passmed Flashcards

(62 cards)

1
Q

what is holmes-adie pupil

A

dilated pupil
once the pupil has constricted it remains small for an abnormally long time
slowly reactive to accommodation but very poorly (if at all) to light

Holmes-Adie syndrome
association of Holmes-Adie pupil with absent ankle/knee reflexes

commonly seen in women

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is Herpes zoster ophthalmicus (HZO

A

reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus in the area supplied by the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

features of herpes zoster opthalmicus

A

vesicular rash around the eye, which may or may not involve the actual eye itself

Hutchinson’s sign: rash on the tip or side of the nose. Indicates nasociliary involvement and is a strong risk factor for ocular involvement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

management of hZO

A

oral antiviral treatment for 7-10 days
ideally started within 72 hours
intravenous antivirals may be given for very severe infection or if the patient is immunocompromised
topical antiviral treatment is not given in HZO
topical corticosteroids may be used to treat any secondary inflammation of the eye
ocular involvement requires urgent ophthalmology review

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Complications of HZO

A

ocular: conjunctivitis, keratitis, episcleritis, anterior uveitis
ptosis
post-herpetic neuralgia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

entropion?

A

inturning of the eyelids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

ectropion?

A

out-turning of the eyelids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

types of stye

A

external (hordeolum externum): infection (usually staphylococcal) of the glands of Zeis (sebum producing) or glands of Moll (sweat glands).

internal (hordeolum internum): infection of the Meibomian glands. May leave a residual chalazion (Meibomian cyst)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

causes of adie pupil

A

damage to parasympathetic innervation of the eye due to viral or bacterial infection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

marcus-gunn pupil

A

Relative afferent pupillary defect, seen during the swinging light examination of pupil response. The pupils constrict less and therefore appear to dilate when a light is swung from unaffected to affected eye.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

causes for marcus-gunn pupil

A

damage to the optic nerve or severe retinal disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

horners syndrome

A

Miosis (pupillary constriction), ptosis (droopy eyelid), apparent enophthalmos (inset eyeball), with or without anhidrosis (decreased sweating) occurring on one side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

cause of horner

A

damage to the sympathetic trunk on the same side as the symptoms, due to trauma, compression, infection, ischaemia or many others.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

hutchinson’s pupil?

A

Unilaterally dilated pupil which is unresponsive to light

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

cause of huthcinsons pupil

A

A result of compression of the occulomotor nerve of the same side, by an intracranial mass (e.g. tumour, haematoma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

argyll-robertson pupil

A

Bilaterally small pupils that accommodate but don’t react to bright light.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

causes of argyll-robertson pupil

A

diabetes mellitus

syphillis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

contradictions to lumbar puncture

A

papilloedema

focal neurology such as a cranial nerve III or VI palsy can indicate increased intracranial pressure due to a cerebral mass.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

CSF findings of a
MS
subarachnoid haemorrhage

A

MS - oligoclonal bands

subarachnoid haemorrhage - RBCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is papilloedema

A

optic disc swelling that is caused by increased intracranial pressure. It is almost always bilateral.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

features of pailloedema on fundoscopy

A
  • venous engorgement: usually the first sign
  • loss of venous pulsation: although many normal patients do not have normal pulsation
  • blurring of the optic disc margin
  • elevation of optic disc
  • loss of the optic cup
  • Paton’s lines: concentric/radial retinal lines cascading from the optic disc
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

causes of papilloedema

A
  • space-occupying lesion: neoplastic, vascular
  • malignant hypertension
  • idiopathic intracranial - hypertension
  • hydrocephalus
  • hypercapnia

Rare causes include
hypoparathyroidism and hypocalcaemia
vitamin A toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

causes of tonic or Adie’s pupil

A

Caused by damage to parasympathetic fibres innervating the pupil constrictor muscle with cell bodies in the ciliary ganglion
Likely cause an unrecognised viral infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

