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Module 8 > Pathology > Flashcards

Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

what is pathology?

A

the science of disease

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2
Q

what is homeostasis?

A

the bodys way of adapting to the external envriomental changes in order to maintain good health and balance

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3
Q

what are pathogensis?

A

the cause or developing of disease

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4
Q

what is the differnce between apoptosis and nercosis?

A

apoptosis ( The death of cells. This occurs in a noraml cell life )
nercosis ( Death of all cells in an organ due to disease )

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5
Q

what is the difference between hyperplasia and hypoplasia?

A

hyperplasia (increase in cells in an organ)
hypoplasia (lack of cells in an organ)

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6
Q

define inflammation

A

the bodys first response to injury or infection

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7
Q

what are white blood cells?

A

type of blood cells which play a large role in immune response and fighting off infections

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8
Q

what is the difference bewteen acute and chronic inflammation?

A

acute (immediate response to injury. its describe as red, swollen, tender, firm, and hot to the touch)

chronic (slow, long term inflammation which can last for months to years post injury. described as boggy)

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9
Q

define the following:
commensalism
mutualism
parasitism

A

commensalism (when one indiviual benefits and the other is unharmed)
mutualism (when both indiviual benefit from the relationship)
parasitism (when one indiviual benefits and the other is harmed)

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10
Q

define the following:
endemic
pandemic
epidemic

A

endemic (found in a geographic region)
epidemic (abrupt and unexoected increase in the incidence of disease)
pandemic (spread of diease beyond continetal boundaries)

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11
Q

what is cystic fibrosis?

A

auto resscieve diorder that leads to excessive msucous build up in the GI tract, respirator tract, and reproductive tract

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12
Q

what conditions fall under COPD?

A

emphysema
chornic bronchitis

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13
Q

what is the difference between emphysema and chronic bronchitis?

A

emphysema (the lungs loss of recoiling)
(pink puffers)
chronic bronchitis (inflammation and scaring of bronchis)
(blud bloaters)

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14
Q

define atelectasis

A

lungs fail to expand

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15
Q

what can cause atelectasis?

A

obstruction of airways
lung compression
loss of recoiling

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16
Q

what are some symptoms of emphysema?

A

barrel chest
pursed lips to increases the resistance to the outflow
of air

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17
Q

what are some sympyoms of chronic bronchitis?

A

decrease execrise tolerance
shortness of breath
hypoxemia

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18
Q

what is pneumothorax?

A

when air enters the pleural cavity

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19
Q

what is another name for pneuomthorax?

A

partial or complete collapsed lung(s)

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20
Q

define pneumoconiosis

A

Caused by the inhalation of inorganic dust and particulate material

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21
Q

what happens to marcophages with pneumoconiosis?

A

becasue the marcohpages are responsible for breaking down harmful material the flows through the lungs, with pneumoconiosis, inorganic materal breaks down the cells which cause these materials to cause inflammation and damage to the lungs

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22
Q

what is respiratory distress syndrome?

A

when infants do not have a mature pulmonary system, or sufficient surfactant

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23
Q

what are some symptoms of RDS?

A

central cyanosis
shortness of breath
fatigue
stiff lungs

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24
Q

what are pulmonary embolisms?

A

Obstruction of blood flow in the pulmonary artery resulting from a blood borne substance that has lodged in one of its branches

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25
Q

where do most DVT arise from?

A

lower extremities

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26
Q

what are some symptoms of a pulmonary embolism?

A

Chest pain
Dyspnea
increased respiratory rate
Pulmonary infarction
Hypoxemia

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27
Q

what is angina pectoris?

A

sudeen chest pain or pressure normall seen with cardiac ischemia

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28
Q

how would one desribe angina pectoris?

A

suffocating chest pain
steady pain
radiating to the left pain or jaw is common

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29
Q

what is congestive heart failure?

A

heart failure seen with congestion of body tissue

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30
Q

what is the difference between left and right sided heart failure?

A

left side (Failure of the left heart to move blood from the pulmonary circulation into systemic circulation)

right side (Failure of the right heart to pump deoxygenated blood forward into the pulmonary circulation)

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31
Q

what is hodgkins?

