PATH FINAL

Question 1

Which statement about the nervous system is false?
A) It is a system highly resistant to change
B) It responds and adapts to changes in the environment
C) It forms a continuous and dynamic tissue
D) It integrates information and responds to changes

Answer 1

A) It is a system highly resistant to change

Question 2

Which one of the following is NOT a major function of the nervous system?
A) Monitor changes in the internal and external environment
B) Interpret neural signals and produce motor output
C) Process and interpret sensory input and respond accordingly
D) Control and regulate the function of endocrine glands

Answer 2

D) Control and regulate the function of endocrine glands

Question 3

Neurophysiology studies which area of the nervous system?
A) Function
B) Structure
C) Histology
D) Dysfunction

Answer 3

A) Function

Question 4

Which connective tissue layer encases a nerve?
A) Ectoneurium
B) Endoneurium
C) Perineurium
D) Epineurium

Answer 4

D) Epineurium

Question 5

Which one of the following statements regarding the peripheral nervous system is TRUE?
A) The PNS has two major structural divisions - upper and lower
B) Lower motor neurons emerge from the dorsal horns of the spinal cord
C) Upper motor neurons emerge from the ventral horns of the spinal cord
D) Lower motor neurons emerge from the ventral horns of the spinal cord

Answer 5

D) Lower motor neurons emerge from the ventral horns of the spinal cord

Question 6

Which statement about the central nervous system is TRUE?
A) It encompasses all structures in the brain and spinal cord
B) It has two major structural divisions - sensory and motor
C) The parasympathetic division is an integral component of the CNS
D) The autonomic system functions independently of the CNS

Answer 6

A) It encompasses all structures in the brain and spinal cord

Question 7

Which of the following structures is part of the peripheral nervous system?
A) Upper Motor neurons
B) Spinothalamic tracts
C) Pyramidal tracts
D) Proprioceptors

Answer 7

D) Proprioceptors

Question 8

Which one of the following statements describes the function of the autonomic nervous system?
A) Coordinates sensory input from the internal organs
B) Responsible for integrating peripheral nerve signals
C) Coordinates voluntary functions of the internal environment
D) Responsible for maintaining the stability of the internal environment

Answer 8

D) Responsible for maintaining the stability of the internal environment

Question 9

Which one of the following nervous system divisions is responsible for maintaining homeostasis during periods of little activity?
A) Motor
B) Somatic
C) Sympathetic
D) Parasympathetic

Answer 9

D) Parasympathetic

Question 10

Which brain area is the main integration centre for autonomic activity?
A) Medulla Oblongata
B) Hypothalamus
C) Epithalamus
D) Thalamus

Answer 10

B) Hypothalamus

Question 11

Which type of cell controls the chemical environment of neurons?
A) Astrocytes 
B) Schwann cells
C) Ependymal cells
D) Oligodendrocytes

Answer 11

A) Astrocytes

Question 12

Which cell is associated with myelination in the PNS?
A) Astrocytes
B) Schwann cells
C) Oligodendrocytes
D) Ependymal cells

Answer 12

B) Schwann cells

Question 13

Which one of the following is NOT a supporting nerve cell?
A) Astrocytes
B) Schwann
C) Ependymal
D) Neurons

Answer 13

D) Neurons

Question 14

Which ion is crucial for the release of neurotransmitter molecules at the pre-synaptic membrane?
A) Na+
B) K+
C) Ca++
D) Cl-

Answer 14

A) Na+

Question 15

An increase in membrane permeability to which one of the following ions is responsible for the depolarization phase of an action potential?
A) Known as receptor potentials
B) Propagate and act over long distances
C) Known as generator potentials
D) Local, and act over a short distance

Answer 15

B) Propagate and act over long distances

Question 16

What is the state of a cell membrane when its potential temporarily becomes more negative?
A) Hypopolarized
B) Hyperpolarized
C) Facilitated
D) Depolarized

Answer 16

B) Hyperpolarized

Question 17

Which one of the following states characterizes repolarization?
A) Change in resting membrane potential
B) Return to the resting membrane potential
C) Increased membrane permeability to Na+
D) Decreased membrane permeability to K+

Answer 17

B) Return to the resting membrane potential

Question 18

Which statement about myelinated axons is TRUE?
A) Action potentials are initiated along the entire length of the neuron
B) Voltage-gated channels are found only at axon terminals
C) Myelination decreases the rate of Saltatory conduction
D) Myelination allows for the rapid transmission of nerve impulses

Answer 18

D) Myelination allows for the rapid transmission of nerve impulses

Question 19

Which one of the following statements regarding neurotransmission is FALSE?
A) Neurotransmitters are released into the synapse by exocytosis
B) Neurotransmitters travel across the synapse by simple diffusion
C) Neurotransmitters travel across the synapse by active transport
D) Ca+2 promotes fusion of synaptic vesicles and the cell membrane

Answer 19

C) Neurotransmitters travel across the synapse by active transport

Question 20

Which one of the following events leads to the generation of inhibitory post-synaptic potentials
A) Opening of Ca+2 channels
B) Closing of K+ channels
C) Opening of Cl- channel
D) Opening of Na+ channels

Answer 20

C) Opening of Cl- channel

Question 21

Which statement describes adaptation in sensory receptors?
A) Does not generate action potentials when a stimulus is initially applied
B) Keeps generating action potentials despite removal of the stimulus
C) Stops generating action potentials once the stimulus
D) Stops generating action potentials despite continued presence of the stimulus

Answer 21

D) Stops generating action potentials despite continued presence of the stimulus

Question 22

Which of the following is NOT an effect of a neuromodulator?
A) Release of neurotransmitters from the pre-synaptic membrane
B) Enhanced NT receptor sensitivity on the post-synaptic membrane
C) Synthesis of neurotransmitter molecules in the post-synaptic membrane
D) Degradation of neurotransmitter molecules on the post-synaptic membrane

Answer 22

C) Synthesis of neurotransmitter molecules on the post-synaptic membrane

Question 23

Which state does NOT contribute to synaptic delay?
A) Neurotransmitter exocytosis at the pre-synaptic terminal
B) Binding of neurotransmitter molecules to receptors on post-synaptic membranes
C) Increased release of neurotransmitter molecules at the pre-synaptic terminal
D) Diffusion of neurotransmitter molecules across the synaptic cleft

Answer 23

C) Increased release of neurotransmitter molecules at the pre-synaptic terminal

Question 24

Voltage-gated channels respond to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_
A) Neurotransmitters
B) Membrane distortions
C) Hormonal stimuli
D) Electrical signals

Answer 24

D) Electrical signals

Question 25

Which statement describes a converging neuronal circuit? A) It is one pre-synaptic neuron synapses on several postsynaptic neurons B) It is several pre-synaptic neurons synapse on one post-synaptic neuron C) It is common in reflexive pathways and allows for repetitious movement D) It is associated with controlling activities such as the sleep-wake cycle

Answer 25

B) It is several pre-synaptic neurons synapse on one post-synaptic neuron

Question 26

``` Which one of the following types of neuronal circuits is an example of a positive feedback mechanism? A) Parallel-after discharge B) Reverberating C) Converging D) Diverging ```

Answer 26

B) Reverberating

Question 27

``` Ruffini’s corpuscles in the skin provide information regarding which one of the following sensory modalities? A) Tendon stretch B) Pain and temperature C) Deep pressure and stretch D) Balance and body position ```

Answer 27

C) Deep pressure and stretch

Question 28

Joint kinesthetic receptors provide information regarding which sensory modality? A) Tendon stretch B) Pain and temperature C) Light pressure and discriminative touch D) Balance and body position

Answer 28

D) Balance and body position

Question 29

``` Proprioceptors are receptors classified by which one of the following? A) Stimulus B) Location C) Structure D) Adaptation ```

Answer 29

B) Location

Question 30

Which one of the following statements regarding 1st order neurons is TRUE? A) Transmit information from the cerebral cortex to the spinal cord B) Transmit signals from sensory receptors to the thalamus C) The neuronal cell bodies are located in the primary motor cortex D) The neuronal cell bodies are located in the dorsal root ganglia

Answer 30

D) The neuronal cell bodies are located in the dorsal root ganglia

Question 31

``` Which one of the following brain centres does NOT receive signals directly from 2nd order neurons? A) Thalamic nuclei B) Cerebral cortex C) Cerebellar nuclei D) Reticular activating system ```

Answer 31

B) Cerebral cortex

Question 32

``` Which type of signal is transmitted along 3rd order neurons? A) Sensory to the spinal cord B) Motor to pyramidal cells C) Sensory to the brain D) Motor to muscles ```

Answer 32

C) Sensory to the brain

Question 33

``` Which one of the following types of neurons decussates across the midline of spinal cord segments of the medulla oblongata? A) 1st order B) 2nd order C) 3rd order D) Association ```

Answer 33

B) 2nd order

Question 34

``` Which tract does not decussate at the medulla oblongata? A) Fasciculus cuneatus B) Lateral corticospinal C) Lateral spinothalamic D) Fasciculus Gracilis ```

Answer 34

C) Lateral spinothalamic

Question 35

Which statement about ascending nerve tracts in the spinal cord is TRUE? A) Originate in the dorsal horns of the spinal cord B) Transmit sensory input to cardiac muscles C) Transmit motor output to skeletal muscles D) Consist of nerve fibres composed of gray matter

Answer 35

A) Originate in the dorsal horns of the spinal cord

Question 36

``` Which term describes a lack of sensation? A) Anaesthesia B) Somesthesia C) Kinaesthesia D) Bradykinesia ```

Answer 36

A) Anaesthesia

Question 37

Dysmetria is a condition manifested by which one of the following? A) Impaired initiation of movement B) Intention, or resting tremors C) A loss of motor coordination resulting in ‘overshooting’ D) A loss of vasomotor control

Answer 37

C) A loss of motor coordination resulting in ‘overshooting’

Question 38

``` With which sensory modality are lateral spinothalamic tract signals associated? A) Pain sensation B) Discriminative touch C) Crude touch and pressure D) Subconscious Proprioception ```

Answer 38

A) Pain sensation

Question 39

``` The fasciculi Gracilis and cuneatus transmit nerve signals associated with which sensory modality? A) Discriminative touch B) Pain and temperature C) Gross motor coordination D) Regulation of vital signs ```

Answer 39

A) Discriminative touch

Question 40

``` Damage to which sensory area of the cerebral cortex results in functional blindness? A) Vestibular cortex B) Primary visual area C) Gustatory cortex D) Wernicke’s area ```

Answer 40

B) Primary visual area

Question 41

Which one of the following statements describes spatial discrimination? A) Communication of signals between the hemispheres B) The ability to identify the body region being stimulated C) Functional specialization of hemispheric activity D) Cerebral dominance in reflexive behaviours

Answer 41

B) The ability to identify the body region being stimulated

Question 42

``` Which one of the following components of the neuromuscular system is responsible for initiating voluntary skeletal muscle contraction? A) Cerebellum B) Motor cortex C) Myofibres D) Basil Nuclei ```

Answer 42

B) Motor cortex

Question 43

``` Damage to the motor cortex results in which one of the following disorders? A) Parkinson’s disease B) Hemiplegia C) Cerebral palsy D) Huntington’s chorea ```

Answer 43

B) Hemiplegia

Question 44

``` Which of the following is a level of motor integration? A) Circuit B) Receptor C) Perceptual D) Projection ```

Answer 44

D) Projection

Question 45

Which one of the following statements regarding motor control is FALSE? A) The motor cortices in the cerebral hemispheres initiate voluntary movement B) The alpha motor system provides direct Innervation to skeletal muscles C) The gamma motor system allows for reflexive muscle contraction D) Muscle tone is affected primarily through alpha control of the IFFs

Answer 45

D) Muscle tone is affected primarily through alpha control of the IFFs

Question 46

``` The cerebellum integrates sensory information regarding which one of the following? A) Pain discrimination B) Balance and muscle tone C) Gross motor coordination D) Regulation of vital signs ```

Answer 46

B) Balance and muscle tone

Question 47

Which one of the following statements about the effects of hypoxia and ischemia on the brain is TRUE? A) Hypoxia severely reduces cellular metabolism, but ischemia does not B) Hypoxia is fairly well tolerated, but ischemia leads to neuronal damage C) Hypoxia and ischemia both cause severe damage due to reduced tissue perfusion D) Hypoxia and ischemia can be compensated to a large extent by auto-regulation

Answer 47

B) Hypoxia is fairly well tolerated, but ischemia leads to neuronal damage

Question 48

Which of the following statements about the brain is TRUE? A) The brain uses about 20% of available oxygen B) The brain is not a metabolically active organ C) The brain uses about 2% of available oxygen D) The brain is an avascular organ

Answer 48

A) The brain uses about 20% of available oxygen

Question 49

``` Which area is part of the ventricular system? A) Cerebral aqueduct B) Medial ventricle C) Circle of Willis D) Nasal sinuses ```

Answer 49

A) Cerebral aqueduct

Question 50

``` Which substance is NOT transported through the blood brain barrier via simple diffusion? A) Water B) Oxygen C) Glucose D) Carbon dioxide ```

Answer 50

C) Glucose

Question 51

``` Which one of the following conditions decreases blood flow to and within the brain? A) Hyperthyroidism B) Arteriosclerosis C) Hypoglycemia D) Vasodilation ```

Answer 51

B) Arteriosclerosis

Question 52

``` Which set names the meninges from superficial to deep? A) Dura mater/arachnoid mater/Pia mater B) Dura mater/Pia mater/arachnoid mater C) Pia mater/arachnoid mater/dura mater D) Arachnoid mater/dura mater/Pia mater ```

Answer 52

A) Dura mater/arachnoid mater/Pia mater

Question 53

``` Which one of the following components does NOT affect intracranial pressure? A) Blood flow B) Mass of the brain C) Cranial ligaments D) Cerebrospinal fluid ```

Answer 53

C) Cranial ligaments

Question 54

``` Which one of the following factors is NOT a known risk factor predisposing a person to cerebrovascular accident? A) Moderate alcohol intake B) Hyperlipidemia C) Diabetes D) Smoking ```

Answer 54

A) Moderate alcohol intake

Question 55

Which of the following statements regarding bacteria is TRUE? A) Cause damage by controlling the host cell nucleus B) Cause damage, in part, by releasing toxins C) All bacteria are pathogenic to humans D) Organisms incapable of independent living

Answer 55

B) Cause damage, in part, by releasing toxins

Question 56

Which statement about pathogens is TRUE? A) Viruses are living organisms B) Viruses are obligate intracellular pathogens C) Viruses secrete toxins once they infect a host D) All bacteria exist in symbiotic relationships with hosts

Answer 56

B) Viruses are obligate intracellualr pathogens

Question 57

``` Which one of the following is NOT considered an infectious brain disorder? A) Encephalomyelitis B) Meningitis C) Poliomyelitis D) Encephalitis ```

Answer 57

C) Poliomyelitis

Question 58

Which statement about meningitis is TRUE? A) A condition in which viral particles attack and destroy neurons B) An infective brain disease caused by bacterial or viral agents C) A common complication of measles and mumps vaccination D) The target population for the disease is mature adults

Answer 58

B) An infective brain disease caused by bacterial or viral agents

Question 59

``` The degeneration of which one of the following brain structures is the ultimate cause of the onset of Parkinson’s disease? A) Nasal nuclei B) Substantia Nigra C) Red Nucleus D) Pineal gland ```

Answer 59

B) Substantia nigra

Question 60

``` Which condition is a result of demyelination of neurons in the CNS? A) Parkinson’s disease B) Alzheimer’s disease C) Multiple sclerosis D) Cerebral palsy ```

Answer 60

C) Multiple sclerosis

Question 61

``` Which brain injury is least likely to be a result of trauma? A) Contusion B) Concussion C) Epidural hematoma D) Transient ischemic attacks ```

Answer 61

D) Transient ischemic attacks

Question 62

``` Which one of the following states is NOT a result of increased neurological activity? A) Spasticity B) Plasticity C) Areflexia D) Seizures ```

Answer 62

C) Areflexia

Question 63

Which one of the following statements regarding cerebrovascular accidents is FALSE? A) Cognitive deficits may result B) Results in infarction and focal ischemia C) There is rarely any associated sensorimotor loss D) Can be due to blood vessel obstruction, or aneurysm

Answer 63

C) There is rarely any associated sensorimotor loss

Question 64

``` Which one of the following manifestations is typical of autonomic dysfunction due to spinal shock? A) Hypertonia B) Tachycardia C) Spastic paralysis D) Vasovagal response ```

Answer 64

D) Vasovagal response

Question 65

``` Which risk factor for cerebrovascular accidents cannot be readily controlled by life style changes? A) Obesity B) Hypertension C) Hyperlipidemia D) Age ```

