Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

RTT PREP > Practice Exam 2 > Flashcards

Practice Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following defines a Sievert (Sv)
A
100 ergs per gram
B
The SI unit of dose equivalent
C
Absorbed dose
D
The SI unit of exposure

A

B
The SI unit of dose equivalent

A sievert is the SI unit of the dose equivalent. Sievert (Sv) = absorbed dose (Gy) x quality factor (QF)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The photon interaction most likely to occur with bony anatomy during CT simulation is:
A
Compton
B
Pair production
C
Photoelectric
D
Coherent

A

C
Photoelectric

CT simulation uses kV ranges and in kV ranges of photons, photoelectric effect is the most common photon interactions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the therapeutic ratio if the normal tissue tolerance is 10 Gy and the lethal tumor dose is 8 Gy?
A
0.8
B
1.25
C
1.56
D
2.0

A

B
1.25

Therapeutic ratio = normal tissue tolerance/tumor lethal dose = 10/8 = 1.25

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How often should sealed radioactive sources be checked for leaks?
A
3 months
B
6 months
C
1 year
D
2 years

A

B
6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

All of the following can affect absorbed dose EXCEPT:
A
Beam energy
B
Field size
C
Distance from source
D
Air temperature

A

D
Air temperature

Absorbed dose can be affected by beam quality (energy), field size (because of scatter) and SSD (distance from source). Other factors may include depth and tissue type. Air temperature does not affect absorbed dose specifically. Temperature and pressure may affect beam output which would require a correction factor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A unit of exposure in air:
A
Roentgen
B
Rad
C
Curie
D
Rem

A

A
Roentgen

Exposure (Roentgen): measures the total number of ionizations produced by photons and occur in a unit mass of air (C/kg).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which of the following treatment techniques would eliminate tumor motion caused from inspiration and expiration?
A
Rotational therapy
B
Step-and-shoot technique
C
IMRT
D
Gating

A

D
Gating

Respiratory gating techniques can reduce tumor motion by delivering treatments during one breath phase. A common technique seen is DIBH (deep inspiration breath hold).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The annual limit for occupational exposure to the hand is:
A
5 rem
B
15 rem
C
30 rem
D
50 rem

A

D
50 rem

The doses limit for the hand of an occupational worker is 500 mSv or 50 rem.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The device that is best to detect presence of radiation and/or contamination is:
A
Geiger Mueller counter
B
Cutie pie
C
Fricke dosimeter
D
Diode

A

A
Geiger Mueller counter

Geiger-Muller Detector: a portable, handheld, survey meter of radiation. It is not a dose measuring device and cannot distinguish between beam energies, but rather measures a rate of radiation (mR/h or counts per minute cpm). GM counter is used to survey rooms for radiation but doesn’t actually measure the amount of radiation. It is most commonly used to locate sources that have been misplaced.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Lymph drainage from the skin of the scrotum is likely to:
A
Paraaortic nodes
B
Inguinal and iliac nodes
C
Obturator nodes
D
Common iliac nodes

A

B
Inguinal and iliac nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

“Feathering” is a technique use for abutting fields in order to:
A
Prevent overdose to tissues
B
Increase dose to tissues
C
Reduce GTV
D
Account for breathing motion

A

A
Prevent overdose to tissues

Feathering: is a technique used to “blur” this skin gap and further reduce hot or cold spots. This is commonly seen in CSI treatments.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The useful range in tissue of a 10 MeV electron beam is:
A
2.5 cm
B
3 cm
C
5 cm
D
10 cm

A

C
5 cm

The useful range is found by dividing the energy by 2. In this case the beam energy is 10 Mev/2 = 5 cm useful range.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A wedge with a transmission factor of 0.91 means that ______ is attenuated by the beam.
A
0.9%
B
0.91%
C
9%
D
91%

A

C
9%

Transmission factors describe how much of the beam is transmitted through the device. If the factor is 0.91 this equates to 91%. 91% is transmitted and 9% is attenuated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the annual dose limit to the general public (continuous/frequent exposure)?
A
0.1 rem
B
0.5 rem
C
1 rem
D
5 rem

A

A
0.1 rem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

When distance is doubled, radiation intensity is:
A
Reduced by half
B
Reduced by a factor of four
C
Doubled
D
Increased by a factor of four

A

B
Reduced by a factor of fou

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When calculating for shielding for the linear area control room, which is directly monitored by the radiation safety officer, it should be limited to an exposure of:
A
1 mSv/hr
B
10 mSv/hr
C
0.1 mSv/week
D
1 mSv/week

