biceps femoris and gluteus maximus

Question 40

The origin of the sartorius is the: a) ischium b) coxal c) ilium d) sacrum

Answer 40

c) ilium sartorius longest muscle of body. long, thin, band-like muscle in anterior region of thigh. functions as an important flexor and rotator of the thigh at the hip joint.

Question 41

If only one side of the sternocleidomastoid (SCM) is flexed, this will produce a movement called: a) adduction b) contralateral rotation c) abduction d) circumduction

Answer 41

b) contralateral rotation primary actions of the SCM are rotation of the head to the opposite side and flexion of the neck contralateral rotation: motion created by a muscle that rotates the neck to the opposite side from where it is located—in other words, a left-sided muscle that rotates the neck to the right side

Question 42

The muscle which draws the arms backwards is the: a) trapezius b) rhomboids c) deltoids d) latissimus dorsi

Answer 42

d) latissimus dorsi The latissimus dorsi is the largest muscle in the upper body. The latissimus dorsi is responsible for extension, adduction, transverse extension also known as horizontal abduction, flexion from an extended position, and (medial) internal rotation of the shoulder joint.

Question 43

What is hemoglobin? a) a protein b) whole blood c) round blood cells d) red bone marrow

Answer 43

a) a protein iron-containing protein that enables red blood cells to carry high concentrations of oxygen to the tissues; it is found in red blood cells The pigment in hemoglobin is responsible for the red color of blood

Question 44

What is a motor unit? a) motor an sensory nerves b) a neuron and the attached axom c) motor, sensory and interneuron d) a motor neuron and the muscle cells it innervates

Answer 44

d) a motor neuron and the muscle cells it innervates

Question 45

Which muscle bends the little finger? a) flexor digitorum b) flexor pollicis brevis c) flexor digiti minimi d) flexor quinti profundus

Answer 45

c) flexor digiti minimi

Question 46

Which is the major artery of the body? a) aorta b) jugular c) carotid d) cardiac

Answer 46

a) aorta the main artery of the body, supplying oxygenated blood to the circulatory system. In humans it passes over the heart from the left ventricle and runs down in front of the backbone

Question 47

What is reciprocal inhibition? a) When a muscle shortens but produces minimal movement b) when a muscle pulls forcefully against a load but does not shorten c) when a muscle contracts, its agonist must relax d) none of the above

Answer 47

c) when a muscle contracts, its agonist must relax muscles on one side of a joint relax to accommodate contraction on the other side of that joint

Question 48

The exaggerated curve of the lumbar spine is called: a) spinal spifida b) lordosis c) amphiarthrosis d) none of the above

Answer 48

b) lordosis (or Hohlkreuz) excessive inward curvature of the spine.

Question 49

What is necrosis? a) blood disease b) chronic kidney condition c) paralyzed nerve d) tissue death

Answer 49

d) tissue death

Question 50

The artery which supplies the knee joint is: a) popliteal b) femoral c) patella d) external iliac

Answer 50

a) popliteal continuation of the femoral artery; runs across the popliteal fossa, posterior to the knee joint

Question 51

The gland which is called the master gland is: a) thyroid b) adrenals c) pituitary d) pineal

Answer 51

c) pituitary regulating vital body functions and general wellbeing; controls the activity of most other hormone-secreting glands; located in the brain, just behind the bridge of the nose

Question 52

The fixed end of a muscle is the: a) insertion b) muscle fixator c) epiphysis d) origin

Answer 52

d) origin

Question 53

Synovial fluid is located in the: a) blood b) joints c) lymph fluid d) brain

Answer 53

b) joints Only synovial (movable) joints contain synovial fluid; synovial joints are called such because of the fluid they contain, not the other way around

Question 54

What is the imaginary line which divides the body into equal right and left halves? a) coronal b) transverse c) sagittal d) mid-sagittal

Answer 54

d) mid-sagittal

Question 55

What is the action of the quadratus lumborum? a) trunk extension b) lateral flexion of the trunk c) hip flexion d) hip extension

Answer 55

b) lateral flexion of the trunk deepest abdominal muscle; supports good posture and helps stabilize your spine when you bend to the side or extend your lower back