Answer 65

D) Age

Question 66

``` What is NOT a site of upper motor neuron lesions? A) Brain stem B) Corticospinal tracts C) Cerebral cortex D) Dorsal horn ```

Answer 66

D) Dorsal horn

Question 67

``` Upper motor neuron lesions may result in which one of the following states? A) Flaccid paralysis B) Increased muscle tone C) A loss of spinal reflexes D) Decreased deep tendon reflexes ```

Answer 67

B) Increased muscle tone

Question 68

Which one of the following conclusions can a clinician reach when they elicit abnormal deep tendon reflexes? A) There is an upper motor neuron lesion B) Further neurological tests are in order C) The exact location of a nerve lesion D) There is no need for further testing

Answer 68

B) Further neurological tests are in order

Question 69

``` Manifestations of flaccid paralysis include which one of the following? A) Increased muscle tone B) Increased deep tendon reflexes C) Loss of voluntary muscle control D) Inflammation of affected muscles ```

Answer 69

C) Loss of voluntary muscle control

Question 70

Which one of the following statements regarding autonomic dysreflexia is TRUE? A) Rarely constitutes a medical emergency B) Occurs with lower lumbar and sacral injuries C) Occurs in degenerative conditions such as cerebral palsy D) Systemic manifestations include headaches, nasal congestion and anxiety

Answer 70

D) Systemic manifestations include headaches, nasal congestion and anxiety

Question 71

``` What is the least likely manifestation of a spinal cord injury? A) Diminished reflexes B) Impaired breathing C) Sensory and motor deficits D) Impaired cognitive function ```

Answer 71

D) Impaired cognitive function

Question 72

``` Spinal cord injury at which segmental level is most likely to be fatal? A) C1-C2 B) C3-C4 C) C5-C6 D) C6-C7 ```

Answer 72

A) C1-C2

Question 73

``` Spinal cord injuries occurring at T8 may result in which state? A) Lower limb paralysis B) Upper limb dysfunction C) Serious autonomic dysfunction D) Full loss of respiratory function ```

Answer 73

A) Lower limb paralysis

Question 74

``` Which pattern of paralysis describes quadriplegia A) Just lower limbs B) Just upper limbs C) Arms and legs D) One side of the body ```

Answer 74

C) Arms and legs

Question 75

``` Which one of the following is NOT a stage of disc herniation? A) Sequestration B) Protrusion C) Prolapse D) Prelapse ```

Answer 75

D) Prelapse

Question 76

``` Which one of the following SCI conditions is associated with changes to the annulus fibrosis? A) Compression fracture B) Disc herniation C) Central stenosis D) Spondylosis ```

Answer 76

B) Disc Herniation

Question 77

``` Which condition is a direct cause of a compression syndrome? A) Necrosis B) Demyelination C) Axon degeneration D) Ischemia ```

Answer 77

D) Ischemia

Question 78

Which statement describes the nucleus pulposus of the vertebral discs? A) It is the outer layer consisting of articular cartilage B) It is the outer layer consisting of fibrocartilage C) It is the inner layer with a high water content D) It is the inner layer with a high collagenous content

Answer 78

C) It is the inner layer with a high water content

Question 79

``` What is NOT a sing/symptom of osteoarthritis? A) Sudden onset B) Stiffness after rest C) Joint enlargement D) Pain and crepitus ```

Answer 79

A) Sudden onset

Question 80

``` Which conditions name two demyelination disorders? A) Poliomyelitis and Guillain-Barre B) Cerebral palsy and multiple sclerosis C) Multiple sclerosis and Guillain-Barre D) Parkinson’s and Huntington’s Disease ```

Answer 80

C) Multiple sclerosis and Guillain-Barre

Question 81

``` Which one of the following pairs names two conditions most likely linked to viral infections? A) Poliomyelitis and Guillain-Barre B) Cerebral palsy and multiple sclerosis C) Multiple sclerosis and Guillain-Barre D) Parkinson’s and Huntington’s Disease ```

Answer 81

A) Poliomyelitis and Guillain-Barre

Question 82

``` Which one of the following conditions is likely to leads to systemic peripheral neuropathies? A) Diabetes B) Constipation C) Fracture D) Compression ```

Answer 82

A) Diabetes

Question 83

``` Which statement about compression syndromes is FALSE? A) Cause ischemia and hypoxia B) A major class of CNS lesions C) Compromise neurotransmission D) Loss of function may be permanent ```

Answer 83

B) A major class of CNS Lesions

Question 84

``` In which thoracic outlet syndrome is the Axillary artery compressed? A) Posterior scalene B) Pectoralis minor C) Anterior Scalene D) Costoclavicular ```

Answer 84

B) Pectoralis Minor

Question 85

``` Which muscle is unaffected in anterior compartment syndrome? A) Soleus B) Tibialis Anterior C) Fibularis longus D) Extensor digitorum longus ```

Answer 85

A) Soleus

Question 86

``` Which set of structures forms the proximal boundary of the carpal tunnel? A) Flexor retinaculum B) Pisiform and scaphoid bones C) Hook of hamate and trapezium D) Radial and Ulnar styloid processes ```

Answer 86

B) Pisiform and scaphoid bones

Question 87

``` Which one of the following terms is pain perceived at a site different than the site of origin? A) Referred B) Radiating C) Radicular D) Cutaneous ```

Answer 87

A) Referred

Question 88

Which one of the following statements regarding chronic pain is TRUE? A) Presents with increased sympathetic responses B) May be associated with depression and insomnia C) Typically involves sharp, piercing pain sensations D) Onset is rapid and pain is typically of short duration

Answer 88

B) May be associated with depression and insomnia

Question 89

``` Which one of the following terms is pain resulting from a normally innocuous stimulus? A) Analgesia B) Anesthesia C) Allodynia D) Causalgia ```

Answer 89

C) Allodynia

Question 90

Which statement describes the Gate-Control Theory of pain? A) Differentiating various types of sensations depends on spatial patterns of activity B) Pain experience can be modulated by the inhibition of transmitted pain signals C) Pain is regarded as a separate sensory modality with its own specific receptors D) A pattern of high frequency stimulation is perceived as pain rather than touch

Answer 90

B) Pain experience can be modulated by the inhibition of transmitted pain signals

Question 91

Which statement about the Gate Control Theory is FALSE? A) Massage and hydrotherapy may reduce pain B) Pain signals ascend the spinothalamic tract C) Inhibitory neurons affect pain transmission D) Activity of C-fibres has an inhibitory effect

Answer 91

D) Activity of C-fibres has an inhibitory effect

Question 92

``` Which one of the following statements regarding chronic pain is TRUE? A) Serves no physiological purpose B) Increases heart rate C) Is unlikely to lead to depression D) Signals immediate danger ```

Answer 92

A) Serves no physiological purpose

Question 93

Which statement about pain is FALSE? A) Cutaneous pain can be sharp and cutting B) Visceral pain can be difficult to localize C) Pain is carried on A-beta fibres D) Pain is carried on C fibres

Answer 93

C) Pain is carried on A-beta fibres

Question 94

``` Which one of the following substances is an endogenous analgesic? A) Aspirin B) Substance P C) Enkephalin D) Histamine ```

Answer 94

C) Enkaphalin

Question 95

``` Which substance is an exogenous analgesic? A) Endorphin B) Aspirin C) Substance P D) Enkephalin ```

Answer 95

B) Aspirin

Question 96

Which one of the following statements regarding the transmission of pain signals is TRUE? A) All signals are sensed at the same intensity B) Action potentials are different from other sensations C) Commonly transmitted along A-delta fibres D) Pain receptors adapt very quickly to stimuli

Answer 96

C) Commonly transmitted along A-delta fibres

Question 97

Which one of the following statements regarding neurotransmission along C-fibres is TRUE? A) Saltatory conduction is the mode of transmission B) Neuronal input does not produce a sensation C) Signal transmission is relatively fast D) Signals transmitted include pain and temperature

Answer 97

D) Signals transmitted include pain and temperature

Question 98

``` Which one of the following describes nerve impulses transmitted along A-delta fibres? A) Unlikely to produce pain sensation B) Poorly localized C) Transmit fast pain D) Travel slowly up ascending tracts ```

Answer 98

C) Transmit fast pain

Question 99

Which statement about pain tolerance is FALSE? A) Cultural norms affect pain tolerance levels B) Everyone’s pain tolerance is the same C) Endopgenous analgesics affect pain tolerance levels D) Pain is a multi-factorial phenomenon

Answer 99

B) Everyone’s pain tolerance is the same

Question 100

``` Which one of the following manifestations is an autonomic response to pain? A) Decreased heart rate B) Decreased muscle tension C) Increased blood pressure D) Increased irritability ```

Answer 100

C) Increased blood pressure

Question 101

Which statement about the function of the limbic system is TRUE? A) It is associated pain with endocrine and autonomic function B) It provides the emotional responses to painful stimuli C) It generates reflex responses to painful stimuli D) It increases alertness when impulses reach the brain

Answer 101

B) It provides the emotional responses to painful stimuli

Question 102

``` Which term means an increased sensitivity to pain? A) Hyperalgesia B) Allodynia C) Paresthesia D) Hyperesthesia ```

Answer 102

A) Hyperalgesia

Question 103

True or False: Synaptic potentiation can occur in pain pathways

Answer 103

True

Question 104

``` Which lobe of the brain is largely responsible for impulse control? A) Frontal B) Parietal C) Occipital D) Temporal ```

Answer 104

D) Temporal

Question 105

``` Which hormone is ultimately secreted because of the HPA axis? A) Adrenaline B) Epinepherine C) Noepinephrine D) Cortisol ```

Answer 105

D) Cortisol

Question 106

``` Which part of the brain keeps track of where information has been put in long-term memory? A) Prefrontal associative cortex B) Parietal lobe C) HPA axis D) Amygdala ```

Answer 106

A) Prefrontal associative cortex

Question 107

Which statement about depression is true? A) Bipolar depression is three times as common in men as in women B) 20% of people have unipolar depression C) Unipolar depression is twice as common in women as in men D) Bipolar depression is more common in lower socioeconomic groups

Answer 107

C) Unipolar depression is twice as common in women as in men

Question 108

``` Which two chemicals are most strongly implicated in depression? A) Lithium and monamine oxidase B) The two thyroid hormones C) Serotonin and noepinepherine D) Cortisol and adrenaline ```

Answer 108

C) Serotonin and noepinepherine

Question 109

``` What is common to all the anxiety disorders? A) Activation of the HPA axis B) Reduced thyroid hormone secretion C) Auditory hallucinations D) Bradycardia ```

Answer 109

A) Activation of the HPA axis

Question 110

``` Which one of the following terms describes black, tarry and malodorous stool? A) Hematogenic B) Melena C) Hemaemesis D) Melanoma ```

Answer 110

B) Melena

Question 111

``` Which term means a gurgling sound heard in the large intestine due to the passage of gas? A) Borborygmus B) Fecal impaction C) Diarrhea D) Constipation ```

Answer 111

A) Borborygmus

Question 112

``` Which mineral is involved with blood clotting? A) Chloride B) Iodine C) Calcium D) Iron ```

Answer 112

C) Calcium

Question 113

Which set correctly pairs a blood vessel and its characteristics? A) Gastric artery - well oxygenated blood; carries nutrients to the liver B) Hepatic vein - well oxygenated blood; carries nutrients to the liver C) Hepatic artery - poorly oxygenated blood; carries nutrients to the liver D) Portal vein - poorly oxygenated blood; carries nutrients to the liver

Answer 113

D) Portal vein - poorly oxygenated blood; carries nutrients to the liver

Question 114

``` Which manifestation is unique to Crohn’s disease? A) Skip lesions of the intestine wall B) Patient experiences diarrhea C) Ulceration of the intestinal mucosa D) Malabsorption of Nutrients ```

Answer 114

A) Skip lesions of the intestine wall

Question 115

``` Which fat is naturally solid at room temperature? A) Polyunsaturated B) Monounsaturated C) Hydrogenated D) Saturated ```

Answer 115

D) Saturated

Question 116

``` Which factor is the major contributor to the development of esophageal cancer? A) A diet low in saturated fat B) Persistent achalasia C) A low fibre diet D) Moderate alcohol intake ```

Answer 116

B) Persistent achalasia

Question 117

Which statement best describes cholelithiasis? A) Accumulation of cholesterol in the gallbladder B) Inflammation of the hepatic canaliculi C) Calcification of bile and gallstone formation D) Stone formation and obstruction of the portal vein

Answer 117

C) Calcification of bile and gallstone formation

Question 118

What is NOT a role of bacteria in the large intestine? A) Protect against colonization by pathogenic bacteria B) Assist in the production of vitamin E C) Produce gas as a by-product of metabolism D) Help breakdown indigestible carbohydrates

Answer 118

B) Assist in the production of vitamin E

Question 119

Which statement about the digestive system is true? A) One of the only systems involved in maintaining homeostasis B) Digestion occurs throughout the entire gastrointestinal tract C) Supports homeostasis by supplying nutrients and removing wastes D) Chemical digestion is the only function of the system

Answer 119

C) Supports homeostasis by supplying nutrients and removing wastes

Question 120

Which statement describes intrinsic control of digestive processes? A) It is the activation by nerve plexuses and enteroendrocrine glands B) It is long reflexes responding to stimuli outside the GI tract C) It is random, reflexive local stimulation of the GI tract D) It is the activation of reflexes by the CNS and autonomic nerves

Answer 120

A) It is the activation by nerve plexuses and enteroendocrine glands

Question 121

``` What is considered the universal fuel for the kreb’s cycle? A) Pyruvic acid B) Fatty acids C) Acetyl-CoA D) Glycogen ```

Answer 121

C) Acetyl-CoA

Question 122

``` Which pathology is associated with a lack of intrinsic factor? A) Ulcerative colitis B) Pernicious anemia C) Celiac disease D) Crohn’s disease ```

Answer 122

B) Pernicious anemia

Question 123

Which statement is unique to Type 1 diabetes mellitus? A) Development of ketoacidosis is a risk B) Persons experience hyperglycaemia C) The development of ‘diabesity’ is common D) Excess glucose is excreted in the urine

Answer 123

A) Developement of ketoacidosis is a risk

Question 124

``` Which one of the following is NOT a component of saliva? A) Pepsin B) Lysozyme C) IgA (antibodies) D) Amylase ```

Answer 124

A) Pepsin

Question 125

``` Which one of the following is considered a hypoglycaemic hormone? A) Growth hormone B) Glucagon C) Insulin D) Cortisol ```

Answer 125

C) Insulin

Question 126

``` Which organ is NOT part of the lower gastrointestinal tract? A) Stomach B) Small intestine C) Large intestine D) Cecum ```

Answer 126

A) Stomach

Question 127

``` Which process is an example of chemical digestion? A) Propulsion B) Lipolysis C) Ingestion D) Assimilation ```

Answer 127

B) Lipolysis

Question 128

Which statement describes segmentation? A) It is movement of food along the alimentary canal B) It is rhythmic contractions along the alimentary canal C) It is nonadjacent intestinal sections alternately contracting D) It is elimination of indigestible substances from the body

Answer 128

C) It is nonadjacent intestinal sections alternately contracting

Question 129

``` Which type of cell in the pancreas synthesizes and secretes insulin? A) B-beta B) A-alpha C) Zymogen D) Acinar ```

Answer 129

A) B-beta

Question 130

Which one of the following statements regarding alcohol is TRUE? A) Carbonated beverages enhance absorption of alcohol B) Alcohol does not breach the blood brain barrier C) Alcoholism does not usually lead to liver dysfunction D) Alcohol stimulates nervous system function

Answer 130

A) Carbonated beverages enhance absorption of alcohol

Question 131

``` Which one of the following structural modifications is NOT seen in the small intestine? A) Villi B) Microvilli C) Brush border D) Haustra ```

Answer 131

D) Haustra

Question 132

``` Which state is NOT a chronic complication of diabetes mellitus? A) Anaphylactic shock B) Nephropathies C) Peripheral neuropathies D) Ulcerated wounds ```

Answer 132

A) Anaphylactic shock

Question 133

``` Which one of the following is NOT a phase controlling gastric secretion? A) Intestinal B) Cephalic C) Pancreatic D) Gastric ```

Answer 133

C) Pancreatic

Question 134

Alterations in liver function resulting from cirrhosis are due to which one of the following factors? A) Obstruction of bile canalculi and ducts B) Excessive fat accumulation in the bile ducts C) Fibrosis and replacement of normal cells with nodules D) Abnormal storage of fatty substances in hepatocytes

Answer 134

C) Fibrosis and replacement of normal cells with nodules

Question 135

``` Which disorder is least likely to be associated with malabsorption? A) Lactose intolerance B) Pernicious anemia C) Peptic ulcers D) Celiac disease ```

