pathology heart-chapter 12 Flashcards

(49 cards)

1
Q

what disease is defined as chest pain that arises with exertion or emotional stress, but no pain at rest

A

stable angina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is the hallmark for reversible injury to myocytes

A

cellular swelling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is the clinical presentation of stable angina

A

chest pain (less than 20 minutes) that radiates to left arm or jaw; diaphoresis; SOB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what does the EKG show in stable angina

A

S-T segmenet depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is unstable angina due to

A

rupture of atherosclerotic plaque with thrombosis and incomplete occlusion of a coronary artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is prinzmetal angina due to

A

coronary artery vasospasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is the clinical presentation of MI

A

severe crushing chest pain (greater than 20 minutes), that radiates to left arm or jaw; diaphoresis, dyspnea, and symptoms are NOT relieved by NG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what part of the heart is mostly involved in MI

A

LV; RV and both atria are generally spared

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

how long after infarction does troponin I increase

A

2-4 hrs; peaks at 24 hours; returns to normal after 7-10 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what do you use to detect infarction days after MI

A

CK-MB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is occurring less than 4 hours after infarction

A

cariogenic shock,, CHF, arrhythmia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is occur 4-24 hours after infarction

A

gross change (dark discoloration), micro change (coagulative necrosis), complication is arrhythmia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is occurring 1-3 days after infarction

A

gross change (yellow pallor), micro (neutrophils), complication is fibrinous pericarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is occurring 4-7 days after infarction

A

yellow pallor, macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is occurring 1-3 wks after infarction

A

red border; granulation tissue with plump fibroblasts, collagen and blood vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what should you think of when you see heart failure cells

A

left-sided heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is right sided heart failure most commonly due to

A

left-sided heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what type of shunt do VSDs result in

A

L-to-right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is the most common congenital heart defect

A

VSD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is the most common ASD

A

ostium secundum

21
Q

what is an important complication of ASD

A

paradoxical emboli

22
Q

what infection is associated with PDA

A

congenital rubella

23
Q

describe the murmur with PDA

A

machine-like murmur

24
Q

what is the tetralogy of fallot

A

stenosis of RV outflow tract, RV hypertrophy, VSD, overriding aorta

25
what disorder in the mother is transposition of great vessels associated with
maternal diabetes
26
what is the early presentation with truncus arteriosus
early cyanosis
27
what is the JONES criteria for
rheumatic fever
28
what does JONES stand for
Joint, pericarditis (heart-O), nodules (subcutaneous), erythema marginatum, sindenhemps (in muscle) coria
29
what should you think of with ashore body
pancarditis of acute rheumatic fever
30
what valve is most likely involved in chronic rheumatic valvular disease
mitral valve
31
what should you think of with fish-mouth appearance of valve
chronic rheumatic valvular disease
32
what is defined as back flow of blood from aorta into LV during diastole
aortic regurgitation
33
what is mitral regurgitation usually due to
complication of MVP
34
what is the most common overall cause of endocarditis
S. viridan's
35
what is the most common cause of endocarditis in IV drug users
S. aureus
36
what is the most common cause of endocarditis in prosthetic valves
S. epidermidis
37
what should you think of with laneway lesions and osler nodes
endocarditis
38
what endocarditis is associated with SLE
libman-sacks endocarditis
39
what is the result of libman sacks endocarditis
mitral regurgitation
40
what genetic mutation is associated with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
mutations in sarcomere proteins
41
what is a common cause of sudden death in young athletes
hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
42
how does restrictive cardiomyopathy present
CHF
43
what is a benign mesenchymal proliferation with a gelatinous appearance (cardiac tumor)
myxoma
44
what is the most common primary cardiac tumor in adults
myxoma
45
what is a benign hamartoma of cardiac muscle
rhabdomyoma
46
what is the most common primary cardiac tumor in kids
rhabdomyoma
47
what is rhabdomyoma associated with
tuberous sclerosis
48
where does rhabdomyoma usually arise
ventricles
49
what are common metastases to the heart
breast and lung carcinoma, melanoma and lymphoma