A

Specialized form of lymphoma that has the presence of an abnormal cell called the “Reed-Sternberg Cell”. they normally begin as a malignancy in a single lymph node and then spreads to contiguous lymph nodes

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32
Q

define neutropenia

A

abnormal low levels of neutrophils

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33
Q

describe tuberculosis infections?

A

causes by the Mycobacterium tuberculosis disease
a bacteria which antibodies do not response to there for can be seen as asymptomaic with flare ups

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34
Q

what puts someone at risk for tuberculosis infection?

A

people with impaired cell-mediated immunity or secondary infection is of high risk if one has previous history of primary TB

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35
Q

what are the four types of shock?

A

cardiogenic (failure of the heart to pump)
hypovolemic (loss of blood volume or decreased)
obstrutive (mechanical obstruction)
disturbutive (loss of blood vessle tones)

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36
Q

what are the types of hypovolemic shock?

A

inital stage
second stage
third stage
fourth stage

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37
Q

what are the types of disturbutive shock?

A

neurogenic (due to vasomotor control of thr brain)
anaphylactic (allerigc reaction)
septic (infection)

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38
Q

what are the complications of shock?

A

Acute respiratory distress syndrome
Acute renal failure
GI complications
Disseminated intravascular coagulation
Multiple organ dysfunction syndrome

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39
Q

what is marfans syndrome?

A

autosomal dominat disorder that effects connective tissue

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40
Q

what are the symptoms of marfans syndrome?

A

long ‘spider’ like fingers
long thin body
dislocated lens of the eyes
weak ligaments of retina or lens
premature death

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41
Q

what is Phenylketonuria (PKU)?

A

autosomal recessive disorder that affects the liver enzymes

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42
Q

what things can PKU lead to if left untreated?

A

Mental retardation
Microencephaly
Delayed speech
Other signs of impaired neurologic developmen

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43
Q

what is tay-sachs?

A

autosomal recessive disorder that causes the body to lack a protein that helps break down gangliosides which when built up can lead to nerve cell damage

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44
Q

what is downs syndrome?

A

extra copy of chromsome 21 (trisomy 21)

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45
Q

what are some symptoms of downs syndrome?

A

mental retardation
facial abnormalities
short hands and fingers
increase GI infection
increased risk of Alzheimers disease

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46
Q

describe teratogenic agent

A

Environmental agent that causes abnormalities during embryonic or fetal development

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47
Q

what is fetal alcohol syndrome?

A

prenatal or postnatal growth retardation

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48
Q

what is angiogenesis?

A

formation of a new blood vessel

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49
Q

what is the difference between benign and malignant?

A

benign (non-cancerous tumour with well defined borders, non spreading (normally) and slow growing)

malignant (cancerous tumour that has uneven borders, spreads throughout the body while growing rapidly)

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50
Q

define the following:
adenoma
adenocarcinoma
Carcinoma
Osteoma
Sarcoma
Papilloma

A

adenoma (benign tumor of glandular epithelial tissue)
adenocarcinoma (malignant tumor of glandular epithelial tissue)
Carcinoma (malignant tumor of epithelial tissue)
Osteoma (benign tumor of bone tissue)
Sarcoma (malignant tumors of mesenchymal origin)
Papilloma (benign microscopic or macroscopic fingerlike projection)

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51
Q

what are carcinogen?

A

any substance that is capabile of causing cancer

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52
Q

what effects do free radicals have on aging?

A

wrinkled skin
stiff joints
hardened arteries

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53
Q

what are telomerase?

A

enzymes found in the DNA and plays are large role on aging as it gets lost in the cells

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54
Q

where do most age related changes of the skin take place?

A

dermis

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55
Q

what happens when collagen fibers are lost?

A

begin to decrease in numbers stiffen, break apart, and
disorganize into a shapeless, matted tangle

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56
Q

what happens to the immune response of skin with age?

A

Decrease in skin’s immune responsiveness
(Langerhans cells decrease in number and macrophages become phagocytes)

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57
Q

what two factors occur with aging and bones?