Answer 135

C) Peptic ulcers

Question 136

Which statement about absorption of nutrients in the small intestine is FALSE? A) Micelles are fatty elements that facilitate absorption of lipids B) Amino acids are absorbed mostly through diffusion C) Absorption of vitamins A, D, E and K depends on lipid absorption D) Glucose moves into the cells of the small intestine by secondary active transport

Answer 136

B) Amino acids are absorbed mostly through diffusion

Question 137

``` Post-necrotic cirrhosis is often the result of which condition? A) Obstructed biliary ducts B) Alcohol abuse C) Gall stones D) Hepatitis B ```

Answer 137

D) Hepatitis B

Question 138

``` Which substance is NOT absorbed from the lumen by secondary active transport? A) Chloride B) Amino acids C) Potassium ions D) Glucose ```

Answer 138

C) Potassium ions

Question 139

``` Which of the following is an accessory organ of the digestive tract? A) Mouth B) Duodenum C) Stomach D) Liver ```

Answer 139

D) Liver

Question 140

``` What is NOT a sign/symptom of diabetic ketoacidosis? A) Fruity breath smell B) Fatigue C) Bradycardia D) Vomiting ```

Answer 140

C) Bradycardia

Question 141

``` Vitamin D deficiency may result in which one of the following dysfunctions? A) Night blindness B) Bone destruction C) Nervous disorders D) Slow wound healing ```

Answer 141

B) Bone destruction

Question 142

Which statement about gestational diabetes is FALSE? A) The condition is associated with a total insulin dependency B) Mild hyperglycaemia can cause harm to the fetus C) This type of diabetes mellitus occurs during pregnancy D) Family history of diabetes mellitus is a high risk factor

Answer 142

A) The condition is associated with a total insulin dependency

Question 143

Which statement about liver functions is TRUE? A) In the event of liver failure, the gall bladder can produce bile B) Hepatocytes are responsible for producing cholecystokinin C) Hepatocytes perform metabolic conversion of nutrients D) Hepatocytes store and concentrate bile

Answer 143

C) Hepatocytes perform metabolic conversion of nutrients

Question 144

``` Which substance is NOT a breakdown product of lipids? A) Cholesterol B) Glycerol C) Fatty acids D) Amino acids ```

Answer 144

D) Amino acids

Question 145

``` Protrusion of a segment of the stomach, including the esophagogastric junction, above the diaphragm describes ______ A) Diverticulosis B) Sliding hiatal hernia C) Diverticulitis D) Rolling hiatal hernia ```

Answer 145

B) Sliding hiatal hernia

Question 146

``` The exocrine function of the pancreas is the production and secretion of _____ A) Cholecystokinin B) Gastric juice C) Insulin and glucagon D) Pancreatic juice ```

Answer 146

D) Pancreatic juice

Question 147

``` Which layer of the alimentary canal is responsible for segmentation and peristalsis? A) Adventitia B) Submucosa C) Mucosa D) Muscularis ```

Answer 147

D) Muscularis

Question 148

``` Which one of the following disorders can be detected by pressing down on McBurney’s point? A) Peritonitis B) Appendicitis C) Enteritis D) Diverticultis ```

Answer 148

B) Appendicitis

Question 149

``` Which hormone is secreted by the pancreas? A) Cortisol B) Epinephrine C) Growth hormone D) Glucagon ```

Answer 149

D) Glucagon

Question 150

``` What is NOT a condition associated with liver dysfunction? A) Jaundice B) Cirrhosis C) Renal colic D) Hepatitis ```

Answer 150

C) Renal colic

Question 151

``` Which one of the following terms is the synthesis of glucose in the liver? A) Glycogenesis B) Glycolysis C) Gluconeogenesis D) Glycogenolysis ```

Answer 151

C) Gluconeogenesis

Question 152

Which statement about the role of hydrochloric acid is FALSE? A) It converts pepsinogen to pepsin in the stomach B) It facilitates the destruction of ingested bacteria C) It is primarily responsible for digesting fats D) It may cause harm to the mucosal lining of the stomach

Answer 152

C) It is primarily responsible for digesting fats

Question 153

Which statement about the conversion of inactive digestive enzymes to the active form is TRUE? A) Activation produces a digestible enzyme with lower potency B) Presence of inactive enzymes in the stomach may cause ulcers C) The active form is less specific than the inactive form D) A protective mechanism designed to prevent cell degradation

Answer 153

D) A protective mechanism designed to prevent cell degradation

Question 154

``` What is the digestive function of bile? A) Micelle formation B) Production of lipoproteins C) Mechanical digestion of lipids D) Digestion of proteins ```

Answer 154

A) Micelle formation

Question 155

``` Which of the following incorrectly pairs an enzyme and its action site? A) Maltese - small intestine B) Nuclease - small intestine C) Pepsin - stomach D) Lipase - pancreas ```

Answer 155

D) Lipase - pancreas

Question 156

``` What is NOT an effect of alcohol on the nervous system? A) Decreased reaction time B) Decreased inhibitions C) Decreased balance D) Decreased motor performance ```

Answer 156

A) Decreased reaction time

Question 157

``` Which factor will likely increase stomach motility? A) Sympathetic stimulation B) Stomach distension C) Depression D) Duodenal distension ```

Answer 157

B) Stomach distension

Question 158

``` Which of the following is a component of the upper respiratory tract? A) Bronchi B) Trachea C) Bronchioles D) Alveoli ```

Answer 158

B) Trachea

Question 159

``` Which term is the differential pressure on the two sides of the respiratory membrane? A) Inverse correlation B) Pressure gradient C) Intra-pleural pressure D) Ventilation-perfusion ```

Answer 159

B) Pressure gradient

Question 160

``` Which structure produces and secretes surfactant that reduces the surface tension of alveolar fluid? A) Basal lamina B) Type I cells C) Alveoli D) Type II cells ```

Answer 160

D) Type II cells

Question 161

``` Which term describes the affinity of CO2 to hemoglobin as a function of P-O2? A) Haldane effect B) Hypoxemia C) CO poisoning D) Perfusion ```

Answer 161

A) Haldane effect

Question 162

Which condition will increase gas exchange in the lungs? A) Chronic bronchitis B) Thickened respiratory membrane C) Low pressure differential of gases across the respiratory membrane D) High pressure differential of gases across the respiratory membrane

Answer 162

D) High pressure differential of gases across the respiratory membrane

Question 163

``` Which one of the following terms describes maintaining proportional air and blood flow in the alveoli? A) Ventilation B) Perfusion C) Coupling D) Pressure gradient ```

Answer 163

C) Coupling

Question 164

``` Which area of the brain is NOT directly associated with controlling respiration? A) Pons B) Medulla Oblongata C) Midbrain D) Motor cortex ```

Answer 164

C) Midbrain

Question 165

``` Which term refers to the ease with which the lungs expand? A) Lung compliance B) Histoplasticity C) Thoracic mobility D) Surface tension ```

Answer 165

A) Lung compliance

Question 166

``` What is NOT a cardinal sign of respiratory disorders? A) Dyspnea B) Hypocapnia C) Rales D) Coughing ```

Answer 166

B) Hypocapnia

Question 167

Which statement about dyspnea is FALSE? A) It is also known as ‘Shortness of breath’ B) A major cause of dyspnea is Bronchodilation C) Dyspnea occurs with many respiratory conditions D) Dyspnea is a response to low oxygen levels in the blood

Answer 167

B) A major cause of dyspnea is bronchodilation

Question 168

What is NOT an effect of air pollution? A) Decreased movement of the cilia of the epithelial cells B) Irritation of the lungs, causing inflammation C) Potential Damage to an unborn fetus D) Increase in gas exchange

Answer 168

D) Increase in gas exchange

Question 169

Which statement about non-productive coughs is TRUE? A) Involves removal of blood-stained sputum from air passageways B) Non-productive coughs are phlegm-laden C) Chronic non-productive coughs may indicate a bronchial tumour D) They are due to mucus accumulation in air passageways

Answer 169

C) Chronic non-productive coughs may indicate a bronchial tumour

Question 170

``` Which lung disease is least likely to be infectious? A) Acute Bronchitis B) Viral pneumonia C) Tuberculosis D) Chronic bronchitis ```

Answer 170

D) Chronic bronchitis

Question 171

``` What is NOT a chronic pulmonary condition? A) Chronic bronchitis B) Cystic fibrosis C) Emphysema D) Pleuritis ```

Answer 171

D) Pleuritis

Question 172

``` Which one of the following is NOT a sign of asthma? A) Wheezing B) Rales C) Coughing D) Chest tightness ```

Answer 172

B) Rales

Question 173

In general, chronic lung diseases are a group of disorders that manifest with which state? A) Pulmonary edema and lung collapse B) Infection, abscesses and granuloma formation C) Inflammation and fibrotic changes in lung tissue D) Recurrent obstruction of air flow in pulmonary airways

Answer 173

D) Recurrent obstruction of air flow in pulmonary airways

Question 174

``` What is NOT a sign of emphysema? A) Dyspnea B) Cyanosis C) Hyperventilation D) Weight loss ```

Answer 174

B) Cyanosis

Question 175

Which statement about pulmonary embolisms is FALSE? A) It is usually due to thrombi dislodged from deep veins in the legs B) Obstruction leads to pulmonary blood flow obstruction C) Smokers are not susceptible to this type of obstruction D) It may cause tachypnea, dyspnea and chest pain

Answer 175

C) Smokers are not susceptible to this type of obstruction

Question 176

Which one of the following statements regarding primary pneumothorax is TRUE? A) A condition associated with smoking and small airway disorders B) A complication of emphysema and pulmonary tumours C) Most often due to rib fractures and dislocations D) Commonly associated with pulmonary tuberculosis

Answer 176

A) A condition associated with smoking and small airway disorders

Question 177

Which statement about lung cancer is FALSE? A) Most lung cancer cases are attributed to cigarette smoking B) It is a leading cause of death in industrialized countries C) It affects more males than females D) Eating fruits and vegetables speeds the metastasis of lung cancer

Answer 177

D) Eating fruits and vegetables speeds the metastasis of lung cancer

Question 178

``` What is disorder of lung inflation? A) Tuberculosis B) Pleuritis C) Silicosis D) Atelectasis ```

Answer 178

D) Atelectasis

Question 179

``` Which waste product is removed primarily by the urinary system? A) Lactic acid B) Stercobilin C) Carbon dioxide D) Nitrogenous ```

Answer 179

D) Nitrogenous

Question 180

``` The kidneys are located just lateral to the spinal column at which spinal segement? A) T12-L3 B) T1-T6 C) L3-S2 D) Sacrum ```

Answer 180

A) T12-L3

Question 181

``` Which structural renal elements are structures extending from Bowman’s capsule and carrying filtrate to the collecting ducts? A) Interstitium B) Tubules C) Renal hilus D) Medullary pyramids ```

Answer 181

B) Tubules

Question 182

``` Which function of the kidney affects homeostasis directly? A) Initiating Gluconeogenesis B) Regulation of water volume C) Stimulation of RBC production D) Activation of vitamin D ```

Answer 182

B) Regulation of water volume

Question 183

``` Which one of the following volumes represents the approximate amount of blood flowing through the kidney in a minute? A) 1-1.5L B) 2-2.5L C) 4-4.5L D) 6-6.5L ```

Answer 183

C) 4-4.5L

Question 184

``` Which process does NOT occur in the collecting ducts of the nephron? A) Reabsorption of water B) Transport of ions C) Secretion of excess ions D) Reabsorption of glucose ```

Answer 184

D) Reabsorption of glucose

Question 185

Which statement about glomeruler filtration is FALSE? A) A passive process driven by relatively high hydrostatic pressure B) A process facilitated by high glomeruler blood pressure C) Changes in the glomeruler membrane have little effect on filtration D) Blood osmotic pressure slows the rate of filtration

Answer 185

C) Changes in the glomeruler membrane have little effect on filtration

Question 186

Which statement about the regulation of blood pressure is TRUE? A) Renal autoregulation maintains GFR in spite of changing systemic BP B) Parasympathetic stimulation regulates blood pressure during emergencies C) A decrease in systemic BP leads to vasoconstriction of afferent arterioles D) The renal artery responds to changes in systemic blood pressure

Answer 186

A) Renal autoregulation maintains GFR in spite of changing systemic BP

Question 187

``` Which one of the following substances is NOT normally found in urine? A) Sodium ions B) Chloride ions C) Urea D) Albumin ```

Answer 187

D) Albumin

Question 188

Which mechanism does NOT have a role in regulating renal blood flow? A) Intrinsic renal autoregulation B) Renin-angiotensin mechanism C) Sympathetic nervous system controls D) Parasympathetic nervous system controls

Answer 188

D) Parasympathetic nervous system controls

Question 189

Which statement about glomeruler filtration is TRUE? A) For filtration to occur, the capsular hydrostatic pressure has to be higher then the glomeruler HP B) Relatively High membrane permeability and relatively high glomeruler blood pressure drive filtration C) The lower the net filtration pressure, the more fluid passes through the glomeruler membrane D) Blood osmotic pressure ‘pushes’ water from the glomerulus into Bowman’s capsule

Answer 189

B) Relatively High Membrane permeability and relatively high glomeruler blood pressure drive filtration

Question 190

Which statement about the net filtration pressure is FALSE? A) It is the difference between pressures moving fluid out of and into the glomerulus B) It needs to be a negative value for the kidneys to work properly C) NFP= Glomeruler HP - (glomeruler OP + capsular HP) D) The higher the value of NFP, the higher the filtration rate

Answer 190

B) It needs to be a negative value for the kidneys to work properly

Question 191

``` Which state is NOT a cause of severe dehydration A) Extensive blood loss B) Water intoxication C) Abuse of diuretics D) Prolonged diarrhea ```

Answer 191

B) Water intoxication

Question 192

``` Systemic manifestations of uremia include which of the following? A) Loss of appetite, weakness, gastritis B) Weakness, anemia, hypertension C) Weakness, fatigue, anemia D) Weight loss, hypertension, depression ```

Answer 192

C) Weakness, fatigue, anemia

Question 193

``` Infection of the urinary tract due to E. coli is known as which one of the following? A) Pyelonephritis B) Glomerulonephritis C) Arteriosclerosis D) Renal calculi ```

Answer 193

A) Pyelonephritis

Question 194

In which set is a disorder incorrectly matched with its etiology? A) Glomerulonephritis - injury to the glomeruler filter B) Hypertension - vascular disease C) Pyelonephritis - damage to the interstitium D) Arteriosclerosis - urinary bladder dysfunction

Answer 194

D) Arteriosclerosis - urinary bladder dysfunction

Question 195

``` Renal failure is least likely to affect which one of the following homeostatic functions? A) Maintenance of plasma volume B) Plasma electrolyte concentrations C) Control of systemic blood pressure D) Excretion of carbon dioxide ```

Answer 195

D) Excretion of carbon dioxide

Question 196

Which statement about kidney pathologies is TRUE? A) Nephroblastoma is a benign renal tumour seen most often in young children B) Diabetic nephropathy involves a thinning out of the glomeruler membrane C) The origin of many cases of glomerulernephritis is bacterial infection D) Urinary tract and kidney infections predispose to gall bladder stones

Answer 196

C) The origin of many cases of glomerulernephritis is bacterial infection

Question 197

``` Which one of the following is NOT a systemic manifestation of uremia? A) Weakness B) Fatigue C) Anemia D) Oliguria ```

Answer 197

D) Oliguria

Question 198

``` Which clinical manifestation is characteristic of the nephritic syndrome? A) Hyperlipidemia B) Hypertension C) Anascara D) Arteriosclerosis ```

Answer 198

B) Hypertension

Question 199

``` Which clinical manifestation if NOT characteristic of Nephrotic syndrome? A) Hyperlipidemia B) Hypertension C) Anasarca D) Proteinuria ```

Answer 199

B) Hypertension

Question 200

``` Which cause of hypertension is NOT associated with renal dysfunction? A) Endocrine Dysfunction B) Nephrosclerosis C) Arteriosclerosis D) Idiopathic ```

Answer 200

D) Idiopathic

Question 201

``` What is a neoplasm affecting the kidney? A) Adenocarcinoma B) Nephroblastoma C) Small cell carcinoma D) Malignant melanoma ```

Answer 201

B) Nephroblastoma

Question 202

``` The incidence of which condition is NOT typically decreased by regular exercise? A) Colon cancer B) Diverticulosis C) Heartburn D) Inflammatory bowel disease ```

Answer 202

C) Heartburn

Question 203

``` What does NOT characterize fast glycolytic muscle fibres? A) Poor blood supply B) Large Glycogen reserve C) Few mitochondria D) High endurance ```

Answer 203

D) High endurance

Question 204

Which one of the statements regarding calcium metabolism is FALSE? A) Changes in calcium plasma levels impact on bone mass throughout life B) The human body contains approximately 1.5 kg of the elemental calcium C) Much of the ionic calcium in the body is found in the cytoplasm D) Parathyroid hormone is a regulator of serum calcium levels