Question 56

How many bones are in the vertebral column? a) 26 b) 36 c) 31 d) 24

Answer 56

a) 26 24 of those bones are vertebrae; the other two are the sacrum and the coccyx; a series of openings between the vertebrae are the intervertebral foramina; nerves pass from spinal cord through these foramina

Question 57

A small discolored patch on the skin like a freckle is a: a) papule b) tubercule c) tumor d) macule

Answer 57

d) macule

Question 58

A small elevated pimple in the skin containing fluid which may develop pus is a: a) papule b) tubercule c) tumor d) macule

Answer 58

a) papule

Question 59

An abrasion of the skin caused by scratching or scraping is called a: a) scar b) fissure c) excuriation d) dermatitis

Answer 59

c) excuriation

Question 60

A cancer of the skin characterized by dark patches of brown or black is a: a) tumor b) malignant melanoma c) basal cell carcinoma d) steatoma

Answer 60

b) malignant melanoma

Question 61

Inflammation of a vein is called: a) thrombosis b) osteoporosus c) hematosis d) phlebitis

Answer 61

d) phlebitis

Question 62

The autonomic nervous system controls: a) voluntary muscles b) involuntary functions c) sensory organs d) feeds sensory information

Answer 62

b) involuntary functions as opposed to the somatic nervous system which controls voluntary functions

Question 63

What nerve supplies the neck muscles to control movements? a) spinal accessory b) trigeminal c) brachial plexus d) trochlear

Answer 63

a) spinal accessory innervates sternocleidomastoid and trapezius trigeminal = responsible for sensation in the face and motor functions such as biting and chewing brachial plexus is a system of nerves that conduct signals to the shoulder, arm and hand trochlear nerve innervates only a single muscle: the superior oblique muscle of the eye

Question 64

Which nerve supplies the deep muscles of the foot and toes? a) peroneal b) plantar c) cutaneous d) tibia

Answer 64

b) plantar

Question 65

What nerve supplies the shoulder joint? a) radial b) cervical c) circumflex d) brachial plexus

Answer 65

d) brachial plexus

Question 66

The thyroid supplies the hormone called: a) parathyroid b) thyroxine c) insulin d) bile

Answer 66

b) thyroxine vital roles in digestion, heart and muscle function, brain development and maintenance of bones

Question 67

How many members are on the Board of Massage Therapy? a) 4 b) 6 c) 5 d) 7

Answer 67

c) 5

Question 68

Members of the Board of Massage Therapy are appointed by the: a) board chairman b) governor c) mayor d) legislature

Answer 68

b) governor

Question 69

The ratio of apprentices for each sponsor is: a) 3 to 1 b) 7 to 1 c) 5 to 1 d) 10 to 1

Answer 69

d) 10 to 1

Question 70

The sponsoring massage therapist must be licensed in Hawaii at least: a) 5 years b) 3 years c) 7 years d) 9 years

Answer 70

b) 3 years

Question 71

How many hours of theory and demonstration of massage must an apprentice complete? a) 70 hours b) 80 hours c) 90 hours d) 100 hours

Answer 71

d) 100 hours

Question 72

The massage therapist, establishment, and outcall service licenses expire on ___ of even numbered years: a) 4/30 b) 5/31 c) 6/30 d) 7/31

Answer 72

c) 6/30

Question 73

If a massage therapist causes injury to a patron by carelessness or negligence, what action can the board take? a) file a misdemeanor charge b) assess a $1,000 fine c) revoke license d) asses a $100 fine

Answer 73

c) revoke license

Question 74

With what part of the thumb is shiatsu performed? a) digital ball of the thumb b) tip of distal phalanx c) interphalangeal joint d) proximal end of thumb

Answer 74

a) digital ball of the thumb

Question 75

When vibration is applied over a prolonged period of time, the client could experience: a) relaxation b) invigoration c) numbing d) shaking

Answer 75

c) numbing

Question 76

The state's definition of massage is: a) manipulations or adjustments of muscles and joints b) performing effleurage, petrissage, tapotement with or without compensation c) any method of treatment of the superficial soft parts of the body d) none of the above