A

decrease in bone mass
brittleness

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58
Q

what joint changes occur with aging?

A

decrease synovial fluid around joints
cartilage becomes thin
wear and tear
OA is common in age

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59
Q

how does the aging population react to vaccines?

A

less responsive towards them

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60
Q

how does antibodies produce in aging?

A

more antibodies but no rapid increase with the presence of antigens

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61
Q

what is the difference between anorexia and anorexia nervousa?

A

anorexia (stravation due to a medial condition)
anorexia nervousa (self starvation)

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62
Q

what is Gastroesophageal reflux?

A

backwards movement of stomach gastric contents into the espohagus and sometimes the oral cavity

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63
Q

what is the main symptoms of GER?

A

heart burn (pyrosis)

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64
Q

what is Gastroesophageal reflux disease?

A

mucosal damage produced by the abnormal reflux of gastric contents into the esophagus or beyond, into the
oral cavity or the lungs

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65
Q

what is vomitting?

A

sudden or forceful oral explusion of contents of the stomach

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66
Q

what is a common symptoms proceded by anorexia?

A

nausea

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67
Q

what is the difference between type 1 and type 2 diabetes?

A

type 1 ( when the body is unable to produce enough insulin for the bodies need. seen at birth / genetic)
type 2 ( when the body is unable to produce enough insulin for the bodies need. due to diet and poor exercise)

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68
Q

is keotonies seen in type 1 or 2 diabetics?

A

type 1

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69
Q

when would a diabetic need to take insulin injections?

A

when they are type one or 20%-30% of type 2s will take insulin

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70
Q

what are the three most common symptoms of diabetes?

A

polyuria
polyphasia
polydiphisa

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71
Q

what is portal hypertension?

A

incresed pressure within the portal venous system

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72
Q

what type of nerves cannot regenerate their myalin sheath?

A

CNS

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73
Q

what is the difference between spasticity and flaccidity?

A

spasticity (repeattive contraction of muscles)
flaccidity (weakness in muslces or feeling of overstretched muscle)

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74
Q

what is amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)?

A

neurological condition where voluntary motor movement is lost but the indiviuals brain is fully functional
effects UMN and LMN

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75
Q

what are some symptoms of ALS?

A

fasciculations
weakness
muscle atrophy
hyporeflexia
Muscle cramps
slowly progressive weakness and atrophy in distal muscles of one upper extremity

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76
Q

what is a stroke or brain attack?

A

acute neurologic deficit from a vascular disorder that injuries brain tissue an interruption of blood flow in the cerebral vessel due to thrombi or emboli OR
to bleeding into the brain tissue

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77
Q

what are the two types of stroke?

A

ischemic
hemorrhagic

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78
Q

what things can interfer with stroke chances?

A

Cigarette smoking
Alcohol
Birth control pills in combination with smoking risk
Physical inactivity
Obesity
Illicit drug use

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79
Q

what are the types of ischemic stroke?

A

Ischemic Penumbra in Evolving Stroke
Transient Ischemic Attacks
Large Vessel
Small Vessel Strok
Cardiogenic Embolic Stroke

80
Q

what is an ischemic penumbra stroke?

A

a central core of death or dying cells, surrounded by an ischemic band or area of minimally perfused cells called
penumbra (halo stroke)

81
Q

what is a transient stroke?

A

focal ischemic cerebral neurologic deficits that last for less than 24 hours
also known as a mini or TIA stroke

82
Q

what is a large vessle stroke?

A

Most common cause of ischemic strokes. occurs in atherosclerotic blood vessel or plaque build up within blood vessel causing lack of blood flow

83
Q

what is a small vessle stroke?

A

infarcts are located in the deepest, noncortical parts of the brain or in the brain stem. very tiny in size

84
Q

what is a cardiogenic stroke?

A

a moving blood clot that travels from its origin to the brain

85
Q

what is meningitis?

A

inflammation of the pia mater, the arachnoid and CSF filled subarachnoid space. spreads quickly because of the CSF found in the subarachiod space which travels around the brain and spinal cord

86
Q

what is dementia?