Answer 204

D) Parathyroid hormone is a regulator of serum calcium levels

Question 205

``` Which one of the following systems is least likely to reflect a nonspecific response to stress? A) Musculoskeletal B) Autonomic NS C) Lymphatic D) Endocrine ```

Answer 205

C) Lymphatic

Question 206

``` Which one of the following diseases will respond well to hormone replacement therapy? A) Hashimotos B) Acromegaly C) Addisons D) Graves ```

Answer 206

C) Addisons

Question 207

``` Which one of the following manifestations is NOT usually seen with large goiters? A) Choking sensation B) Distention of veins C) Inspiratory strider D) Excessive swelling ```

Answer 207

D) Excessive swelling

Question 208

``` Which one of the following manifestations indicates low extracellular Ca2+? A) Hyperpolarized neuron membranes B) Flaccidity of skeletal muscles C) Spasticity of skeletal muscles D) Increased bone deposition ```

Answer 208

C) Spasticity of skeletal muscles

Question 209

``` Hypersecretion of aldosterone resulting in generalized muscle weakness and hypertension is typical of which one of the following disorders? A) Conn’s syndrome B) Addison’s disease C) Hashimotos disease D) Cushing’s syndrome ```

Answer 209

A) Conns syndrome

Question 210

Which one of the following statements regarding stress and adaptation is TRUE? A) The nonspecific stress response alerts a person to the presence of a stressor B) Conditioning of the person exposed to stress plays a role in their response C) The only factor that determines the stress response is the type of stressor D) The specific stress response enables the body to maintain homeostasis

Answer 210

B) Conditioning of the person exposed to stress plays a role in their response

Question 211

``` Which one of the following is an unlikely response to excess stress? A) Increased photosensitivity B) Exacerbation of psoriasis C) Gingivitis or gum disease D) Eruption of herpes simplex ```

Answer 211

A) Increased photosensitivity

Question 212

``` Which one of the following factors does NOT affect secretion go hormones? A) Changes in 2nd messenger systems B) Stress and environmental changes C) Levels of circulating hormones D) Histological changes in glands ```

Answer 212

A) Changes in 2nd messenger systems

Question 213

``` Circulation levels of calcium ions _____ as phosphate ion levels ______ A) Increase - Increase B) Decrease - Increase C) Decrease - Decrease D) Do not change - Increase ```

Answer 213

B) Decrease - Increase

Question 214

Which one for the following is characteristic of endocrine function? A) Respond quickly to changes in the environment B) Affects body systems through hormone action C) Forms a wide spread structural network D) Stimulation is local and short lived

Answer 214

B) Affects body systems through hormone action

Question 215

``` Which one of the following hormones is NOT secreted by the pituitary gland? A) Anti-diuretic hormone B) Adrenocorticotropic C) Growth hormone D) Glucocorticoids ```

Answer 215

D) Glucocorticoids

Question 216

By definition, tropic hormones A) Activate other endocrine glands B) Are secreted by the posterior pituitary gland C) Are secreted by secondary endocrine organs D) Stimulate physiological functions of target organs

Answer 216

A) Activate other endocrine glands

Question 217

Which one of the following statements regarding hormones is TRUE? A) All hormones are classified chemically as steroids B) Hormones are secreted directly into the blood stream C) All hormones are tropic and stimulate endocrine glands D) Deficits in specific hormones do not result in dysfunction

Answer 217

B) Hormones are secreted directly into the blood stream

Question 218

``` A person has depressed thyroid stimulation hormone levels. Which one of the following signs/symptoms are they likely to experience A) Increased metabolic rate B) Increased swelling C) Heat intolerance D) Cold intolerance ```

Answer 218

D) Cold intolerance

Question 219

``` In negative feedback systems _____ hormone levels result in _______ hormone synthesis and release A) Increased/Decreased B) Increased/Increased C) Decreased/Decreased D) Decreased/Unchanged ```

Answer 219

A) Increased/Decreased

Question 220

Which one of the following statements regarding the hypothalmus is FALSE? A) There is no structural link between the hypothalamus and pituitary gland B) The neural function of the gland is integration of autonomic functions C) The endocrine function is the regulation of pituitary secretion D) The hypothalamus is an integral part of the diencephalon

Answer 220

A) There is no structural link between the hypothalamus and pituitary gland

Question 221

``` Which of the following is a possible cause of endocrine hyperfunction? A) Congenital glandular defects B) Defective receptors C) Impaired cellular response D) Glandular hyperplasia ```

Answer 221

D) Glandular hyperplasia

Question 222

``` Which one of the following is not a sign of diabetes insipidus? A) Inability to concentrate urine B) Hypotonic hydration C) Polydipsia D) Polyuria ```

Answer 222

B) Hypotonic hydration

Question 223

``` Growth hormone does not affect which one of the following metabolic changes? A) Enchanced beta oxidation B) Mobilization of fatty acids C) Increased protein synthesis D) Decreased blood glucose levels ```

Answer 223

D) Decreased blood glucose levels

Question 224

Which one of the following statements regarding Cushing’s disease is FALSE? A) Affects mostly young women between the ages of 20-40 B) Hypercortisolism is a typical manifestation of the disease C) Accounts for the majority (80%) of clinical case of Hypercortisolism D) Characterized by adrenal atrophy and decreased glucocortisol secretion

Answer 224

D) Characterized by adrenal atrophy and decreased glucocortisol secretion

Question 225

``` Which one of the following is a typical symptom of both Hashimotos and Graves’ disease? A) Fatigue B) Loss of appetite C) Heat intolerance D) High energy levels ```

Answer 225

A) Fatigue

Question 226

``` Which one of the following signs/symptoms is due to hypoaldosteronism? A) High blood levels of Na B) Low blood levels of K C) Excessive sweating D) Dehydration ```

Answer 226

D) Dehydration

Question 227

General properties of Hormones

Answer 227

- Small molecules - Influence specific target cells - Produced and secreted by epithelial cells

Question 228

Attributes of Hormones

Answer 228

- Secreted into blood - Activate cells at a removed site - Regulate body functions - Highly specific - Very small concentrations

Question 229

Tropic vs. Somatic Hormones

Answer 229

- Tropic: Hormones trigger release of somatic hormones from other endocrine glands - Somatic: Hormones act on specific target organs

Question 230

Hormones - 2nd messenger systems

Answer 230

- Activation of enzymes

Question 231

3 factors affect hormone binding

Answer 231

- Blood levels of hormone - Number of receptors on/in cell - Affinity of receptor for hormone

Question 232

Down-regulation | Hormones

Answer 232

- Decrease number of receptors on cell surface | - Reduces sensitivity to hormone

Question 233

Up-regulation | Hormones

Answer 233

- Increase production of receptors | - Target cell becomes more sensitive

Question 234

Gigantism vs. Acromegaly

Answer 234

Gigantism: Increased secretion of GH before puberty- increases bone elongation Acromegaly: Increased GH secretion in adulthood

Question 235

Hypothyroidism disease

Answer 235

- Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

Question 236

Hyperthyroidism disease

Answer 236

Graves’ disease

Question 237

1st order neurons

Answer 237

conduct impulses from receptors of the skin and from proprioceptors (receptors located in a join, muscle or tendon) to the spinal cord or brain stem, where they synapse with second-order neurons. First-order neuron's cell bodes reside in ganglion (dorsal root or cranial).

Question 238

2nd order neurons

Answer 238

2nd neuron to carry an order. The order could be a sensory stimulus or a motor stimulus. axon of the 1st order neuron will synapse with the 2nd order neuron at the level of the brain stem, which commonly decussate (crosses over) to the opposite side.

Question 239

2nd messenger

Answer 239

Second messengers are intracellular signaling molecules released by the cell in response to exposure to extracellular signaling molecules—the first messengers. Second messengers trigger physiological changes such as proliferation, differentiation, migration, survival, and apoptosis

Question 240

3rd order neurons

Answer 240

carry signals from the thalamus to the primary sensory cortex.

Question 241

Acetylcholine

Answer 241

is the neurotransmitter used at the neuromuscular junction—in other words, it is the chemical that motor neurons of the nervous system release in order to activate muscles. This property means that drugs that affect cholinergic systems can have very dangerous effects ranging from paralysis to convulsions.

Question 242

Action potential

Answer 242

the change in electrical potential associated with the passage of an impulse along the membrane of a muscle cell or nerve cell

Question 243

Allodynia

Answer 243

Allodynia is a clinical feature of many painful conditions, such as neuropathies, complex regional pain syndrome, postherpetic neuralgia, fibromyalgia, and migraine. Allodynia may also be caused by some populations of stem cells used to treat nerve damage including spinal cord injury.

Question 244

Alpha (a) motor neuron

Answer 244

Alpha motor neuron. ... Alpha (α) motor neurons (also called alpha motoneurons), are large, multipolar lower motor neurons of the brainstem and spinal cord. They innervate extrafusal muscle fibers of skeletal muscle and are directly responsible for initiating their contraction.

Question 245

Amitotic

Answer 245

relating to or denoting the division of a cell nucleus into two parts by constriction without the involvement of a mitotic apparatus.

Question 246

Amygdala

Answer 246

The amygdala (Latin, corpus amygdaloideum) is an almond-shape set of neurons located deep in the brain's medial temporal lobe. Shown to play a key role in the processsing of emotions, the amygdala forms part of the limbic system.

Question 247

Anterior spinothalamic tract

Answer 247

The anterior spinothalamic tract, also known as the ventral spinothalamic fasciculus, is an ascending pathway located anteriorly within the spinal cord, primarily responsible for transmitting coarse touch and pressure.

Question 248

Arteriosclerosis

Answer 248

the thickening and hardening of the walls of the arteries, occurring typically in old age.

Question 249

Association neuron

Answer 249

These association neurons are found throughout the central nervous system. They are much more numerous than motor neurons; the ratio between the two types of cells is 30:1. The main function of the association neurons in the spinal cord is that of inhibitory control. They also interconnect other cells with one another.

Question 250

Autoregulation

Answer 250

Autoregulation is a manifestation of local blood flow regulation. It is defined as the intrinsic ability of an organ to maintain a constant blood flow despite changes in perfusion pressure.

Question 251

Axon Hillock

Answer 251

The axon hillock is a specialized part of the cell body (or soma) of a neuron that connects to the axon. It can be identified using light microscopy from its appearance and location in a neuron and from its sparse distribution of Nissl substance.

Question 252

Basal Nuclei

Answer 252

The basal ganglia (or basal nuclei) are a group of subcortical nuclei, of varied origin, in the brains of vertebrates, including humans, which are situated at the base of the forebrain and top of the midbrain. There are some differences in the basal ganglia of primates.

Question 253

Blood brain barrier

Answer 253

a filtering mechanism of the capillaries that carry blood to the brain and spinal cord tissue, blocking the passage of certain substances.

Question 254

Cerebellum

Answer 254

The cerebellum receives information from the sensory systems, the spinal cord, and other parts of the brain and then regulates motor movements. The cerebellum coordinates voluntary movements such as posture, balance, coordination, and speech, resulting in smooth and balanced muscular activity

Question 255

Choroid plexus

Answer 255

The choroid plexus is a plexus of cells that produces the cerebrospinal fluid in the ventricles of the brain. The choroid plexus consists of modified ependymal cells.

Question 256

Decussation

Answer 256

the action of crossing (as of nerve fibers) especially in the form of an X. 2 : a crossed tract of nerve fibers passing between centers on opposite sides of the nervous system.

Question 257

Ectoderm

Answer 257

Ectoderm is one of the three primary germ layers in the very early embryo. The other two layers are the mesoderm (middle layer) and endoderm (most proximal layer), with the ectoderm as the most exterior (or distal) layer. It emerges and originates from the outer layer of germ cells.

Question 258

Ependymal

Answer 258

Ependymal cells. The ependyma is made up of ependymal cells called ependymocytes, a type of glial cell. These cells line the CSF-filled ventricles in the brain and the central canal of the spinal cord. These are nervous tissue cells with a ciliated simple columnar shape much like that of some mucosal epithelial cells.

Question 259

Exocytosis

Answer 259

Exocytosis is a form of active transport and bulk transport in which a cell transports molecules out of the cell by secreting them through an energy-dependent process

Question 260

Extra-pyramidal tract

Answer 260

the extrapyramidal system is a part of the motor system network causing involuntary actions. The system is called extrapyramidal to distinguish it from the tracts of the motor cortex that reach their targets by traveling through the pyramids of the medulla.

Question 261

Gamma (y) motor neurons

Answer 261

Gamma motor neurons are the efferent (sending signals away from the central nervous system) part of the fusimotor system, whereas muscle spindles are the afferent part, as they send signals relaying information from muscles toward the spinal cord and brain.

Question 262

Graded potential

Answer 262

Graded potentials are changes in membrane potential that vary in size, as opposed to being all-or-none.

Question 263

Glial cells

Answer 263

The glial cells surround neurons and provide support for and insulation between them. Glial cells are the most abundant cell types in the central nervous system. Types of glial cells include oligodendrocytes, astrocytes, ependymal cells, Schwann cells, microglia, and satellite cells.

Question 264

Hinting response

Answer 264

The hunting reaction or hunting response is a process of alternating vasoconstriction and vasodilation in extremities exposed to cold

Question 265

Hyperpolarization

Answer 265

Hyperpolarization is a change in a cell's membrane potential that makes it more negative. It is the opposite of a depolarization. It inhibits action potentials by increasing the stimulus required to move the membrane potential to the action potential threshold.

Question 266

Hypertension

Answer 266

also known as high blood pressure (HBP), is a long-term medical condition in which the blood pressure in the arteries is persistently elevated. High blood pressure typically does not cause symptoms.

Question 267

Hypothalamus

Answer 267

The hypothalamus is a small region of the brain. It's located at the base of the brain, near the pituitary gland. While it's very small, the hypothalamus plays a crucial role in many important functions, including: releasing hormones. regulating body temperature

Question 268

Interferons

Answer 268

Interferons (IFNs) are a group of signaling proteins made and released by host cells in response to the presence of several viruses. In a typical scenario, a virus-infected cell will release interferons causing nearby cells to heighten their anti-viral defenses.

Question 269

Interneuron

Answer 269

a neuron which transmits impulses between other neurons, especially as part of a reflex arc.

Question 270

Intrafusal muscle fibre

Answer 270

Intrafusal muscle fibers are skeletal muscle fibers that serve as specialized sensory organs (proprioceptors) that detect the amount and rate of change in length of a muscle. They constitute the muscle spindle and are innervated by two axons, one sensory and one motor.

Question 271

Ischemic Hypoxia

Answer 271

Ischemic hypoxia ( or "stagnant hypoxia") – Reduced brain oxygen is caused by inadequate blood flow to the brain.

Question 272

K+ channels

Answer 272

Potassium channels are the most widely distributed type of ion channel and are found in virtually all living organisms. They form potassium-selective pores that span cell membranes. Potassium channels are found in most cell types and control a wide variety of cell functions

Question 273

Lemniscal system

Answer 273

The dorsal column–medial lemniscus pathway (DCML) (also known as the posterior column-medial lemniscus pathway (PCML)) is a sensory pathway of the central nervous system that conveys sensations of fine touch, vibration, two-point discrimination, and proprioception (position) from the skin and joints.

Question 274

Limbic system

Answer 274

The structures and interacting areas of the limbic system are involved in motivation, emotion, learning, and memory. The limbic system is where the subcortical structures meet the cerebral cortex. The limbic system operates by influencing the endocrine system and the autonomic nervous system.

Question 275

Lipolysis

Answer 275

metabolic pathway through which lipid triglycerides are hydrolyzed into a glycerol and three fatty acids. It is used to mobilize stored energy during fasting or exercise, and usually occurs in fat adipocytes.

Question 276

Mononeuropathy

Answer 276

Mononeuropathy is a type of damage to a nerve outside the brain and spinal cord (peripheral neuropathy). Mononeuropathy is most often caused by injury. Diseases affecting the entire body (systemic disorders) can also cause isolated nerve damage.

Question 277

Na+ channel

Answer 277

Sodium channels are integral membrane proteins that form ion channels, conducting sodium ions through a cell's plasma membrane

Question 278

Neospinalthalamic tract

Answer 278

The spinothalamic tract (also known as anterolateral system or the ventrolateral system) is a sensory pathway from the skin to the thalamus. From the ventral posterolateral nucleus in the thalamus, sensory information is relayed upward to the somatosensory cortex of the postcentral gyrus.

Question 279

Nerve root

Answer 279

A nerve root (Latin: radix nervi) is the initial segment of a nerve leaving the central nervous system. Types include: A cranial nerve root is the initial or proximal segment of one of the twelve pairs of cranial nerves leaving the central nervous system from the brain stem or the highest levels of the spinal cord.