Answer 76

c) any method of treatment of the superficial soft parts of the body

Question 77

What technique is used on scar tissue at old injury sites? a) petrissage b) friction c) compression d) pincement

Answer 77

b) friction

Question 78

What is the best movement to reduce adhesions or fibrosis? a) friction b) tapotement c) compression d) vibration

Answer 78

a) friction

Question 79

What is osteoporosis? a) an inflammation b) pores of the skin c) brittle bones d) a hemorrhage

Answer 79

c) brittle bones

Question 80

If the draping on a client falls off and exposes his/her private parts: a) report the incident to the PMT b) leave the room c) continue to massage d) excuse, redrape, continue

Answer 80

d) excuse, redrape, continue | ALSO report the incident to the PMT

Question 81

Percussion should never be applied on: a) boney areas b) fleshy parts c) on muscles d) the buttocks

Answer 81

a) boney parts also spinous processes, over kidney area

Question 82

What is the most important hygiene protocol? a) disinfect doorknobs b) wash your hands before and after a massage c) change sheets after massage d) cut your fingernails short

Answer 82

b) wash your hands before and after a massage | a) and c) are too obviously false; research and modify answers

Question 83

A conveniently located restroom should be: a) on the premises b) within 50 feet c) within 200 feet d) within 150 feet

Answer 83

c) within 200 feet

Question 84

The muscular movement in which the muscle shortens is called: a) isotonic b) agonist c) tetanic d) isometric

Answer 84

a) isotonic Isotonic contractions generate force by changing the length of the muscle Isometric contractions generate force without changing the length of the muscle. Tetanic contraction is a sustained muscle contraction evoked when the motor nerve that innervates a skeletal muscle emits action potentials at a very high rate

Question 85

Within how many days must an establishment notify the board of a change in PMT? a) 2 days b) 4 days c) 3 days d) 5 days

Answer 85

d) 5 days 5 days to notify when a PMT leaves; 10 days to find appoint a new PMT

Question 86

What technique uses the palm of the hand perpendicular to the body part? a) friction b) percussion c) compression d) vibration

Answer 86

c) compression

Question 87

What condition is characterized by a swelling and accumulation of blood in the tissue? a) hernia b) hematoma c) contusion d) hyperemia

Answer 87

b) hematoma contusion is a type of hematoma, maybe, or at least they're similar; tried forever to figure it out

Question 88

What is the purpose of deep transverse friction? a) break up fibrosis b) stop the pain sensation c) stretch the tendon d) stretch the ligaments

Answer 88

a) break up fibrosis fibrosis describes the development of fibrous connective tissue as a reparative response to injury or damage; can lead to considerable tissue remodelling and the formation of permanent scar tissue

Question 89

What is assistive joint movement used for? a) increase muscle strength b) Decrease pain c) Improve and maintain joint integrity d) all of the above

Answer 89

d) all of the above

Question 90

Inflammation is characterized by: a) pain, heat, tenderness, swelling b) heat, redness, pain, tenderness c) pain, heat, redness, swelling d) all of the above

Answer 90

c) pain, heat, redness, swelling

Question 91

How many members of the board must have three years of experience? a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5

Answer 91

b) 3

Question 92

What are the 5 divisions of the vertebral column?

Answer 92

cervical (7), thoracic (12), lumbar (5), sacral division (sacrum is 5 vertebrae fused into one bone), coccygeal division (coccyx aka tailbone, fusion of 3 to 5 vertebrae)

Question 93

A license may be suspended or revoked due to a) Falsification or misrepresentation in the application b) Use of untrue, fraudulent, misleading, deceptive, or inappropriate advertising c) Abandoning an establishment or an out-call massage service d) all of the above

Answer 93

d) all of the above additionally: Teaching the practical application of body massage without the proper qualification as; Participating in or using the establishment for any lascivious conduct, lewdness, or any sexual act; stating or implying that the registrant, has cured, can cure, or guarantees to cure, or has successfully treated any disease, defect, or deformity; Prescribing, administering, or making recommendations as to medication or injection therapy; Causing bodily injury by carelessness or negligence as a result of practicing massage.