A

the loss of cognitive functioning, thinking, remembering, and reasoning to extent that it interferes with a person’s daily life and activities
not considered a common symptom of aging

87
Q

descrobe what ape hand would look like

A

thumb is unable to abduct
digits are hyper flexed at the PIPS

88
Q

what is reflex sympathetic dystrophy?

A

chronic condition described at severe buring in the distal limbs

89
Q

what is bipolar disorder?

A

a mental illness that causes unusual mood swings, enegry changes, activity changes, and more

90
Q

what is bipolar depression?

A

the feeling of extreme sadness, loss of enegry, and hopeless feelings after a manic episode

91
Q

describe the following types of pain:
cutaneous pain
deep somatic pain
visceral pain
referred pain

A

cutaneous pain (sharp, buring pain felt on the skin)

deep somatic pain (diffuse or throbbing pain felt by bones, muscles, and tendons)

visceral pain ( diffuse and poorly defined pain from stretching, distention or ischemia of tissue)

referred pain (pain that originates at on area and felt in another)

92
Q

what are some symptoms of panic disorder?

A

lightheadedness
dizzy
fainting
chest pain
tachycardia
shortness of breath
smothered or choked feeling
sweating
nausea

93
Q

what is generalized anxiety disorder?

A

excessive worrying that is controlled poorly

94
Q

what is obessive compulsive disorder?

A

recurrent obessions and compulsions
most indiviuals realize how unreasonable the rituals are and often become distressed

95
Q

what is social phobia?

A

a general, intense, irrational and persistant fear of being scruntinized or negatively elvaluated by others

96
Q

what are the theroies to pain?

A

gate controlled theory
neuromatrix theory
specificity theory

97
Q

describe the gate controlled theory

A

regards pain as a separate sensory modality evoked by the activity of specfic receptors that trasmit information to pain cneters or regions into the forebrain where pain is felt

98
Q

what is the gate control theory?

A

physical pain is not a direct result of activity of nociceptors but instead a modulated by interaction between neurons

99
Q

wat is the neuromatrix theory?

A

the brain contains a widely distributed neural networks called body-self neuromatrix, that contain somatosensory, limic and thalamocortical components

100
Q

what are some majoy differnece in pain with childern v.s. adults?

A

childern experience and remember pain more then adults
most childern the ages of 8 or older can use a number scale to describe thier pain but childern younger need cartonn or face drawings to describe thier pain

101
Q

what is a primary headache v.s. secondary headaches?

A

primary (the headache is the main condition)
secondary (headache is result of another condition)

102
Q

what is the difference between headaches with and without auras?

A

with auras (when a headcahe has a set warning signs)
without (headaches come on at random)

103
Q

what percentage makes up headaches wiht an aura v.s. without?

A

with (85%)
without (15%)

104
Q

what is another name for pre-headaches?

A

prodrome

105
Q

what is the most common symptoms of headcaches in childern?

A

abdominal pain, nausea, vomitting, throbbing headache, aura, unilteral location, relief from sleep

106
Q

what are cluster headaches?

A

occur for weeks or months followed by headache free remission periods

107
Q

what is the most common type of headache?

A

tension

108
Q

how do you become diganoised with chronic daily headaches?

A

15 days to a month of constant headaches

109
Q

what is osgood schlatter?

A

condition which causes pain and sweling below the knee
common in childern
caused by sports that place repetivite strain on knees

110
Q

what nerve is affected with bellls palsy?

A

CN VII (facial)

111
Q

what kind of fracture are the following:
a direct cut of the bone (straight line)
a diagonal cut of the bone
consist of two or more fragments
the ligaments pulls a portion of the bone

A

a direct cut of the bone (straight line) (TRANSVERSEA)
a diagonal cut of the bone (OBLIQUE)
consist of two or more fragments (COMMINUTED)
the ligaments pulls a portion of the bone (AVULSION)

112
Q

what kind of fractures are the following:
fragments of cartilage are sheared
crushed bone fracture
partically broken and bent bone
gunshhot fracture
due to overuse

A

fragments of cartilage are sheared (OSTEOCHONDRAL)
crushed bone fracture (COMPRESSED)
partically broken and bent bone (GREENSTICK)
gunshhot fracture (PERFORATION)
due to overuse (STRESS)

113
Q

what type of fracture occurs at the distal 1/3 of thr shaft of the radius commonly seen with distal radial-ulnar subluxation or dislocation?