Question 280

Neuromodulation

Answer 280

Neuromodulation is "the alteration of nerve activity through targeted delivery of a stimulus, such as electrical stimulation or chemical agents, to specific neurological sites in the body". It is carried out to normalize – or modulate – nervous tissue function

Question 281

Neuroma

Answer 281

A neuroma is a painful condition, also referred to as a “pinched nerve” or a nerve tumor. It is a benign growth of nerve tissue frequently found between the third and fourth toes. It brings on pain, a burning sensation, tingling, or numbness between the toes and in the ball of the foot.

Question 282

Neuromuscular Junction

Answer 282

A neuromuscular junction (or myoneural junction) is a chemical synapse formed by the contact between a motor neuron and a muscle fiber. It is at the neuromuscular junction that a motor neuron is able to transmit a signal to the muscle fiber, causing muscle contraction.

Question 283

Neuron

Answer 283

A neuron (also called neurone or nerve cell) is a cell that carries electrical impulses. Neurons are the basic units of the nervous system. Every neuron is made of a cell body (also called soma), dendrites and an axon. Dendrites and axons are nerve fibers.

Question 284

Neuronal cell body

Answer 284

The Cell Body. The cell body, also called the soma, is the spherical part of the neuron that contains the nucleus. The cell body connects to the dendrites, which bring information to the neuron, and the axon, which sends information to other neurons.

Question 285

Neuronal Pool

Answer 285

Such a circuit allows one motor neuron of the brain, for example, to ultimately stimulate thousands of muscle fibers. A converging circuit is the opposite of a diverging circuit—input from many different nerve fibers is funneled to one neuron or neuronal pool

Question 286

Neurotransmission

Answer 286

the transmission of nerve impulses between neurons or between a neuron and a muscle fiber or other structure.

Question 287

Nociception

Answer 287

Nociception is the sensory nervous system's response to certain harmful or potentially harmful stimuli. In nociception, intense chemical, mechanical, or thermal stimulation of sensory nerve cells called nociceptors produces a signal that travels along a chain of nerve fibers via the spinal cord to the brain

Question 288

Nuclei

Answer 288

Nucleus (pl: nuclei) is a Latin word for the seed inside a fruit. It most often refers to: Atomic nucleus, the very dense central region of an atom. Cell nucleus, a central organelle of a eukaryotic cell, containing most of the cell's DNA

Question 289

Oligodendrocytes

Answer 289

a glial cell similar to an astrocyte but with fewer protuberances, concerned with the production of myelin in the central nervous system.

Question 290

Osteopenia

Answer 290

Osteopenia is a condition in which bone mineral density is lower than normal. It is considered by many doctors to be a precursor to osteoporosis. However, not every person diagnosed with osteopenia will develop osteoporosis.

Question 291

Osteophytes

Answer 291

An osteophyte is a smooth bony growth or deposit, also referred to as a bone spur. They grow slowly over time and often have no symptoms. They can cause pain if they impinge on other structures or grow so large as to restrict movement in a joint.

Question 292

Pacinian corpuscles

Answer 292

Lamellar corpuscles (or Pacinian corpuscles; discovered by Italian anatomist Filippo Pacini) are one of the four major types of mechanoreceptor cell in glabrous (hairless) mammalian skin. They are nerve endings in the skin responsible for sensitivity to vibration and pressure.

Question 293

Paresthesia

Answer 293

Paresthesia (or paraesthesia) is an abnormal dermal sensation (e.g., a tingling, pricking, chilling, burning, or numb sensation on the skin) with no apparent physical cause. The manifestation of a paresthesia may be transient or chronic, and may have any of dozens of possible underlying causes.

Question 294

Parasympathetic

Answer 294

relating to the part of the automatic nervous system that counterbalances the action of the sympathetic nerves. It consists of nerves arising from the brain and the lower end of the spinal cord and supplying the internal organs, blood vessels, and glands.

Question 295

Parietal Lobe

Answer 295

The parietal lobe is at the back of the brain and is divided into two hemispheres. It functions in processing sensory information regarding the location of parts of the body as well as interpreting visual information and processing language and mathematics

Question 296

Perception

Answer 296

the ability to see, hear, or become aware of something through the senses.

Question 297

Perfusion

Answer 297

Perfusion is the passage of fluid through the circulatory system or lymphatic system to an organ or a tissue, usually referring to the delivery of blood to a capillary bed in tissue. Perfusion is measured as the rate at which blood is delivered to tissue, or volume of blood per unit time per unit tissue mass

Question 298

Permeability

Answer 298

the state or quality of a material or membrane that causes it to allow liquids or gases to pass through it.

Question 299

Plasma membrane

Answer 299

The primary function of the plasma membrane is to protect the cell from its surroundings. Composed of a phospholipid bilayer with embedded proteins, the plasma membrane is selectively permeable to ions and organic molecules and regulates the movement of substances in and out of cells.

Question 300

Polyneuritis

Answer 300

any disorder that affects the peripheral nerves collectively.

Question 301

Postsynaptic potential

Answer 301

They are caused by the presynaptic neuron releasing neurotransmitters from the terminal bouton at the end of an axon into the synaptic cleft. The neurotransmitters bind to receptors on the postsynaptic terminal, which may be a neuron or a muscle cell in the case of a neuromuscular junction.

Question 302

Prefrontal cortex

Answer 302

The prefrontal cortex (PFC) is the cerebral cortex covering the front part of the frontal lobe. This brain region has been implicated in planning complex cognitive behavior, personality expression, decision making, and moderating social behaviour.

Question 303

Premotor cortex

Answer 303

The premotor cortex is an area of motor cortex lying within the frontal lobe of the brain just anterior to the primary motor cortex. It occupies part of Brodmann's area 6. It has been studied mainly in primates, including monkeys and humans. The functions of the premotor cortex are diverse and not fully understood.

Question 304

Primary somatosensory cortex

Answer 304

The somatosensory cortex receives all sensory input from the body. Cells that are part of the brain or nerves that extend into the body are called neurons. Neurons that sense feelings in our skin, pain, visual, or auditory stimuli, all send their information to the somatosensory cortex for processing

Question 305

Pyramidal cells

Answer 305

Pyramidal cells, or pyramidal neurons, are a type of multipolar neuron found in areas of the brain including the cerebral cortex, the hippocampus, and the amygdala. Pyramidal neurons are the primary excitation units of the mammalian prefrontal cortex and the corticospinal tract.

Question 306

Pyramidal tracts

Answer 306

The term pyramidal tracts refers to upper motor neurons that originate in the cerebral cortex and terminate in the spinal cord (corticospinal) or brainstem (corticobulbar).

Question 307

Resting membrane potential

Answer 307

The resting membrane potential (RMP) is due to changes in membrane permeability for potassium, sodium, calcium, and chloride, which results from the movement of these ions across it. Once the membrane is polarized, it acquires a voltage, which is the difference of potentials between intra and extracellular spaces.

Question 308

Ruffini corpuscles

Answer 308

The Bulbous corpuscle or Ruffini ending or Ruffini corpuscle is a slowly adapting mechanoreceptor located in the cutaneous tissue between the dermal papillae and the hypodermis.

Question 309

Saltatory conduction

Answer 309

Saltatory conduction (from the Latin saltare, to hop or leap) is the propagation of action potentials along myelinated axons from one node of Ranvier to the next node, increasing the conduction velocity of action potentials.

Question 310

Sarcoplasmic reticulum

Answer 310

The sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR) is a membrane-bound structure found within muscle cells that is similar to the endoplasmic reticulum in other cells. The main function of the SR is to store calcium ions (Ca2+).

Question 311

Satellite cell

Answer 311

Satellite cells are precursors to skeletal muscle cells, able to give rise to satellite cells or differentiated skeletal muscle cells. They have the potential to provide additional myonuclei to their parent muscle fiber, or return to a quiescent state.

Question 312

Schwann cell

Answer 312

Schwann cell, also called neurilemma cell, any of the cells in the peripheral nervous system that produce the myelin sheath around neuronal axons.

Question 313

Sensorimotor

Answer 313

of nerves or their actions) having or involving both sensory and motor functions or pathways.

Question 314

Serotonin

Answer 314

Serotonin or 5-hydroxytryptamine is a monoamine neurotransmitter. It has a popular image as a contributor to feelings of well-being and happiness, though its actual biological function is complex and multifaceted, modulating cognition, reward, learning, memory, and numerous physiological processes

Question 315

Somatosensory association area

Answer 315

Association cortex is the cerebral cortex outside the primary areas. It is essential for mental functions that are more complex than detecting basic dimensions of sensory stimulation, for which primary sensory areas appear to be necessary.

Question 316

Subarachnoid space

Answer 316

The subarachnoid space is the interval between the arachnoid membrane and the pia mater. It is occupied by delicate connective tissue trabeculae and intercommunicating channels containing cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). The cavity is small in the normal brain

Question 317

Substance P

Answer 317

Substance P is an undecapeptide member of the tachykinin neuropeptide family. It is a neuropeptide, acting as a neurotransmitter and as a neuromodulator. Substance P and its closely related neurokinin A are produced from a polyprotein precursor after differential splicing of the preprotachykinin A gene

Question 318

Synapse

Answer 318

In the nervous system, a synapse is a structure that permits a neuron (or nerve cell) to pass an electrical or chemical signal to another neuron or to the target effector cell.

Question 319

Synaptic cleft

Answer 319

At a chemical synapse, one neuron releases neurotransmitter molecules into a small space (the synaptic cleft) that is adjacent to another neuron. The neurotransmitters are contained within small sacs called synaptic vesicles, and are released into the synaptic cleft by exocytosis.

Question 320

Synaptic delay

Answer 320

Synaptic delay is defined as the time interval between peak of inward current through the presynaptic membrane and commencement of inward current through the postsynaptic membrane.

Question 321

Temporal lobe

Answer 321

The temporal lobe is involved in primary auditory perception, such as hearing, and holds the primary auditory cortex.

Question 322

Thalamus

Answer 322

The thalamus is a small structure within the brain located just above the brain stem between the cerebral cortex and the midbrain and has extensive nerve connections to both. The main function of the thalamus is to relay motor and sensory signals to the cerebral cortex.

Question 323

Transduction

Answer 323

the action or process of converting something and especially energy or a message into another form. 2 : the transfer of genetic material from one organism (as a bacterium) to another by a genetic vector and especially a bacteriophage

Question 324

Vasomotor

Answer 324

denoting a region in the medulla of the brain (the vasomotor center ) that regulates blood pressure by controlling reflex alterations in the heart rate and the diameter of the blood vessels, in response to stimuli from receptors in the circulatory system or from other parts of the brain.

Question 325

Wernicke’s area

Answer 325

Wernicke's area is the region of the brain that is important for language development. It is located in the temporal lobe on the left side of the brain and is responsible for the comprehension of speech, while Broca's area is related to the production of speech.

Question 326

Amino acids

Answer 326

Amino acids are organic compounds containing amine and carboxyl functional groups, along with a side chain specific to each amino acid. The key elements of an amino acid are carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen, although other elements are found in the side chains of certain amino acids

Question 327

Amylase

Answer 327

Amylase is an enzyme that catalyses the hydrolysis of starch into sugars. Amylase is present in the saliva of humans and some other mammals, where it begins the chemical process of digestion

Question 328

Anemia

Answer 328

Anemia is a condition that develops when your blood lacks enough healthy red blood cells or hemoglobin. Hemoglobin is a main part of red blood cells and binds oxygen. If you have too few or abnormal red blood cells, or your hemoglobin is abnormal or low, the cells in your body will not get enough oxygen

Question 329

Beta cells

Answer 329

The primary function of a beta cell is to produce and release insulin and amylin. Both are hormones which reduce blood glucose levels by different mechanisms. Beta cells can respond quickly to spikes in blood glucose concentrations by secreting some of their stored insulin and amylin while simultaneously producing more

Question 330

Cellular respiration

Answer 330

Cellular respiration is a set of metabolic reactions and processes that take place in the cells of organisms to convert biochemical energy from nutrients into adenosine triphosphate (ATP), and then release waste products.

Question 331

Cholecystokinin

Answer 331

a hormone which is secreted by cells in the duodenum and stimulates the release of bile into the intestine and the secretion of enzymes by the pancreas.

Question 332

Cholelithiasis

Answer 332

the formation of gallstones.

Question 333

Cholesterol

Answer 333

Cholesterol is an organic molecule. It is a sterol, a type of lipid. Cholesterol is biosynthesized by all animal cells and is an essential structural component of animal cell membranes.

Question 334

Diabetes Mellitus

Answer 334

Diabetes mellitus (DM), commonly known as diabetes, is a group of metabolic disorders characterized by high blood sugar levels over a prolonged period. Symptoms of high blood sugar include frequent urination, increased thirst, and increased hunger. If left untreated, diabetes can cause many complications.

Question 335

Endocrine gland

Answer 335

Endocrine glands are glands of the endocrine system that secrete their products, hormones, directly into the blood rather than through a duct. The major glands of the endocrine system include the pineal gland, pituitary gland, pancreas, ovaries, testes, thyroid gland, parathyroid gland, hypothalamus and adrenal glands. The hypothalamus and pituitary gland are neuroendocrine organs.

Question 336

Epinepherine

Answer 336

Epinephrine, also called adrenaline, hormone that is secreted mainly by the medulla of the adrenal glands and that functions primarily to increase cardiac output and to raise glucose levels in the blood.

Question 337

Exocrine gland

Answer 337

Exocrine glands are glands that produce and secrete substances onto an epithelial surface by way of a duct. Examples of exocrine glands include sweat, salivary, mammary, ceruminous, lacrimal, sebaceous, and mucous.

Question 338

Ferritin

Answer 338

a protein produced in mammalian metabolism which serves to store iron in the tissues.

Question 339

Gallbladder

Answer 339

The gallbladder is a small pouch that sits just under the liver. The gallbladder stores bile produced by the liver. After meals, the gallbladder is empty and flat, like a deflated balloon. Before a meal, the gallbladder may be full of bile and about the size of a small pear.

Question 340

Fibrinogen

Answer 340

Fibrinogen (factor I) is a glycoprotein that circulates in the blood of vertebrates. During tissue and vascular injury it is converted enzymatically by thrombin to fibrin and subsequently to a fibrin-based blood clot. Fibrinogen functions primarily to occlude blood vessels and thereby stop excessive bleeding.

Question 341

Gluconeogenesis

Answer 341

Gluconeogenesis is a metabolic pathway that results in the generation of glucose from certain non-carbohydrate carbon substrates.

Question 342

Glycogen

Answer 342

Glycogen is a multibranched polysaccharide of glucose that serves as a form of energy storage in animals, fungi, and bacteria. The polysaccharide structure represents the main storage form of glucose in the body.

Question 343

Goblet cells

Answer 343

a column-shaped cell found in the respiratory and intestinal tracts, which secretes the main component of mucus.

Question 344

Growth hormone

Answer 344

Growth hormone (GH) or somatotropin, also known as human growth hormone (hGH or HGH) in its human form, is a peptide hormone that stimulates growth, cell reproduction, and cell regeneration in humans and other animals. It is thus important in human development.

Question 345

Instrinsic factor

Answer 345

a substance secreted by the stomach which enables the body to absorb vitamin B12. It is a glycoprotein.

Question 346

Islets of Langerhan’s

Answer 346

The pancreatic islets or islets of Langerhans are the regions of the pancreas that contain its endocrine (hormone-producing) cells, discovered in 1869 by German pathological anatomist Paul Langerhans. The pancreatic islets constitute 1 to 2% of the pancreas volume and receive 10–15% of its blood flow.

Question 347

Ketoacidosis

Answer 347

Diabetic ketoacidosis is a serious complication of diabetes that occurs when your body produces high levels of blood acids called ketones. The condition develops when your body can't produce enough insulin

Question 348

Lipolysis

Answer 348

Lipolysis /lɪˈpɒlɪsɪs/ is the metabolic pathway through which lipid triglycerides are hydrolyzed into a glycerol and three fatty acids. It is used to mobilize stored energy during fasting or exercise, and usually occurs in fat adipocytes.

Question 349

Lysozyme

Answer 349

Lysozyme is capable of breaking the chemical bonds in the outer cell wall of the bacteria. Bacterial cell walls contain a layer of peptidoglycan, which is the specific site that lysozyme targets. The peptidoglycan layer contains alternating molecules called N-acetylglucosamine and N-acetylmuramic acid.

Question 350

Malabsorption

Answer 350

Malabsorption is a condition caused by the decreased ability to digest and/or absorb nutrients from food.

Question 351

Micelles

Answer 351

A micelle or micella is an aggregate of surfactant molecules dispersed in a liquid colloid. A typical micelle in aqueous solution forms an aggregate with the hydrophilic "head" regions in contact with surrounding solvent, sequestering the hydrophobic single-tail regions in the micelle centre.

