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Year 2 - Musculoskeletal (DP) > Pathology > Flashcards

Flashcards in Pathology Deck (76):
1

What are some indications for a muscle biopsy?

Evidence of muscle disease:
- Weakness
- Symptoms (Atrophy, Fasciculation)
- Increased CK
Presence of neuropathy (Do nerve biopsy too)
Presence of vasculitis

2

In what disorders is CK high? How do we class high CK?

Dystrophies
200-300 times normal

3

In what disorders is CK intermediate? How do we class intermediate CK?

Inflammatory myopathies
20-30 times normal

4

In what disorders is CK relatively low? How do we class relatively low CK?

Neurogenic disorders
2-5 times normal

5

What can be seen in muscle dystrophy on biopsy?

Variable fibre size
Endomysial fibrosis
Fatty infiltrate + replacement:
- Clear spaces on histology
Myocyte hypertrophy
Fibre splitting
Increased central nuceli

6

Why is segmented necrosis seen in muscle dystophy biopsies?

Parts of individual muscle fibres controlled by different nuclei

7

What are ring fibres?

Striated anulets on histology

8

What are some general pathological features seen in all muscular dystrophies?

Destruction of single fibres
Prolonged
Regeneration of fibres
Fibrosis

9

A 3 year old patient is brought to you by his father. He is concerned about the fact that his son has been walking on his tiptoes a lot and falls a lot when he tries to run. On examination, the boy stands up by walking his hands towards his feet and has swollen 'woody' calves. What is the diagnosis and genetic cause of this disease?

Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy:
- Dystrophin gene mutation
- X linked recessive

10

What are pathogenic features of DMD?

Anchorage of actin to basement membrane
Uncontrolled calcium entry into cells

11

What investigations could be requested in DMD and what would the expected results be?

Serum creatinine phosphokinase:
- Raised
Muscle biopsy:
- Fibre necrosis and phagocytosis
- Regeneration
- Chronic inflammation and fibrosis
- Hypertrophy

12

What is Becker Muscular Dystrophy and how does it differ from DMD?

Essentially a variant of DMD but:
- Later onset
- Slower progress

13

At what age to DMD patients tend to die?

20

14

What tends to cause death in DMD?

Dilated cardiomyopathy

15

How is BMD inherited?

X-Linked recessive

16

'Hatchet-like' face?

Myotonic dystrophy

17

What are the two most common types of myotonic dystrophy?

DM1
DM2

18

How is myotonic dystrophy inherited?

Autosomal dominant:
- Ch19 (DM1)
- Ch3 (DM2)

19

What muscles are affected in the following stages of myotonic dystrophy:
1. Adolescent
2. Late

1. Face and distal limbs
2. Respiratory muscles

20

What are the histological features of myotonic dystrophy?

Atrophy of Type i skeletal muscle fibres
Central nuclei
Fibre necrosis
Fibrofatty replacement

21

What is the immunopathogenesis of polymyositis?

Cell-mediated immune response to muscle antigens:
- CD8+ T cells in endomysium

22

What type of fibre necrosis is seen in polymyositis?

Segmental

23

What are the clinical signs of polymyositis?

Progressive proximal muscle weakness
Pain
Tenderness

24

A patient present with difficult climbing the stairs and brushing her hair. You notice a purple heliotrope rash around her eyes.

Dermatomyositis

25

Where are immune complexes and complement deposited in dermatomyositis?

Within and around muscle capillaries

26

What sort of fibre injury is seen in dermatomyositis?

Perifascicular

27

Why lymphocytes infiltrate the muscle fibres in dermatomyositis?

B cells
CD4+ T cells

28

What is the general histological appearance of a muscle biopsy in neurogenic muscle disorders?

Small, angulated fibres (adults)
Small, round fibres (kids)
Target fibres
Fibre type grouping
Grouped atrophy

29

What causes motor neurone disease?

Progressive degeneration of anterior horn cells

30

What are signs of motor neurone disease?

Denervation atrophy
Fasciculation
Weakness

31

This is an autosomal recessive disorder characterised by degeneration of anterior horn cells in the spinal cord and muscle denervation

Spinal Muscular Atropy (Types 1-4)

32

A 27 year old woman presents to you after she notices her eyelids have been drooping and her eyes appear bulged out. She has felt very tired and has also had difficulty swallowing. She has known Grave's disease.

Myasthenia gravis

33

What is rhabdomyolysis and what does it result in?

Skeletal muscle breakdown:
- Myoglobinuria
- Hyperkalaemia
- Necrosis
- Shock

34

What are the outcomes of rhabdomyolysis?

Acute renal failure
Hypovolaemia
Hyperkalaemia
Metabolic acidosis
Disseminated intravascular coagulation

35

What drugs can commonly induce SLE?

Hydralazine
Pracainamide

36

What type of H/S reactions are the following SLE features?
1. Visceral effects
2. Haematological effects

1. Type iii H/S
2. Type ii H/S

37

Which of the following is not a potential systemic feature of SLE:
- Pericarditis
- Pleuritis
- Pleural effusions
- Splenomegaly
- Oesophageal reflux

Oesophageal reflux

38

A patient presents with abdominal pain and a cough. He has noticed some blood in his stool. He has also noticed some lower back and hip pain, which is worse at night. On examination his BP is 152/83, and there is haematuria. What is the diagnosis? What would you expect to seen on muscle biopsy and what autoantibody might be positive?.