A

galeazzi

114
Q

what type of fracture is near the end of the radius at the wrist and is also known as dinner fork fracture?

A

colles

115
Q

what is a potts fracture?

A

fracture at the ankle involving either malleolus

116
Q

what causes potts fractures?

A

abduction
external rotation
eversion

117
Q

what is the first sign of a common cold?

A

begins with the feeling of dryness and stuffness

118
Q

what some symptoms of a common cold?

A

excessive production of mucus and tearing of the eyes
cleary and watery nasal mucus
red, swollen upper respiartory tract
sore throat
fever (in childern)

119
Q

how is the common cold treated?

A

self limiting for seven days
rest and antipyretic drugs

120
Q

what is the main role of beta blockers?

A

control heart rhythm, treat angina, and reduce high blood pressure.

121
Q

what does SSRI stand for?

A

selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors

122
Q

what happens during the first stage of bone healing bone?

A

hematoma forms around the fracture within 72 hours

123
Q

what happens during the second stage of bone healing bone?

A

inflammatory reaction and osteoblast at the periosteum.
these cells create fibrocartilaginous bridge between the fragment ends

124
Q

what happens during the third stage of healing bone?

A

soft callus and splints are formed
osteoclast starts to take place to clean up dead bones
takes place at the 4th week

125
Q

what happens during the four stage of healing bone?

A

consolidation occurs as the immature bone is changed into mature lamellar bone
still months until the bone can handle normal weight

126
Q

what happens during the fifth stage of healing bone?

A

remodeling and reshaping of the bone

127
Q

what is wolffs law?

A

where a bone responds to mechanical stress by becoming stronger and thicker the more strenuous its function

128
Q

when does chromosomal disorders occur?

A

develop because of defective movement during
meiosis or because of breakage of a chromosome with loss or translocation of genetic material

129
Q

define the following:
osteo
sacroma
chondro
oma

A

osteo (bone)
sacroma (malignant)
chondro (cartilage)
oma (tumour)

130
Q

what happens with heart failure?

A

inability of the heart to keep up with the demands and, failure of the heart to pump blood with normal efficiency

131
Q

what is buergers disease?

A

inflammation of the arteries which leads to thrombis formation

132
Q

what things can lead to hypertension?

A

family history
race
age related increased BP
insulin resistance
high salt intake
smoking
alcohol abuse
stress

133
Q

what microbe is capable of living outside the human body and forms bioflims?

A

bacteria

134
Q

when you catch a disease from the hopsital, its called?

A

nosomial

135
Q

decribve bronchitits?

A

permanent diltation of one or more bronchi placing pressure on others around it

136
Q

what is known as a hole in the heart?

A

artial septal defect

137
Q

what is an adenocarcinoma?

A

grows using invasive crab like extensions on next door tissue

138
Q

what occurs in a complete spinal cord lesion with total loss of function below the lesion?

A

compression of the entire spinal cord fro ischemia and edema

139
Q

what is the gate control theory?

A

there are neutral mechanisums at each level of the spinal column that reduces the flow of information

140
Q

what is responsible for localzing spread of infection?

A

stagnation of flow and blood clotting

141
Q

what is a laceration?

A

break of the skin

142
Q

what is a femoral anteversion?

A

normal for the first 6 years of life and common in girls

143
Q

what is the cause of ostemalcia?

A

calcium and phosphate deficiency in adults

144
Q

what causes rickets?

A

inadequate calcium absorption, impaired minerazlization of bone and vitaminD in childern

145
Q

is acute inflammation hemodynamic?

A

yes

146
Q

does vasoconstriction or vasodilation occur firsrt in the inflammation stage?