Question 352

Microvilli

Answer 352

Cells may have slender extensions of the cell membrane to form cilia or the smaller extensions called microvilli. The microscopic microvilli effectively increase the surface area of the cell and are useful for absorption and secretion functions. A dramatic example is the human small intestine.

Question 353

Mucosa

Answer 353

A mucous membrane or mucosa is a membrane that lines various cavities in the body and covers the surface of internal organs. It consists of one or more layers of epithelial cells overlying a layer of loose connective tissue.

Question 354

Myenteric plexus

Answer 354

The myenteric plexus is the major nerve supply to the gastrointestinal tract and controls GI tract motility. According to preclinical studies, 30% of myenteric plexus' neurons are enteric sensory neurons, thus Auerbach's plexus has also a sensory component.

Question 355

Nephropathy

Answer 355

Nephropathy means kidney disease or damage. Diabetic nephropathy is damage to your kidneys caused by diabetes. In severe cases it can lead to kidney failure. But not everyone with diabetes has kidney damage.

Question 356

Parietal cells

Answer 356

Parietal cells (also known as oxyntic or delomorphous cells) are the epithelial cells that secrete hydrochloric acid (HCl) and intrinsic factor. These cells are located in the gastric glands found in the lining of the fundus and in the cardia of the stomach.

Question 357

Pepsin

Answer 357

Pepsin is an endopeptidase that breaks down proteins into smaller peptides (that is, a protease). It is produced in the stomach and is one of the main digestive enzymes in the digestive systems of humans and many other animals, where it helps digest the proteins in food.

Question 358

Secondary transport

Answer 358

Secondary active transport, is transport of molecules across the cell membrane utilizing energy in other forms than ATP. This energy comes from the electrochemical gradient created by pumping ions out of the cell. This Co-Transport can be either via antiport or symport

Question 359

Sublingual glands

Answer 359

The sublingual glands lie directly under the mucous membrane covering the floor of the mouth beneath the tongue. In human digestive system: The floor of the mouth. …a slight fold called a sublingual papilla, from which the ducts of the submandibular salivary glands open.

Question 360

Alveoli

Answer 360

Alveoli are tiny sacs within our lungs that allow oxygen and carbon dioxide to move between the lungs and bloodstream. Learn more about how they function and quiz your knowledge at the end

Question 361

Anemic Hypoxia

Answer 361

Hypoxic hypoxia can be caused by inadequate breathing as well as other causes. Anemic hypoxia: In the setting of anemia, low hemoglobin levels result in a reduced ability of the blood to carry oxygen that is breathed in, and hence, a diminished supply of oxygen available to the tissues

Question 362

Apneustic area

Answer 362

The apneustic center (or apneustic area) of the lower pons appears to promote inspiration by stimulation of the I neurons in the medulla oblongata providing a constant stimulus. ... However, it gives positive impulses to the inspiratory (I) neurons.

Question 363

Atelectasis

Answer 363

Atelectasis is the collapse or closure of a lung resulting in reduced or absent gas exchange. It may affect part or all of a lung. It is usually unilateral. It is a condition where the alveoli are deflated down to little or no volume, as distinct from pulmonary consolidation, in which they are filled with liquid.

Question 364

Bohr Effect

Answer 364

a decrease in the amount of oxygen associated with hemoglobin and other respiratory compounds in response to a lowered blood pH resulting from an increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the blood.

Question 365

Bronchi

Answer 365

A bronchus is a passage of airway in the respiratory system that conducts air into the lungs. The first bronchi to branch from the trachea are the right main bronchus and the left main bronchus.

Question 366

Bronchiectasis

Answer 366

Bronchiectasis is a disease in which there is permanent enlargement of parts of the airways of the lung. Symptoms typically include a chronic cough with mucus production. Other symptoms include shortness of breath, coughing up blood, and chest pain.

Question 367

Bronchioles

Answer 367

The bronchioles or bronchioli are the passageways by which air passes through the nose or mouth to the alveoli (air sacs) of the lungs, in which branches no longer contain cartilage or glands in their submucosa. They are branches of the bronchi, and are part of the conducting zone of the respiratory system.

Question 368

Cor Pulmonale

Answer 368

abnormal enlargement of the right side of the heart as a result of disease of the lungs or the pulmonary blood vessels.

Question 369

Dorsal respiratory group

Answer 369

The dorsal respiratory group (DRG) has the most fundamental role in the control of respiration, initiating inspiration (inhalation). The DRG is a collection of neurons forming an elongated mass that extends most of the length of the dorsal medulla. ... Most of the neurons are located in the nucleus of the solitary tract.

Question 370

External respiration

Answer 370

External respiration refers to the process of respiration (or breathing) where gases are exchanged between the lungs and the 'external' environment. ... Pulmonary gas exchange takes place in the lungs between the alveoli and the blood.

Question 371

Haldane effect

Answer 371

The Haldane effect is a property of haemoglobin first described by John Scott Haldane. Oxygenation of blood in the lungs displaces carbon dioxide from hemoglobin which increases the removal of carbon dioxide. This property is the Haldane effect. Conversely, oxygenated blood has a reduced affinity for carbon dioxide.

Question 372

Hematogenic

Answer 372

Pertaining to anything produced from, derived from, or transported by the blood.

Question 373

Hypercapnia

Answer 373

Hypercapnia, also known as hypercarbia and CO2 retention, is a condition of abnormally elevated carbon dioxide (CO2) levels in the blood. Carbon dioxide is a gaseous product of the body's metabolism and is normally expelled through the lungs.

Question 374

Hypocapnia

Answer 374

Hypocapnia or hypocapnea (from the Greek words υπό meaning below normal and καπνός kapnós meaning smoke), also known as hypocarbia, sometimes incorrectly called acapnia, is a state of reduced carbon dioxide in the blood. Hypocapnia usually results from deep or rapid breathing, known as hyperventilation.

Question 375

Hypoxemia

Answer 375

Hypoxemia is an abnormally low level of oxygen in the blood. More specifically, it is oxygen deficiency in arterial blood. Hypoxemia has many causes, often respiratory disorders, and can cause tissue hypoxia as the blood is not supplying enough oxygen to the body.

Question 376

Internal respiration

Answer 376

Internal respiration is the process of diffusing oxygen from the blood, into the interstitial fluid and into the cells. ... External respiration refers to the process of exchanging oxygen and carbon dioxide in the lungs, gills, or other tissues exposed to the external environment.

Question 377

Intrapleural pressure

Answer 377

In physiology, intrapleural pressure (also called intrathoracic pressure) refers to the pressure within the pleural cavity. Normally, the pressure within the pleural cavity is slightly less than the atmospheric pressure, in what is known as negative pressure.

Question 378

Macrophage

Answer 378

A macrophage is a type of phagocyte, which is a cell responsible for detecting, engulfing and destroying pathogens and apoptotic cells. Macrophages are produced through the differentiation of monocytes, which turn into macrophages when they leave the blood.

Question 379

Non-productive cough

Answer 379

A non-productive cough is one that does not bring up any mucus or other secretion. Also known as a dry cough, a non-productive cough often is caused by some sort of irritation in the throat. ... Conditions associated with this type of cough include asthma and bronchitis.

Question 380

Pleura

Answer 380

each of a pair of serous membranes lining the thorax and enveloping the lungs in humans and other mammals.

Question 381

Polycythemia

Answer 381

Polycythemia (also known as polycythaemia or polyglobulia) is a disease state in which the hematocrit (the volume percentage of red blood cells in the blood) is elevated.

Question 382

Rales

Answer 382

Rales are abnormal lung sounds characterized by discontinuous clicking or rattling sounds. They can sound like salt dropped onto a hot pan or like cellophane being crumpled.

Question 383

Respiratory membrane

Answer 383

The membrane separating air within the alveoli from the blood within pulmonary capillaries. It consists of the alveolar wall, the capillary wall, and their basement membranes. The respiratory membrane is very thin

Question 384

Small cell carcinoma

Answer 384

Small-cell carcinoma (also known as small-cell lung cancer, or oat-cell carcinoma) is a type of highly malignant cancer that most commonly arises within the lung, although it can occasionally arise in other body sites, such as the cervix, prostate, and gastrointestinal tract.

Question 385

Surface tension

Answer 385

the tension of the surface film of a liquid caused by the attraction of the particles in the surface layer by the bulk of the liquid, which tends to minimize surface area.

Question 386

Type II cells

Answer 386

Type II cells secrete pulmonary surfactant to lower the surface tension of water and allows the membrane to separate, therefore increasing its capability to exchange gases. ... These cells are granular and roughly cuboidal. Type II alveolar cells are typically found at the blood-air barrier.

Question 387

Afferent arteriole

Answer 387

The afferent arteriole is the arteriole that brings blood to the glomerulus. It is larger in diameter than the efferent arteriole. The efferent arteriole is the arteriole that carries blood away from the glomerulus. It is smaller in diameter than the afferent arteriole.

Question 388

Angiotensin

Answer 388

Angiotensin is a peptide hormone that causes vasoconstriction and an increase in blood pressure. It is part of the renin–angiotensin system, which regulates blood pressure. Angiotensin also stimulates the release of aldosterone from the adrenal cortex to promote sodium retention by the kidneys.

Question 389

Azotemia

Answer 389

Azotemia (azot, "nitrogen" + -emia, "blood condition") is a medical condition characterized by abnormally high levels of nitrogen-containing compounds (such as urea, creatinine, various body waste compounds, and other nitrogen-rich compounds) in the blood.

Question 390

Bowmans capsule

Answer 390

Bowman's capsule (or the Bowman capsule, capsula glomeruli, or glomerular capsule) is a cup-like sack at the beginning of the tubular component of a nephron in the mammalian kidney that performs the first step in the filtration of blood to form urine. A glomerulus is enclosed in the sac.

Question 391

Capsular hydrostatic pressure

Answer 391

Capsular hydrostatic pressure (CHP) is a back-pressure that opposes filtration. As the filtrate is forced into the capsular space, it meets 2 forms of resistance: the wall of the capsule and the fluid that has already filled the renal tubule. As a result, some filtrate is pushed back into the capillary.

Question 392

Cardiac output

Answer 392

Cardiac output is the product of the heart rate (HR), or the number of heart beats per minute (bpm), and the stroke volume (SV), which is the volume of blood pumped from the ventricle per beat; thus, CO = HR × SV. Values for cardiac output are usually denoted as L/min.

Question 393

Collecting duct

Answer 393

The collecting duct system of the kidney consists of a series of tubules and ducts that physically connect nephrons to a minor calyx or directly to the renal pelvis.

Question 394

Glomerulonephritis

Answer 394

acute inflammation of the kidney, typically caused by an immune response.

Question 395

Ventilation-perfusion coupling

Answer 395

During external respiration, oxygen loads from alveoli into pulmonary capillaries and carbon dioxide unloads from pulmonary capillaries into alveoli. ... During external respiration, ventilation-perfusion coupling maintains airflow and blood flow in proper proportions for efficient gas exchange.

Question 396

Efferent arteriole

Answer 396

Remember that the afferent arteriole brings blood to the glomerulus and the efferent arteriole takes blood away from the glomerulus. The efferent arterioles either 1) carry blood to capillaries in the medulla (Vasa recta) or 2) form anastomotic capillaries in the cortex (peritubular plexus).

Question 397

Glomeruler filtration

Answer 397

The process by which glomerular filtration occurs is called renal ultrafiltration. The force of hydrostatic pressure in the glomerulus (the force of pressure exerted from the pressure of the blood vessel itself) is the driving force that pushes filtrate out of the capillaries and into the slits in the nephron.

Question 398

Hematuria

Answer 398

Hematuria is the presence of red blood cells in the urine. Visible hematuria, also known as gross hematuria (also frank hematuria or macroscopic hematuria), causes visible red or brown discoloration of the urine.

Question 399

Hypernaturemia

Answer 399

Hypernatremia is a common electrolyte problem that is defined as a rise in serum sodium concentration to a value exceeding 145 mmol/L. [1, 2, 3] It is strictly defined as a hyperosmolar condition caused by a decrease in total body water (TBW) relative to electrolyte content

Question 400

Lipiduria

Answer 400

Lipiduria or lipuria is the presence of lipids in the urine. Lipiduria is most frequently observed in nephrotic syndrome where it is passed as lipoproteins along with other proteins. It has also been reported as a sign following fat embolism.

Question 401

Medullary Pyramids

Answer 401

The medullary pyramids are paired white matter structures of the brainstem's medulla oblongata that contain motor fibers of the corticospinal and corticobulbar tracts – known together as the pyramidal tracts. The lower limit of the pyramids is marked when the fibers cross (decussate).

Question 402

Nephritic syndrome

Answer 402

Nephritic syndrome is the name given to a collection of different signs and symptoms that occur as a result of inflammation in the kidneys. This inflammation causes the kidneys to work less effectively. It also causes protein and red blood cells to leak from the bloodstream into the urine.

Question 403

Net filtration pressure

Answer 403

The net filtration pressure (NFP) represents the interaction of the hydrostatic and osmotic pressures, driving fluid out of the capillary. ... Since filtration is, by definition, the movement of fluid out of the capillary, when reabsorption is occurring, the NFP is a negative number.

Question 404

Oliguria

Answer 404

Common causes of decreased urine output include: Dehydration due to vomiting, diarrhoea or fever, and a simultaneous lack of adequate fluid intake. Total urinary tract obstruction, such as may result from an enlarged prostate. Severe infection leading to shock

Question 405

Podocytes

Answer 405

Podocytes are cells in the Bowman's capsule in the kidneys that wrap around capillaries of the glomerulus. The Bowman's capsule filters the blood, retaining large molecules such as proteins while smaller molecules such as water, salts, and sugars are filtered as the first step in the formation of urine.

Question 406

Proteinuria

Answer 406

Proteinuria is a condition characterized by the presence of greater than normal amounts of protein in the urine. It is usually associated with some kind of disease or abnormality but may occasionally be seen in healthy individuals. Plasma, the liquid portion of blood, contains many different proteins.

Question 407

Renin-angiotensin mechanism

Answer 407

The renin–angiotensin system, or renin–angiotensin–aldosterone system, is a hormone system that regulates blood pressure and fluid and electrolyte balance, as well as systemic vascular resistance

Question 408

Starlings law of the heart

Answer 408

The law states that the stroke volume of the heart increases in response to an increase in the volume of blood in the ventricles, before contraction (the end diastolic volume), when all other factors remain constant.

Question 409

Tubular reabsorption

Answer 409

In renal physiology, reabsorption or tubular reabsorption is the process by which the nephron removes water and solutes from the tubular fluid (pre-urine) and returns them to the circulating blood.

Question 410

Tubular secretion

Answer 410

Tubular secretion is the transfer of materials from peritubular capillaries to the renal tubular lumen; it is the opposite process of reabsorption. This secretion is caused mainly by active transport and passive diffusion. Usually only a few substances are secreted, and are typically waste products.

Question 411

Urea

Answer 411

a colorless crystalline compound which is the main nitrogenous breakdown product of protein metabolism in mammals and is excreted in urine.

Question 412

Uremia

Answer 412

Uremic syndrome (uremia) is a serious complication of chronic kidney disease and acute kidney injury (which used to be known as acute renal failure). It occurs when urea and other waste products build up in the body because the kidneys are unable to eliminate them.

Question 413

Wilma tumour

Answer 413

Wilms tumor (also called Wilms' tumor or nephroblastoma) is a type of childhood cancer that starts in the kidneys. It is the most common type of kidney cancer in children. About 9 of 10 kidney cancers in children are Wilms tumors. Cancer starts when cells in the body begin to grow out of control.

Question 414

Angiogenesis

Answer 414

Angiogenesis is the physiological process through which new blood vessels form from pre-existing vessels, formed in the earlier stage of vasculogenesis. Angiogenesis continues the growth of the vasculature by processes of sprouting and splitting.

Question 415

ATP

Answer 415

Adenosine triphosphate, or ATP for short, is the energy currency of life. ATP is a high-energy molecule found in every cell. Its job is to store and supply the cell with needed energy.

Question 416

Fast glycolytic fibers

Answer 416

Often known as fast glycolytic fibers they are white in colour due to a low level of myoglobin and also contain few mitochondria. They produce ATP at a slow rate by anaerobic metabolism and break it down very quickly. This results in short, fast bursts of power and rapid fatigue

Question 417

Fast oxidative fibers

Answer 417

Intermediate fibers, also known as fast oxidative-glycolytic fibers, are fast twitch muscle fibers which have been converted via endurance training. These fibers are slightly larger in diameter, have more mitochondria as well as a greater blood supply and more endurance than typical fast twitch fibers.