acetozolamide

A

acute angle glaucoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
chloramphenicol
bacterial conjunctivitis
26
causes of mydriasis
``` third nerve palsy Holmes-Adie pupil traumatic iridoplegia phaeochromocytoma congenital ```
27
Drug causes of mydriasis
topical mydriatics: tropicamide, atropine sympathomimetic drugs: amphetamines, cocaine anticholinergic drugs: tricyclic antidepressants
28
causes of RAPD
``` optic nerve disorders - MS -optic neuritis - optic nerve tumors - trauma -glaucoma - viral infections - granulomatosis before optic chiasm retina - retinal detachment ```
29
Tx of RAPD
observe | gets better in a few months
30
retinal detachment
fluid in RPE and sensiry retina
31
Tx tear in retina but no fluid separating it out
laser or cryotherapy
32
types of retinal detachment
rhegmatogenous - witha tear U shaped retina, macula on, degenerative changes in neurosensory retina creating a hole allowing to fluid to pass from the virteous to the subretinal space between sensory retina and RPE - trauma exudative - fluid build up in subretinal space due to breakdown of blood- retinal barrier HTN, vasculitis, AMD, tumor tractional retinal detachement - pulling, common miopic
33
presentation of retinal detachment
preceded by Floaters flashes peripheral field loss initially -> A veil or curtain over the field of vision loss of red reflex loss of central vision at a later stage detached retina appears grey on fundoscopy Straight lines appear curved Central visual loss Field loss - sudden painless curtain like loss of peripheral visual loss fall in acuity
34
other causes of retinal detachment
proliferative diabetic retinopathy uveitis intraocular tumours
35
prognosis of retinal detachment
time to give definitive treatment site and extent of detachment nature of underlying pathology
36
DD for retinal detachment
migraine retinal artery occlusion post vitreous detachment vitreous haemorrhages - diabetes
37
Mx of retinal detachment
superior tear - lie them flat inferior tear - 30 degrees 2) surgery - vitreoctomy -> to remove traction of the vitreous, cryotherapy/laser photocoagulation stick retina back on
38
causes of tunnel vision
``` papilloedema glaucoma retinitis pigmentosa choroidoretinitis optic atrophy secondary to tabes dorsalis hysteria ```
39
causes of painless loss of vision
- optic neuritis - retinal detachment - posterior vitreous detachment - vitreous haemorrhage - retinal migraine - CRA occlusion - CRV occlusion
40
define transient monocular visual loss
sudden, transient loss of vision that lasts less than 24 hours.
41
differentials for amaurosis fugax
- large artery disease (atherothrombosis, embolus, dissection), - small artery occlusive disease (anterior ischemic optic neuropathy, vasculitis e.g. temporal arteritis), venous disease and hypoperfusion
42
causes of central retinal vein occlusion
glaucoma, polycythaemia, hypertension
43
fundoscopy finding of CRVO
severe retinal haemorrhages chees pizza appearance
44
causes of vitreous haemorrhage
proliferative diabetic retinopathy (over 50%) posterior vitreous detachment ocular trauma: the most common cause in children and young adults , bleeding disorders, anticoagulants
45
features of vitreous haemorrhage
sudden visual loss | dark spots
46
features of posterior vitreous detachment
Flashes of light (photopsia) - in the peripheral field of vision Floaters, often on the temporal side of the central vision
47
features of vitreous haemorrhage
painless visual loss or haze (commonest) red hue in the vision floaters or shadows/dark spots in the vision Large bleeds cause sudden visual loss Moderate bleeds may be described as numerous dark spots Small bleeds may cause floaters
48
signs of vitreous haemorrhage
decreased visual acuity: variable depending on the location, size and degree of vitreous haemorrhage visual field defect if severe haemorrhage
49
Ix for vitreous haemorrhage
- dilated fundoscopy: may show haemorrhage in the vitreous cavity - slit-lamp examination: red blood cells in the anterior vitreous - ultrasound: useful to rule out retinal tear/detachment and if haemorrhage obscures the retina - fluorescein angiography: to identify neovascularization - orbital CT: used if open globe injury
50
what is post vitreous detachment
separation of the vitreous membrane from the retina
51
risk factors of post vitreous detachment
As people age, the vitreous fluid in the eye becomes less viscous, and thus, does not hold its shape as well. Therefore, it pulls the vitreous membrane away from the retina towards the centre of the eye. Highly myopic (near-sighted) patients are also at increased risk of developing posterior vitreous detachment earlier in life. This is because the myopic eye has a longer axial length than an emmetropic eye.
52
symptoms of post vitreous detachment
The sudden appearance of floaters (occasionally a ring of floaters temporal to central vision) Flashes of light in vision Blurred vision Cobweb across vision The appearance of a dark curtain descending down vision (means that there is also retinal detachment)
53
signs of post vitreous detachment
Weiss ring on ophthalmoscopy (the detachment of the vitreous membrane around the optic nerve to form a ring-shaped floater).
54
Ix for post vitreous detachment
All patients with suspected vitreous detachment should be examined by an ophthalmologist within 24hours to rule out retinal tears or detachment.
55
Mx for post vitreous detachment
Posterior vitreous detachment alone does not cause any permanent loss of vision. Symptoms gradually improve over a period of around 6 months and therefore no treatment is necessary. If there is an associated retinal tear or detachment the patient will require surgery to fix this.
56
features of horners
miosis (small pupil) ptosis enophthalmos* (sunken eye) anhidrosis (loss of sweating one side)
57
what is retinitis pigmentosa
affects the peripheral retina resulting in tunnel vision
58
features of retinitis pigmentosa
night blindness is often the initial sign | tunnel vision due to loss of the peripheral retina (occasionally referred to as funnel vision)
59
fundoscopy finding of retinitis pigmentosa
black bone spicule-shaped pigmentation in the peripheral retina, mottling of the retinal pigment epithelium
60
ass diseases of retinitis pigmentosa
``` Refsum disease: cerebellar ataxia, peripheral neuropathy, deafness, ichthyosis Usher syndrome abetalipoproteinemia Lawrence-Moon-Biedl syndrome Kearns-Sayre syndrome Alport's syndrome ```
61
define anisocoria
different pupil size
62
anisocoria worse in the light
parasympahteitc issue | ciliary ganglion