Polyarteritis nodosa:
- Note the mononeuritis multiplex
Biopsy - Fibrinoid necrosis of vessels
pANCA positive

39

What is the basic principle behind scleroderma?

Excessive fibrosis of organs and tissue (collagen)

40

What happens to the skin in scleroderma?

Becomes:
- Tight
- Tethered
Decreased joint movement

41

What causes death in scleroderma?

Renal failure (secondary to malignant hypertension)
Severe respiratory compromise (ILD)
Cor pulmonale
Myocardial fibrosis:
- Cardiac failure
- Arrhythmia

42

What type of tumour is an osteochondroma?

Exostotic:
- Cartilage-capped bony outgrowth on bone surface

43

What are typical features of osteochondromas?

Affects those younger than 20 years
M:F equal
Develops near epiphyses of long bones

44

What are the presumed origin of osteochondromas?

Chondrocytes

45

Where do chondromas/enchondromas arise from?

Medullary cavity:
- Typically metaphyses

46

What sites are commonly affected by chondromas?

Femur
Humerus
Tibia
Hands and feet

47

What may cause multiple chondromas?

Ollier's Disease
Mafucci's Syndrome

48

True of false; Chondromas are more common in men?

True

49

Which of the following is not a histological feature of chondromas:
- Small and round
- Pyknotic
- Inside hyaline cartilage
- Lobulated
- Usually lucent
- Patchy sclerosis

Lobulated

50

What does Marffuci's Syndrome cause?

Multiple enchondromas
Haemangiomas

51

In what is the malignancy risk greater, Ollier's or Marffuci's?

Marffuci's

52

A 14 year old boy presents with a dull pain in his mid thigh. He says the pain is worse at night, but taking ibuprofen usually helps. The lesion is osteoblastic, showen woven body and a central vascular osteoid with a radiolucent nidus.

Osteoid osteoma

53

What is a peripheral sclerotic halo a histological feature of?

Osteoid osteoma

54

Where are chondroblastomas often seen?

In 10-20 year olds
Epiphyses of long bones

55

Describe the radiological appearance of a chondroblastoma

Spherical
Well-defined foci
Can extend into:
- Subarticular bone
- Joint space
- Metaphysis

56

Describe the histological appearance of a chondroblastoma

Closely packed polygonal cells
Immature chondroid
Low mitotic activity
Cytoplasma borders
'Chicken-wire' calcification

57

How do we treat benign bone tumours?

Biopsy
Curettage
Adjuvant liquid nitrogen

58

What cells do giant cell tumours originate from?

Osteoclasts

59

What is the typical presentation of a giant cell tumour?

25-40 year old
Female
Around knee
Painful

60

How does a giant cell tumour appearance radiologically?

Radiolucent
Increased peripheral density -> Soap bubble
Destruction of:
- Medulla
- Cortex
Soft tissue expansion

61

Treatment of a giant cell tumour

Surgical resection:
- Curettage
- Intralesion excision
- en bloc resection
Destroy remaining material:
- Phenol
- Cement
- Liquid nitrogen

62

Where do chordomas aries from?

Notocord remnants:
- Midline tumour
- Often sacral

63

How do chordomas appear macroscopically?

Soft, blue-grey and lobulated
Gelatinous, translucent areas
Capsule
Tracks along nerve roots

64

How do chordomas appear histologically?

Lobules and fibrous septa
Eosinophilic cytoplasm
Prominent mucus vacuoles
All of these push the nuclei to the side

65

'Sunray' spiculation

Osteosarcoma

66

What is the commonest primary malignant bone tumour?

Osteosarcoma

67

How does an osteosarcoma arise?

Malignant osteoblasts make osteoid

68

What condition may an older person possess that predisposes them to osteosarcomas?

Paget's

69

Where are osteosarcomas commonly found?

Ends of long bones:
- Femur (distal)
- Proximal tibia
- Proximal humerus

70

How to osteosarcomas appear histologically?

Osteoid
Nuclear atypia
Hyperchromasia
High mitotic rate

71

What are the three types of osteosarcomas?

Osteoblastic
Chondroblastic
Fibroblastic

72

Which of the following is not a feature of chondrosarcomas?
- Popcorn calcification on x-ray
- 3rd most common malignant tumour
- Due to malignant chondrocytes
- Obliterates marrow
- Nodules separated by fibrous bands

3rd most common:
- It is actually the 2nd most common malignant bone tumour

73

What cancers metastasise to bones as osteolytic secondary tumours?

Thyroid
Breast
Lung (SCLC)
Kidney

74

What cancer metastasises to bones as osteosclerotic secondary tumours?

Prostate

75

What is a multiple myeloma?

Malignant B cell proliferation in bone marrow

76

What can multiple myeloma cause?

Renal failure
Axial bone destruction