Question 418

Interstitial cell

Answer 418

Interstitial cell refers to any cell that lies in the spaces between the functional cells of a tissue. ... Interstitial cell of Cajal (ICC) Leydig cells, cells present in the male testes responsible for the production of androgen (male sex hormone) A portion of the stroma of ovary.

Question 419

Mitochondria

Answer 419

Mitochondria are known as the powerhouses of the cell. They are organelles that act like a digestive system which takes in nutrients, breaks them down, and creates energy rich molecules for the cell. The biochemical processes of the cell are known as cellular respiration.

Question 420

Mitosis

Answer 420

a type of cell division that results in two daughter cells each having the same number and kind of chromosomes as the parent nucleus, typical of ordinary tissue growth.

Question 421

Oogenesis

Answer 421

Oogenesis is the process of producing the female gametes, the Ovum, from the primordial germ cells. The majority of the steps in oogenesis, up to the point of producing primary oocytes, occur pre-natally.

Question 422

Luteal phase

Answer 422

The luteal phase is the latter phase of the menstrual cycle or the earlier phase of the estrous cycle. It begins with the formation of the corpus luteum and ends in either pregnancy or luteolysis

Question 423

Oocytes

Answer 423

The resulting oocyte when meiosis I is completed, and gives rise to ootid and ovum (egg cell) upon the completion of meiosis II. Supplement. In humans, the secondary oocytes are produced when the primary oocytes complete meiosis I

Question 424

Slow oxidative fibers

Answer 424

These muscle fibers twitch at a very slow rate and are very resistant to fatigue. The peak force exerted by these muscles is also very low. Slow muscle fibers have a lot of oxidative enzymes but they are low in ATP activity. Slow oxidative fibers are used for aerobic activities.

Question 425

Proliferative phase

Answer 425

Also referred to as the follicular phase, the proliferative phase is the part of the menstrual cycle during which follicles inside the ovaries develop and mature in preparation for ovulation. The levels of FSH increase in the bloodstream during the proliferative phase, stimulating the maturation of follicles.

Question 426

Vesicular follicle

Answer 426

Tertiary vesicular follicles (also called "mature vesicular follicles" or "ripe vesicular follicles") are sometimes called Graafian follicles (after Regnier de Graaf). In humans, oocytes are established in the ovary before birth and may lie dormant awaiting initiation for up to 50 years.

Question 427

``` Damage to which one of the following areas of the brain is LEAST likely to result in contralateral signs and symptoms? A) Basal nuclei B) Cerebrum C) Cerebellum D) Motor cortex ```

Answer 427

C) Cerebellum

Question 428

``` Entry of which one of the following ions into neurons is responsible for initiating action potentials? A) Na+ B) K+ C) Ca++ D) Cl- ```

Answer 428

A) Na+

Question 429

``` graded potentials can summate to generate an action potential when the membrane reaches which of the following states? a. sub-threshold b. threshold c. resting d. polarized ```

Answer 429

B) Threshold

Question 430

In a neuronal pool post-synaptic action potentials are generated in which one of the following zones? a. discharge b. facilitated c. depolarized d. twilight

Answer 430

A) Discharge

Question 431

Injury to lower motor neurons does NOT result in which one of the following ? a. motor dysfunction b. muscle weakness c. hyperesthesia d. flaccidity

Answer 431

C) Hyperesthesia

Question 432

neuroplasticity does NOT allow for which one of the following states? a. adaptability in perception b. adaptability in reflex responses c, functional recovery of neuronal pathways d. regeneration of injured neurons

Answer 432

D) Regeneration of injured neurons

Question 433

``` Ruffini's corpuscles in the skin provide information regarding which one of the following sensory modalities? a. tendon stretch b. pain and temperature c. deep pressure and stretch d. balance and body position ```

Answer 433

C) Deep pressure and stretch

Question 434

``` The volume of blood supplied to the brain represents approximately what percentage of the total blood volume? a. 2% b. 4% c. 10% d. 20% ```

Answer 434

D) 20%

Question 435

which area does the hypothalamus regulate? a. pain discrimination b. balance and muscle tone c. gross motor coordination d. autonomic functions

Answer 435

D) Autonomic functions

Question 436

which area of the brain is associated with language comprehension? a. Broca's b. Gnostic c. Wernicke's d. Brodmann's

Answer 436

C) Wernicke’s

Question 437

which area of the cerebral cortex is associated with intellect memory and complex learning abilities? a. general interpretation b. visceral association c. prefrontal cortex d. Wernicke's area

Answer 437

C) Prefrontal cortex

Question 438

which connective tissue layer encases a bundle of nerve fibers? a. mesoneurium b. endoneurium c. perineurium d. epineurium

Answer 438

C) Perineurium

Question 439

which of the following sensory receptors plays a key role in maintaining muscle tone? a. GTO b. muscle spindle c. Merkel disc d. Pacinian Corpuscles

Answer 439

B) Muscle spindle

Question 440

which of the following statements regarding pyramidal tracts is TRUE? a. composed of only lateral corticospinal tracts b. injury to the tracts results in flaccidity c. a set of tracts located in the PNS d. comprised of upper motor neurons

Answer 440

D) Comprised of upper motor neurons

Question 441

which of the following statements regarding the nervous system is TRUE? a. movements of the limbs do not affect it b. forms a discontinuous and static tissue c. function in isolation of other systems d. a responsive and highly dynamic system

Answer 441

D) A responsive and highly dynamic system

Question 442

which of the following types of cells is involved in myelination in the CNS? a. astrocytes b. schwann c. ependymal d. oligrodendrocytes

Answer 442

D) Oligodendrocytes

Question 443

which one of the following areas of the brain does NOT receive sensory input? a. cerebellum b. thalamus c. basal nuclei d. cerebral cortex

Answer 443

C) Basal nuclei

Question 444

which one of the following areas of the brain receives sensory input from the skin and proprioceptors and enables us to identify the body region being stimulated? a. primary motor cortex b. premotor cortex c. primary somatosensory d. somatosensory association

Answer 444

C) Primary somatosensory

Question 445

which one of the following brain spaces contains CSF? a. dural septa b. dural sinus c. subdural space d. subarachnoid space

Answer 445

D) Subarachnoid space

Question 446

Which one of the following characterizes action potentials? a. known as receptor potentials b. propagate and act over long distances c. known as generator potentials d. local and act over short distance

Answer 446

B) Propagate and act over long distances

Question 447

which one of the following components does NOT affect intracranial pressure? a. blood flow b. mass of the brain c. intracellular fluid d. cerebrospinal fluid

Answer 447

C) Intracellular fluid

Question 448

``` which one of the following components of the neuromuscular system is responsible for initiating voluntary skeletal muscle contraction? a. cerebellum b. motor cortex c. myofibres d. thalamus ```

Answer 448

B) Motor cortex

Question 449

which one of the following factors is NOT a known risk factor predisposing a person to cerebrovascular accident? a. moderate alcohol intake b. hyperlipidemia c. diabetes d. smoking

Answer 449

C) Diabetes

Question 450

which one of the following functions do extra-pyramidal nerve tracts NOT control? a. axial muscles maintaining balance and posture b. movement of muscles of facial expression and mastication c. head and eye movements tracking objects in a visual field d. muscle tone and various visceral motor functions

Answer 450

B) Movement of muscles of facial expression and mastication

Question 451

which one of the following general statements regarding antibiotics is FALSE a. are specific yet affect many types of bacteria b. can interfere with bacterial cell wall synthesis c. usually interfere with host cell functions d. are ineffective in fighting viral diseases

Answer 451

C) Usually interfere with host cell functions

Question 452

which one of the following infectious agents causes poliomyelitis? a. a specific viral agent b. an unknown pathogen c. excessive muscle atrophy d. meningococcal bacteria

Answer 452

A) A specific viral agent

Question 453

Which one of the following nerve tracts transmits signals that are interpreted as pain sensation? a. fasciculus gracilis b. fasciculus cuneatus c. lateral spinothalamic d. anterior spinothalamic

Answer 453

C) Lateral spinothalamic

Question 454

Which one of the following receptor types is sensitive to changes in light? a. photoreceptors b. chemoreceptors c. thermoreceptors d. mechanoreceptors

Answer 454

A) Photoreceptors

Question 455

which one of the following sets of words describes spinal reflexes? a. predictable protective involuntary b. involuntary nonspecific random c. nonspecific voluntary learned d. protective random voluntary

Answer 455

A) Predictable protective involuntary

Question 456

which one of the following statements about the effects of hypoxia and ischemia on the brain is TRUE? a. Hypoxia severely reduces cellular metabolism but ischemia does not b. Hypoxia is fairly well tolerated but ischemia leads to neuronal damage c. Hypoxia and ischemia both cause severe damage due to reduced tissue perfusion d. Hypoxia and ischemia can be compensated to a large extent by auto-regulation

Answer 456

B) Hypoxia is fairly well tolerated but ischemia leads to neuronal damage

Question 457

Which one of the following statements describes spatial discrimination? a. communication of signals between the hemispheres b. the ability to identify the body region being stimulated c. functional specialization of hemispheres activity d. cerebral dominance in reflexive behaviours

Answer 457

B) The ability to identify the body region being stimulated

Question 458

which one of the following statements describes the function of the autonomic nervous system? a. coordinates sensory input from the internal organs b. responsible for integrating peripheral nerve signals c. coordinates voluntary functions of the internal environment d. responsible for maintaining the stability of the internal environment

Answer 458

D) Responsible for maintaining the stability of the internal environment

Question 459

which one of the following statements ragarding cerebral palsy is True? a. movement patterns are spastic b. manifests with flaccid paralysis c. manifest with intention tremors d. motor coordination is not impaired

Answer 459

A) Movement patterns are spastic

Question 460

Which one of the following statements regarding 1st order neurons is TRUE? a. transmit information from the cerebral cortex to the spinal cord b. transmit signals from sensory receptors to the thalamus c. the neuronal cell bodies are located in the primary motor cortex d. the neuronal cell bodies are located in the dorsal root ganglia

Answer 460

D) The neuronal cell bodies are located in the dorsal root ganglia

Question 461

which one of the following statements regarding conduction velocities in neurons is TRUE? a. conduction velocities of different types of nerve fibers are the same b. conduction velocity in neurons depends only on the degree of myelination c. rate of conduction in large diameter - myelinated group A nerve fibers is rapid d. lightly myelinated group B nerve fibers transmit signals at a rate of 150 m/sec

Answer 461

C) Rate of conduction in large diameter - myelinated group A nerve fibers is rapid

Question 462

Which one of the following statements regarding neurotransmission is FALSE? a. neurotransmitters are released into the synapse by exocytosis b. neurotransmitters travel across the synapse by simple diffusion c. neurotransmitters travel across the synapse by active transport d. Ca++ promotes fusion of synaptic vesicles and the cell membrane

Answer 462

C) Neurotransmitters travel across the synapse by active transport

Question 463

Which one of the following statements regarding post- synaptic potentiation is TRUE? a. excitatory and inhibitory post-synaptic potentials are action potentials b. EPSPs move the membrane towards the threshold and possible generation of an action potential c. IPSPs move the membrane towards the threshold and slow down signal transmission d. excitatory post-synaptic potentials surpass the threshold resulting in the generation of an action potential

Answer 463

B) EPSPs move the membrane towards the threshold and possible generation of an action potential

Question 464

Which one of the following statements regarding synaptic inhibition is TRUE? a. describes facilitation of neuronal pools b. typical of depolarized association neurons c. membrane potential becomes more negative d. increase initiation of graded potentials

Answer 464

C) Membrane potential becomes more negative

Question 465

which one of the following statements regarding the cerebellum is TRUE? a. coordinates skilled voluntary movements controls equilibrium and muscle tone b. works with the basal nuclei to smooth out movements of the limbs and trunk c. consists of an outer layer of white matter and inner core of grey matter d. communicates with the cerebrum through the midbrain and pons

Answer 465

A) Coordinates skilled voluntary movements controls equilibrium and muscle tone

Question 466

which one of the following statements regarding the peripheral nervous system is TRUE? a. The PNS has two major structural divisions - upper and lower b. lower motor neurons emerge from the dorsal horns of the spinal cord c. upper motor neurons emerge from the ventral horn of the spinal cord d. lower motor neurons emerge from the ventral horns of the spinal cord

Answer 466

D) Lower motor neurons emerge from the ventral horns of the spinal cord

Question 467

which one of the following structures forms part of the choroid plexuses that produce CSF? a. dura mater b. bony skull c. arachnoid mater d. pia mater

Answer 467

D) Pia mater

Question 468

which one of the following structures is NOT involved in the regulation of muscle tone? a. gamma motor neurons b. intrafusal nerve fibres c. Golgi tendon organs d. cerebellum

Answer 468

C) Golgi tendon organs

Question 469

Which one of the following terms is a group of neurons in the CNS that integrate signals that facilitate the initiation of appropriate responses? a. ganglion b. neuronal pool c. neuronal track d. nerve bundle

Answer 469

B) Neuronal pool

Question 470

Which statement about ascending nerve tracts in the a spinal cord is TRUE? a. originates in the dorsal horns of the spinal cord b. transmit sensory input to cardiac muscles c. transmit motor output to skeletal muscles d. consist of nerve fibers composed of gray matter

Answer 470

A) Originates in the dorsal horns of the spinal cord

Question 471

which statement about damage to the motor cortex is d FALSE? a. damage to the motor cortex often results in paralysis of specific muscles b. specific muscles paralyzed due to cortical injury depend on the site of injury c. lesions on the cortex result in hemiplegia of the contralateral side d. posterior primary cortex lesions lead to paresis of distal extensor muscles

Answer 471

D) Posterior primary cortex lesions lead to paresis of distal extensor muscles

Question 472

which statement about public health considerations is TRUE? a. infectious agents are rarely spread via respiratory system discharges b. universal precautions are designed to protect clients and therapists c. clients with a fever and stiff necks are to be advised to rest for a few days d. massage therapists are not obliged to report contagious diseases

Answer 472

B) Universal precautions are designed to protect clients and therapists

Question 473

Blue Bloaters is a term referring to people suffering from which one of the following pulmonary disorders? a. chronic bronchitis b. bronchiectasis c. emphysema d. asthma

Answer 473

A) Chronic bronchitis

Question 474

Chronic bronchitis is NOT accompanied by which one of the following manifestations? a. Hypoxemia and cyanosis b. Ventilation-perfusion imbalances c. A persistant productive cough d. Pursed lip expiration

Answer 474

D) Pursed lip expiration

Question 475

Chronic renal failure is often associated with anemia due to which one of the following factors? a. Reduced levels of erythropoietin b. Loss of red blood cells in the urine c. Loss of vitamin B12 in the urine d. Insufficient retention of iron

Answer 475

A) Reduced levels of erythropoietin

Question 476

The collecting ducts are the site of which one of the following functions? a. Final concentration of urine in the kidney b. Draining of urine from the kidney c. Temporary storage of concentrated urine d. Draining of urine from the bladder

Answer 476

A) Final concentration of urine in the kidney

Question 477

The diaphragm muscle is controlled by which of the following spinal nerve segments? a. C2-C4 b. C5-C7 c. C3-C5 d. C4-C6

Answer 477

C) C3-C5

Question 478

Emphysema is categorized as which one of the following types of respiratory disorder? a. Inflammatory b. Obstructive c. Pulmonary d. Lung inflation

Answer 478

B) Obstructive

Question 479

``` Forced expiration is an active process facilitated by which one of the following muscles, or group of muscles? a. Abdominal wall b. External iintercostals c. Scalenes d. Diaphragm ```

Answer 479

A) Abdominal wall

Question 480

Hematuria is a clinical term reflecting which one of the following states? a. Protein in the urine b. Reduced urine output c. Elevated blood urea d. Blood in the urine

Answer 480

D) Blood in the urine

Question 481

Histotoxicity affects oxygen transport in the blood due to which one of the following statements? a. Compromised blood vessels b. Reduced affinity of cells for O2 c. Decreased hemoglobin levels d. Ventilation-perfusion imbalances

Answer 481

B) Reduced affinity of cells for O2

Question 482

An increase in which one of the following factors increases the affinity of O2 to hemoglobin? a. Partial pressure of CO2 b. Concentration of hydrogen ions c. Air temperature d. Partial pressure of O2

Answer 482

D) Partial pressure of O2

Question 483

infection of the urinary tract due to E.coli is known as which one of the following? a. pyelonephritis b. glomerulonephritis c. arteriosclerosis d. renal calculi

Answer 483

A) Pyelonephritis

Question 484

n general, chronic obstructive pulmonary diseases d (COPDs) are a group of disorders that manifest with which one of the following? a. Inflammation and fibrotic changes in lung tissue b. Pulmonary edema and lung collapse c. Infection, abscesses and granuloma formation d. Recurrent obstruction of air flow in pulmonary airways

Answer 484

D) Recurrent obstruction of air flow in pulmonary airways

Question 485

Interstitial lung disease are a group of disorders that manifest with which state? a. pulmonary edema and hyperventilation b. inflammation and fibrotic changes in lung tissue c. destruction of elastin and alveolar tissue spaces d. infection abscesses and granuloma formation

Answer 485

B) Inflammation and fibrotic changes in lung tissue

Question 486

