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RTT PREP > Patient Care > Flashcards

Patient Care Flashcards

1
Q

Due to an illness, the patient’s left side is weak. The therapist should:

A
Lift the patient carefully onto the table
B
Let the patient manage without assistance
C
Position the right side closer to the table
D
Position the left side closer to the table

A

C
Position the right side closer to the table

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2
Q

A patient has disseminated cancer, what is the best mode of treatment?
A
Radiation
B
Watch and wait
C
Chemotherapy
D
Surgery

A

C
Chemotherapy

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3
Q

Benign tumors are only dangerous to the patient if they
A
Are numerous in number and location
B
Pressing on critical organs
C
Are not completely excised
D
Are left untreated

A

B
Pressing on critical organs

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4
Q

A malignant tumor may spread to distant parts of the body through local invasion
A
True
B
False

A

B
False

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5
Q

General physical wasting and malnutrition due to a disease:
A
Anorexia
B
Cachexia
C
Anemia
D
Hypoxia

A

B
Cachexia

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6
Q

Etiology is defined as
A
The study of what causes a disease
B
The study of who gets a disease
C
The study of how many people get a disease
D
The study of screening tools for a disease

A

A
The study of what causes a disease

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7
Q

Tumor grade measures spread of cancer
A
True
B
False

A

B
False
The grade of a tumor provides information about its aggressive- ness and is based on the degree of differentiation.

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8
Q

What precautions would be taken for a patient with tuberculosis?
A
Standard
B
Contact
C
Droplet
D
Airborne

A

D
Airborne

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9
Q

Which type of consent is typical for emergency situations?
A
Written consent
B
Verbal consent
C
Implied consent
D
Inadequate consent

A

C
Implied consent

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10
Q

A document that defines the patient’s health care choices when they are terminally sick:
A
Health Care Proxy
B
Patient’s Bill of Rights
C
Living Will
D
Express Consent

A

C
Living Will

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11
Q

Sedating a patient for his or her treatment without a doctor’s order is an example of:
A
Negligence
B
False Imprisonment
C
Slander
D
Battery

A

B
False Imprisonment

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12
Q

Which is the correct order of the grieving process as defined by Dr. Elizabeth Kubler-Ross?
A
Anger, Denial, Bargaining, Depression, Acceptance
B
Depression, Bargaining, Denial, Anger, Acceptance
C
Denial, Depression, Bargaining, Anger, Acceptance
D
Denial, Anger, Bargaining, Depression, Acceptance

A

D
Denial, Anger, Bargaining, Depression, Acceptance

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13
Q

The stage of grieving that can be exemplified by a person mourning their life prior to disease and appears more quiet is most likely:
A
Depression
B
Anger
C
Denial
D
Acceptance

A

A
Depression

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14
Q

At least how much bone marrow must be within radiation treatment field for bone marrow depression to occur?
A
10%
B
25%
C
50%
D
80%

A

B
25%

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15
Q

Which of the following is considered a vector?
A
Animal
B
Food
C
Water
D
Medication

A

A
Animal

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16
Q

An infection caused by a dog bite would be considered:
A
Airborne
B
Droplet
C
Vehicle borne
D
Vector borne

A

D
Vector borne

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17
Q

Which of the following are considered pathogens?
A
Bacteria
B
Fungi
C
Viruses
D
Parasites
E
All of the above

A

E
All of the above
Bacteria
Fungi
Viruses
Parasites

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18
Q

Which of the following is a common symptom of orthostatic hypotension?
A
Dizziness or lightheadedness
B
Rapid breathing
C
Elevated body temperature
D
Muscle stiffness

A

A
Dizziness or lightheadedness

Orthostatic Hypotension - a form of low blood pressure that happens when standing up from sitting or lying down.

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19
Q

Which of the following is NOT a reservoir of infection?
A
Healthcare worker
B
Patient
C
Protozoa
D
Water

A

C
Protozoa

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20
Q

What is needed for indirect contact to occur?
1. Vector
2. Vehicles
3. Droplets
4. Fomites
A
1 & 2
B
1 & 3
C
2 & 3
D
1, 2 & 4

A

D
1, 2 & 4

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21
Q

Influenza spreads mainly through which method of transmission?
A
Direct contact
B
Indirect contact
C
Droplet
D
Airborne

A

C
Droplet

Influenza - flu

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22
Q

The term used for a heartbeat lower than the average rate is:
A
Hypovolemic
B
Hypervolemic
C
Bradycardia
D
Tachycardia