A

vasoconstriction

147
Q

what does histamine do for the body?

A

vasodilates capillaries

148
Q

what type of tissue is able to response to injury and regeneration?

A

parenchyaml tissue

149
Q

what cells stop dividing after growth stops?

A

stable

150
Q

what causes wounds to heal with large scars?

A

edges of injured tissue do not contract towards each other

151
Q

what happens during the proliferative phase of healing?

A

building of new tissue and the formation of granulation tissue

152
Q

what is virvulence?

A

disease producing potential

153
Q

do bacteria, fungi, and viruses contain DNA as a genome?

A

yes

154
Q

do bacteria have a nuclues?

A

no

155
Q

what is the convalescent period?

A

course of a disease is contain of infection, repair of damge tissue, and progressive elimination

156
Q

what can varicose veins lead too?

A

venous stasis
congestion
edema
thrombosis

157
Q

does anticogaulants contribute to DVT?

A

no

158
Q

what can increase your chance of TB?

A

HIV infection

159
Q

describe angina pectoris?

A

chest pain due to myocardial ischemia

160
Q

is fragile X syndrome X linked?

A

yes

161
Q

what chemical is capable of causing cancer?

A

carcinogen

162
Q

what are some complications of GERD?

A

anemia and fibours restrictions

163
Q

what condition only effects the mucosa and submucose colon and rectum?

A

ulcerative colitisis

164
Q

what can cause crohns?

A

H.pylori bacterial infection causing duodenal ulceration

165
Q

where would you feel tend with diveticulitits?

A

lower left pain

166
Q

what is associated with portal hypertension?

A

varicose veins

167
Q

what happens with increased resistance to hepatic blood flow?

A

portal hypertension

168
Q

is vascular supply found below spianl cord injuries?

A

no

169
Q

does presence of neuritis effects regeneration?

A

no

170
Q

does SCM contribute to TOS?

A

no

171
Q

does a narrowing of the obturator foremen cause piriformus syndrome?

A

no

172
Q

can compression of the entire spinal cord from ischemia and edema cause loss of function?

A

yes

173
Q

what happens with spasticity?

A

loss of inhibition of alpha motor neurons

174
Q

what is a stroke?

A

general neurological deficit from a vascular disorder

175
Q

what occurs as mild and in the meninges of the brain (self-limiting)?

A

viral meningitis

176
Q

what causes werincke-korsakoff syndrome?

A

alcoholism

177
Q

what are the manifestations of huntingtons disease?

A

chorea
psychological changes
dementia

178
Q

is there treatment for phantom limb pain?

A

yes

179
Q

describe cluster headaches

A

severe onesided pain that comes rapid, builds with intensity for 15min - 3hrs

180
Q

what is responsible for causing pain regarding vascular stage of inflammation?

A

fluid accumlating in the tissue surroudning the injury

181
Q

what is a pathological infection resulting from a weakened immune system?

A

opportunsistic infection

182
Q

what makes soap?

A

osteonecrosis

183
Q

what stops cells producing proteoglyracans during OA?

A

chondrocytes

184
Q

is there an abnormal immune response against synovial membranes with OA?

A

no

185
Q

is impacted exercise necessary for OA?

A

no

186
Q

what are the signs of juvenile rheumatiod arthritis?

A

fever
rash
synovitis
swelling of lymph

187
Q

what are the signs of early SLE?

A

muliple arthralgia and arthritis

188
Q

what are the signs of RA?

A

fatigue
anorexia
general aching
stiff joints

189
Q

what is not used to treat RA?

A

protyoglycans

190
Q

what is caused by progressive swelling and thickness of synovium?

A

stretching of ligaments and joint capsules

191
Q

what is a later complication of RA?

A

bouchards nodes

192
Q

what position od child sit in with femoral anterversion?

A

torsion position

193
Q

what is slipped captial femoral epiphysis?

A

disorder of the growth plate

194
Q

what is the treatment for osgood disease?

A

release tension of quadricpes

195
Q

how do you treat legge calve perthes disease?

A

prevent deformity and maintain femoral head function

Module 8 (12 decks)

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