``` In the event of damaged passageways, which one of the following structures ensures equal pressure is maintained in the lungs? a. Alveolar pores b. Basal laminae c. Type I cells d. Type II cells ```

Answer 486

A) Alveolar pores

Question 487

In which one of the following areas in the bronchial tree does gas exchange occur? a. Respiratory b. Conducting c. Respiratory membrane d. Visceral pleura

Answer 487

C) Respiratory membrane

Question 488

In which one of the following respiratory structures does gas exchange take place? a. bronchi b. trachea c. bronchioles d. alveoli

Answer 488

D) Alveoli

Question 489

In which one of the following respiratory system structures does gas exchange take place? a. Alveoli b. Trachea c. Bronchi d. Bronchioles

Answer 489

A) Alveoli

Question 490

A person experiencing oliguria may have which one of the following disorders? a. Dehydration b. Hypotonic hydration c. Hypertension d. Edema

Answer 490

A) Dehydration

Question 491

Pulmonary hypertension describes the elevation of blood pressure ______. a. Due to a pulmonary infarct b. In the pulmonary arterial system c. In the pulmonary venal system d. Due to inflammatory processes

Answer 491

B) In the pulmonary arterial system

Question 492

Renal failure is least likely to affect which one of the following homeostatic functions? a. maintenance of plasma volume b. plasma electrolyte concentrations c. control of systemic blood pressure d. excretion of carbon dioxide

Answer 492

D) Excretion of carbon dioxide

Question 493

Systemic manifestations of uremia include which of the d following? a. Weakness, anemia, hypertension b. loss of appetite, weakness, gastritis c. Weight loss, hypertension, depression d. Weakness, weight loss, anemia

Answer 493

D) Weakness, weight loss, anemia

Question 494

The term ventilation is which one of the following b states? a. amount of air you take in b. amount of gas reaching the alveoli c. air entering pulmonary capillaries d. rate at which air reaches body cells

Answer 494

B) Amount of gas reaching the alveoli

Question 495

under which one of the following conditions does blood pressure increase? a. vascular smooth tone decreases b. blood plasma volume decreases c. peripheral vascular resistance increases d. glomerular filtration rate increases

Answer 495

C) Peripheral vascular resistance increases

Question 496

The ureters are responsible for which one of the following functions? a. concentrating urine in the kidney b. draining urine from the bladder c. draining urine from the kidney d. temporary storage of urine

Answer 496

C) Draining urine from the kidney

Question 497

The urinary bladder is responsible for which one of the a following functions? a. Temporary storage of urine b. Draining urine from the kidney c. Draining urine from the bladder d. Concentrating urine in the kidney

Answer 497

A) Temporary storage of urine

Question 498

What is a neoplasm affecting the kidney? a. adenocarcinoma b. nephroblastoma c. small cell carcinoma d. malignant melanoma

Answer 498

B) Nephroblastoma

Question 499

What is NOT a direct function of the kidneys? a. red blood cell production b. removal of nitrogenous waste c. regulation of water volume d. regulation of the pH balance

Answer 499

A) Red blood cell production

Question 500

What is the major contributor to plasma osmotic pressure? a. sodium ion concentration b. plasma protein levels c. white blood cells d. red blood cells

Answer 500

B) Plasma protein levels

Question 501

what is the primary driving force that results in the initial filtration of blood in the nephron? a. blood osmotic pressure b. capsular hydrostatic pressure c. glomerular hydrostatic pressure d. intrapleural pressure

Answer 501

C) Glomeruler hydrostatic pressure

Question 502

Where does the filtration of blood in the nephron begin? a. The glomerulus b. Proximal convoluted tubules c. Bowman's capsule d. The loop of Henle

Answer 502

A) The glomerulus

Question 503

Which clinical manifestation is NOT a characteristic of the nephritic syndrome? a. hyperlipidemia b. azotemia c. hypertension d. oliguria

Answer 503

A) Hyperlipidemia

Question 504

which control does NOT affect glomerular filtration rate? a. renal autoregulation b. sympathetic nervous system c. renin-angiotensin mechanism d. somatic nervous system

Answer 504

D) Somatic nervous system

Question 505

Which of the following statements defines expiratory reserve volume? a. the sum of all lung volumes b. total amount of exchangeable air in the lungs c. amount of air that can be inspired after a tidal expiration d. amount of air that can be exhaled after a tidal expiration

Answer 505

D) Amount of air that can be exhaled after a tidal expiration

Question 506

``` Which endocrine gland is associated with the kidneys? A) Pituitary B) Adrenal C) Thyroid D) Pineal ```

Answer 506

B) Adrenal

Question 507

What is characteristic of endocrine function? A) Respond quickly to changes in the environment B) Affects body systems through hormone action C) Forms a wide spread structural network D) Stimulation is local and short-lived

Answer 507

B) Affects body systems through hormone action

Question 508

Which statement is TRUE of exocrine, but NOT endocrine glands? A) Produce and secrete substances through a duct B) Glands vary in number, size, shape and location C) Are important in maintaining physiological functions D) Secretion of substances may be into the lumen of an organ

Answer 508

A) Produce and secrete substances through a duct

Question 509

``` Which hormone is secreted by the pituitary gland? A) Androgens B) Aldosterone C) Cortisol D) Adrenocorticotropic hormone ```

Answer 509

D) Adrenocorticotropic hormone

Question 510

Which statement about the pituitary gland is TRUE? A) The pituitary gland only secretes tropic hormones B) The anterior pituitary is known as the neurohypophysis C) The posterior pituitary is known as the adenohypophysis D) The anterior pituitary secretes tropic and somatic hormones

Answer 510

D) The anterior pituitary secretes tropic and somatic hormones

Question 511

What is a common attribute of all hormones? A) Act on specific target organs B) All are amino acid derivatives C) Non specific, can be replaced by other hormones D) Large concentrations are needed for the hormone to work

Answer 511

A) Act on specific target organs

Question 512

What is characteristic of tropic hormones? A) Are secreted by the thyroid B) Activate other endocrine glands C) Are secreted by secondary endocrine organs D) Stimulate physiological functions of target organs

Answer 512

B) Activate other endocrine glands

Question 513

``` In negative feedback mechanisms _____ blood plasma hormone levels result in ______ hormone synthesis and release A) Increased / decreased B) Increased / Increased C) Decreased / Decreased D) Decreased / Unchanged ```

Answer 513

A) Increased / Decreased

Question 514

Which statement about the hypothalamic-pituitary axis is TRUE? A) Releasing hormones secreted by the pituitary gland stimulate the hypothalamus B) Hypothalamic and pituitary hormones affect a small number of body functions C) Dysfunction of the hypothalamus affects the function of the pituitary gland D) The hypothalamus and pituitary glands act independently of one another

Answer 514

C) Dysfunction of the hypothalamus affects the function of the pituitary gland

Question 515

In which set is the hormone correctly matched with its target organ? A) Growth hormone - Adrenal cortex B) Lutenizing hormone - ovaries C) Thyroid stimulating hormone - parathyroid gland D) Follicle stimulating hormone - breast tissue

Answer 515

B) Lutenizing hormone - ovaries

Question 516

``` Which mechanism is an increase in the number of membrane receptors on a target organ? A) Adaptation B) Up-regulation C) Hypersensitivity D) Down-regulation ```

Answer 516

B) Up-regulation

Question 517

``` What is a likely cause of endocrine hyperfunction? A) Congential glandular defects B) Defective receptors C) Impaired cellular response D) Glandular hyperplasia ```

Answer 517

D) Glandular hyperplasia

Question 518

``` Diabetes insipidus is a pathology associated with which organ? A) Pancreas B) Stomach C) Kidney D) Liver ```

Answer 518

C) Kidney

Question 519

Which statement about Cushing’s syndrome is FALSE? A) Often leads to the development of steroid diabetes B) Hypercortisolism is a typical manifestation of the disease C) A common cause is excessive use of steroid therapy D) Characterized by adrenal atrophy and decreased glucocorticoid secretion

Answer 519

D) Characterized by adrenal atrophy and decreased glucocorticoid secretion

Question 520

``` What is NOT a typical cause of endocrine gland hyperfunction? A) Neoplasm B) Defective cell receptors C) Hyperplasia of the gland D) Excessive glandular secretion ```

Answer 520

B) Defective cell receptors

Question 521

``` Which of the following describes a growth hormone function? A) Increases systemic metabolic rate B) Enhances protein synthesis C) Reduces blood glucose levels D) Stimulates thyroxin release ```

Answer 521

B) Enhances protein synthesis

Question 522

``` Which function is NOT affected by thyroid hormone? A) Consumption of oxygen B) Carbohydrate metabolism C) Renal absorption D) Regulation of body temperature ```

Answer 522

C) Renal absorption

Question 523

Which function is NOT affected by thyroid hormone? A) Regulation of the basal metabolic rate B) Normal heart function C) Renal absorption and secretion D) Muscle development and tone

Answer 523

C) Renal absorption and secretion

Question 524

``` Which sign/symptom would NOT be seen in hyperthyroidism? A) Weight loss B) Increased appetite C) Tachycardia D) Hypothermia ```

Answer 524

D) Hypothermia

Question 525

``` Which sign/symptom is characteristic of hypothyroidism? A) Cold intolerance B) Heat intolerance C) Weight loss D) Excessive sweating ```

Answer 525

A) Cold intolerance

Question 526

``` Which Etiology is common to Grave’s, Hashimoto’s and Addison’s disease? A) Neoplasms B) Hereditary C) Autoimmune D) Thyroidectomy ```

Answer 526

C) Autoimmune

Question 527

``` Which process is NOT dependant on the presence of calcium ions? A) Neurotransmission B) Blood clotting C) Erythropoietin D) Muscle contraction ```

Answer 527

C) Erythropoietin

Question 528

``` Which state is an effect of decreased blood calcium levels? A) Stimulate secretion of calcitonin B) Inhibit secretion of calcitonin C) Inhibit osteoclastic activity D) Stimulate osteoblastic activity ```

Answer 528

B) Inhibit secretion of calcitonin

Question 529

Which statement about calcium metabolism is TRUE? A) The human body contains about 10 kilograms of calcium in the bones B) Maintaining blood levels of ionic calcium is critical to body function C) Much of the ionic calcium in the body is found in the cytoplasmic fluid D) Bone calcium levels are maintained at the expense of blood plasma levels

Answer 529

B) Maintaining blood levels of ionic calcium is critical to body function

Question 530

``` Which sign/symptom is typical of hypoparathyroidism? A) Hypo-excitable neurons B) Kidney stones C) Muscle tetany D) Inflammatory myopathies ```

Answer 530

C) Muscle tetany

Question 531

Which statement about the adrenal glands is TRUE? A) The adrenal glands are located in the anterior neck B) The adrenal cortex produces and secretes aldosterone C) The adrenal cortex produces and secretes Epinepherine D) The adrenal medulla produces and secretes sex hormones

Answer 531

B) The adrenal cortex produces and secretes aldosterone

Question 532

``` Increased secretion of aldosterone is stimulated by which factor? A) Increased blood pressure B) Increased blood volume C) Low blood levels of sodium D) Low blood levels of potassium ```

Answer 532

C) Low blood levels of sodium

Question 533

Which statement about hyperaldosteronism is FALSE? A) It increases renin-angiotensin activity B) It can lead to headaches and muscle weakness C) It causes sodium retention and excess potassium secretion D) It results in increased blood volume and hypertension

Answer 533

A) It increases renin-angiotensin activity

Question 534

``` What is NOT an effect of cortisol in the body? A) Immune system depression B) Emotional stability C) Anti-inflammatory D) Decreased blood glucose levels ```

Answer 534

D) Decreased blood glucose levels

Question 535

``` What manifestation is typical of Hypercortisolism? A) Moon face B) Hypoglycemia C) Hypotension D) Oliguria ```

Answer 535

A) Moon face

Question 536

``` What is the most common cause of Cushing’s syndrome? A) Adrenal tumours B) Pituitary tumours C) Non-endocrine tumours D) Excessive steroid therapy ```

Answer 536

D) Excessive steroid therapy

Question 537

``` Responsiveness is a trait that enables organisms to ____ changes in the environment A) Enhance B) Adapt to C) Modulate D) Segment ```

Answer 537

B) Adapt to

Question 538

Which statement about stress is FALSE? A) There are various physiological responses to psychological stressors B) Stress is abnormal and leads to tissue pathology and death C) The stress one can withstand without pathological consequences is individual D) Too much stress can lead to systemic dysfunction

Answer 538

B) Stress is abnormal and leads to tissue pathology and death

Question 539

``` Which manifestation is least likely to reflect a response of the body to stress? A) Headaches B) Dry mouth C) Hypertension D) Hypocortisolism ```

Answer 539

D) Hypocortisolism

Question 540

Which statement about stressors is FALSE? A) A stressor is a factor that requires a response or change B) Stressors can be factors or events arising outside the body C) Stressors can be factors or events produced inside the body D) The body functions best with no stressors placed on it

Answer 540

D) The body functions best with no stressors placed on it

Question 541

``` Sympathetic NS and HPA axis describes which stage of the general adaptation syndrome? A) Alarm B) Tolerance C) Resistance D) Exhaustion ```

Answer 541

A) Alarm

Question 542

Which statement about responses to stress is TRUE? A) Humans can only deal with stress by changing their environment B) People always adapt extremely well to stressful situations C) Adaptation allows us to withstand a stressor and continue to function D) Humans are the only organisms able to respond appropriately to stress

Answer 542

C) Adaptation allows us to withstand a stressor and continue to function

Question 543

What is a response of the endocrine system to stress? A) Increased metabolic activity stimulated by cortisol B) Increased secretion of Gastrin, CCK and secretin C) Decreased blood glucose levels from hyposecretion of cortisol D) Suppression of the immune and inflammatory responses

Answer 543

A) Suppression of the immune and inflammatory responses

Question 544

Which statement about homeostasis is FALSE? A) Homeostatic balance requires constant energy input B) Changes in the environment are met with adaptation C) Positive feedback mechanisms maintain homeostatsis D) Adaptation is both physiological and psychological

Answer 544

C) Positive feedback mechanisms maintain homeostasis

Question 545

``` Which of the following is key in humans anatomical reserve? A) The presence of paired organs B) Increased function of organs C) Individual coping strategies D) Sleep habits ```

Answer 545

A) The presence of paired organs

Question 546

``` What is an uncommon response to stress? A) Dry mouth B) Tachycardia C) Pernicious anemia D) Sweaty hands and feet ```

Answer 546

C) Pernicious anemia

Question 547

``` Which of the following is a possible cause of tension headaches? A) Sustained muscle tension B) Cold or flu symptom C) Head trauma D) Changes in neuroexcitability ```

Answer 547

A) Sustained muscle tension

Question 548

``` Which one of the following is NOT a hypothesized cause of tension headaches? A) TMJ B) Family history C) Depression D) Overuse of caffeine ```

Answer 548

B) Family history

Question 549

Which statement about migraine headaches is TRUE? A) They are the most common headaches in adults B) They are often accompanied by visual disturbances C) They are often associated with watery eyes and nose D) Most migraines are experienced with an accompanying aura

Answer 549

B) They are often accompanied by visual disturbances

Question 550

Which statement about factors that affect adaptation to stress is TRUE? A) Humans have a very limited capacity for adaptation B) Our genes are unimportant in helping cope with stress C) Infants and very old individuals are typically the least able to adapt to stress D) Circadian rhythm does not affect ones ability to adapt to stress

Answer 550

C) Infants and very old individuals are typically the least able to adapt to stress

Question 551

Which statement about psychosocial factors and withstanding stress is TRUE? A) String social supports do not impact health and immunity B) Individuals with social networks are more inclined to experience lonliness C) People with ample social networks are less likely to be homeless D) People with social supports have the same life expectancy as those who don’t

Answer 551

C) People with ample social networks are less likely to be homeless

Question 552

Which statement about blood pressure is FALSE? A) Blood pressure varies throughout the day B) Blood pressure readings are affected by exercise C) Hypertension is considered ‘a symptom’ not a ‘disease’ D) A blood pressure of 145/105 is considered normal

Answer 552

D) A blood pressure of 145/105 is considered normal

Question 553

``` Which PTSD symptom is NOT an example of “hyper-arousal” A) Increased irritability B) Difficulty concentrating C) Having flashbacks D) Exaggerated startle Reflex ```

Answer 553

C) Having flashbacks