A

C
Bradycardia

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23
Q

Which of the following would be MOST likely used for a patient receiving radiation to the head and neck and is having difficulty eating?
A
Ileostomy
B
NG Tube
C
PEG Tube
D
Catheter

A

C
PEG Tube

NG TUBE (Nasogastric Intubation; through nose)

Ileostomy (intestinal waste passes out of the ileostomy and is collected in a external colostomy bag)

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24
Q

Pain, numbness, dysphagia, dyspnea, difficulty sleeping and lack of appetite are examples of
A
Subjective findings
B
Objective findings

A

A
Subjective findings (Subjective data is considered a symptom because it is something the patient reports)

Objective findings (medical evidence means signs, laboratory findings, or both, from a medical source)

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25
Q

During a physical exam, striking or tapping the patient gently in order to see if there is pain in underlying tissue or cause vibration is known as
A
Palpation
B
Percussion
C
Auscultation
D
Inspection

A

B
Percussion

Palpation (Examination by pressing on the surface of the body to feel the organs or tissues underneath.)

Auscultation (is a method used to listen to the sounds of the body during a physical examination by using a stethoscope.)

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26
Q

Which of the following are NOT sterile areas in a surgical room?
(Select all that apply)
A
From the waist up
B
From the waist down
C
Person’s back
D
Person’s front

A

B
From the waist down
C
Person’s back

27
Q

Which of the following PPE should be put on first?
A
Gloves
B
Goggles
C
Gown
D
Mask

A

C
Gown

28
Q

Which of the following PPE should be put on last?
A
Gloves
B
Goggles
C
Gown
D
Mask

A

A
Gloves

29
Q

Which blood test is specific to prostate health and is commonly used to screen for prostate cancer?
A
CBC
B
BUN
C
PSA
D
TSH

A

C
PSA

CBC (Complete Blood Count)
TSH (Thyroid Stimulating Hormone)(Test)
BUN (Blood Urea Nitrogen test) *kidney checks for creatinine

30
Q

Which of the following PPE should be removed first?
A
Gloves
B
Goggles
C
Gown
D
Mask

A

A
Gloves

31
Q

Which of the following PPE should be removed last?
A
Gloves
B
Goggles
C
Gown
D
Mask

A

D
Mask

32
Q

If a test can detect cancer at very early stages it is:
A
Sensitive
B
Specific
C
Detailed
D
Screening

A

A
Sensitive

33
Q

If a test can detect a particular type of cancer it is:
A
Sensitive
B
Specific
C
Detailed
D
Screening

A

B
Specific

34
Q

Which type of contrast media is most commonly used for gastrointestinal imaging studies?
A
Barium sulfate
B
Iodinated contrast
C
Gadolinium
D
Carbon dioxide

A

A
Barium sulfate

35
Q

The blood cell that helps form clots:
A
Red blood cell
B
White blood cell
C
Hemoglobin
D
Platelets

A

D
Platelets

36
Q

A tumor marker test for testicular cancers is:
A
CA-125
B
PSA
C
HCG
D
AFP

A

C
HCG

CA-125 (Ovarian Cancer)

37
Q

The stage of an ARS when the patient experiences no symptoms is:
A
Prodromal
B
Latent
C
Manifest
D
Recovery

A

B
Latent

Prodromal (refers to the early stage and symptoms of any condition)
Manifest (there symptoms depends on the specific syndrome and last for hours up to several months)

38
Q

Which of the following is an example of a vector?
A
A fly
B
A needle
C
A contaminated table
D
A healthcare worker

A

A
A fly

39
Q

Which of the following is an example of a portal of exit?
A
A wound
B
A respiratory tract
C
A fomite
D
A vector

A

B
A respiratory tract

40
Q

A tumor marker test for liver cancers is:
A
CA-125
B
PSA
C
AFP
D
HCG

A

C
AFP

Alpha Fetoprotein

41
Q

Which of the following is an example of a fomite?
A
Mosquito
B
Contaminated eye shield
C
Airborne droplets
D
New Choice
E
Direct contact

A

B
Contaminated eye shield

42
Q

Which blood test is used to asses kidney function and measure the level of nitrogenous waste products in the blood?
A
CBC
B
BUN
C
PSA
D
TSH

A

B
BUN

43
Q

Which of the following imaging types can be used for image guidance biopsies?
A
Ultrasound
B
CT
C
MRI
D
All of the above

A

D
All of the above

44
Q

A tumor margin that signifies cancer is not found around the tumor is:
A
Positive
B
Negative
C
Close
D
Specific

A

B
Negative

45
Q

The stage of an ARS when the patient experiences nausea and vomiting is:
A
Prodromal
B
Latent
C
Manifest
D
Recovery

A

A
Prodromal

46
Q

Which type of contrast media is most commonly used in magnetic resonance imaging?
A
Barium sulfate
B
Iodinated contrast
C
Gadolinium
D
Carbon dioxide

A

C
Gadolinium

47
Q

Which type of contrast media is most commonly used in CT imaging for blood vessels?
A
Barium sulfate
B
Iodinated contrast
C
Gadolinium
D
Carbon dioxide

A

B
Iodinated contrast`

48
Q

Where should your Blood Urea Nitrogen(BUN) be at before getting contrast?
A
6 - 24 mg/dL
B
0.74 - 1.35 mg/dL
C
0.59 - 1.04 mg/dL
D
over 60

A

A
6 - 24 mg/dL

49
Q

Where should your Creatinine as a man be at before getting contrast?
A
6 - 24 mg/dL
B
0.74 - 1.35 mg/dL
C
0.59 - 1.04 mg/dL
D
over 60

A

B
0.74 - 1.35 mg/dL

50
Q

Where should your Creatinine as a woman be at before getting contrast?
A
6 - 24 mg/dL
B
0.74 - 1.35 mg/dL
C
0.59 - 1.04 mg/dL
D
over 60

A

C
0.59 - 1.04 mg/dL

51
Q

Where should your Estimated Glomerular Filtration Rate(eFGR) be at before getting contrast?
A
6 - 24 mg/dL
B
0.74 - 1.35 mg/dL
C
0.59 - 1.04 mg/dL
D
over 60

A

D
over 60

52
Q

Which imaging modality is most suitable for visualizing soft tissues, such as the brain, spinal cord, and organs?
A
CT
B
MRI
C
PET
D
Radiography

A

B
MRI

53
Q

Which type of precaution is best for immunocompromised patients?
A
Airborne
B
Contact
C
Droplet
D
Reverse

A

D
Reverse

54
Q

Prior to the administration of contrast, blood tests are done to check which organ?
A
Liver
B
Heart
C
Kidneys
D
Brain

A

C
Kidneys

55
Q

What is the first link in the chain of infection?
A
Reservoir
B
Portal of Exit
C
Infectious Agent
D
Portal of Entry

A

C
Infectious Agent

56
Q

Which of the following is the most effective method of sterilization?
A
Chemical disinfection
B
High-level disinfection
Which of the following is the most effective method of sterilization?
C
Steam under pressure (autoclaving)
D
Low-temperature steam and formaldehyde

A

C
Steam under pressure (autoclaving)

57
Q

Which imaging modality involves the injection of a radioactive tracer and provides functional information about the body’s metabolism and physiological processes?
A
CT
B
MRI
C
PET
D
US

A

C
PET

58
Q

Which blood test measures the number of red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets in a sample of blood?
A
Complete Blood Count (CBC)
B
Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN)
C
Prostate-Specific Antigen (PSA)
D
Thyroid-Stimulating Hormone (TSH)

A

A
Complete Blood Count (CBC)

59
Q

Which is an infectious agent in the chain of infection?
A
A mode of transmission
B
A place where the infectious agents can exit the body
C
A susceptible host
D
A microorganism that can cause an infection

A

D
A microorganism that can cause an infection

60
Q

What is the correct compression-to-ventilation ratio for adult CPR?
A
30 compressions to 2 breaths
B
15 compressions to 2 breaths
C
10 compressions to 1 breath
D
5 compressions to 1 breath

A

A
30 compressions to 2 breaths

61
Q

What is the appropriate response for a radiation therapist when a patient shows signs of a diabetic reaction?
A
Give them insulin immediately
B
Offer them high-sugar foods or drinks
C
Call for medical assistance
D
Administer CPR

A

C
Call for medical assistance

62
Q

What is orthostatic hypotension?
A
A sudden increase in blood pressure when changing positions
B
A sudden decrease in blood pressure when changing positions
C
A sudden increase in heart rate when changing positions
D
A sudden decrease in heart rate when changing positions

A

B
A sudden decrease in blood pressure when changing positions

63
Q

A
60-80 compressions per minute
B
100-120 compressions per minute
C
140-160 compressions per minute
D
180-200 compressions per minute

A

B
100-120 compressions per minute

RTT PREP (8 decks)

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