A

C
0.1 mSv/week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

For proper body mechanics, the center of gravity at the _______ when standing.
A
Spine
B
Knees
C
Pelvis
D
Chest

A

C
Pelvis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Radioactive source strength and rate of decay is defined by:
A
Activity
B
Frequency
C
Wavelength
D
Velocity

A

A
Activity

  1. Activity is the rate of decay of the radioactive material. Activity also defines source strength.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The most appropriate sign to hang outside of a patient’s hospital room while receiving an LDR treatment is:
A
High Radiation - Grave Danger
B
Caution: Radioactive Materials
C
Do Not Enter: Radiation Active
D
Caution: High Dose Radiation

A

B
Caution: Radioactive Materials

Caution: Radioactive Materials is the sign used in areas where radioactive sources are used and/or stored. Examples include where patients are treated with HDR or LDR treatments.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Vital signs are:
1. Pulse
2. Respirations
3. Temperature
4. Blood Pressure
A
1, 2, 3
B
1, 2, 4
C
1, 3, 4
D
1, 2, 3, 4

A

D
1, 2, 3, 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

hich of the following is known to cause pulmonary toxicity?
A
Adriamycin
B
Amifostine
C
Bleomycin
D
Cisplatin

A

C
Bleomycin

Bleomycin is a chemotherapy agent known to cause pulmonary toxicity. Adriamycin is known to cause cardiac toxicity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Question 30 of 100
The D in ABCD rule for melanoma stands for:
A
Depth
B
Size
C
Color
D
Shape

A

B
Size

ABCD rule is used to detect melanomas. Asymmetry, uneven Borders, non-uniform Color, and Diameter >6 mm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

5 cm of lead is equivalent to _____ of cerrobend.
A
3.2 cm
B
5.0 cm
C
6.0 cm
D
7.2 cm

A

C
6.0 cm

find the thickness of Cerrobend in comparison to lead, multiply the thickness of lead x 1.21. 5 x 1.21 = 6.05 (rounded to 6 cm).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

CT images are initially acquired in which plane?
A
Coronal
B
Sagittal
C
Axial
D
Orthogonal

A

C
Axial

CT scans are acquired in the axial or transverse plane. The computer will then reconstruct to the coronal and sagittal planes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which of the following is a term that describes a cancer screening test that can detect a tumor in the earliest stages:
A
Sensitive
B
Specific
C
Etiology
D
Epidemiology

A

A
Sensitive (subjective)

A sensitive screening test can indicate a positive test for a disease. There are few false negative results and less chance of the disease being missed. This is helpful for early-stage cancers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

he cells ability to repair is represented as _____ on a dose-response relationship graph.
A
Do
B
D37
C
Dq
D
N

A

C
Dq

On the dose-response relationship graph, cell repair occurs in the shoulder region or Dq (quasithreshold).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Early effects of radiation are seen:
A
Within 6 months
B
After 6 months
C
Within 1 year
D
After 1 year

A

A
Within 6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Cells that divide more rapidly are:
A
More radiosensitive
B
Less radiosensitive
C
Not affected by radiosensitivity

A

A
More radiosensitive

Rapidly dividing cells are more radiosensitive based on the Law of Bergonie and Tribondeau.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

The most common location for hematogenous spread of the pancreas is:
A
Rectum
B
Lung
C
Liver
D
Bone

A

C
Liver

Distant spread of the pancreas (and many other GI organs) is most commonly to the liver.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

MLCs:
1. High atomic number materials
2. Can move independently
3. Provide conformal shaping
4. Acceptable transmission is 5%
A
1 & 2 only
B
2, 3, & 4
C
1, 2, & 3
D
1, 2, 3, & 4

A

C
1, 2, & 3

MLCs are made of tungsten (a material with a high atomic number), move independently creating individualized treatment fields allowing for the beam to be more conformal, and have a transmission rate of 2%.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

When treating pancreatic tumors, which is the most radiosensitive critical structure that would be close to the irradiated field?
A
Kidney
B
Liver
C
Spinal cord
D
Stomach

A

A
Kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

A common staging system used for cancers in the rectum:
A
Ann Arbor
B
Dukes
C
FIGO
D
FAB

A

B
Dukes

Dukes staging system is often used for colorectal tumors.

33
Q

All of the following would be considered regional lymph nodes to the rectum EXCEPT:
A
Internal iliac nodes
B
Inguinal nodes
C
Lateral sacral nodes
D
Azygos node

A

D
Azygos node

Lymph nodes in the rectal region include internal iliac, inguinal and lateral sacral node. The azygos node is a mediastinal lymph node.

34
Q

The photon interaction with an outer shell electron that does not affect the photon’s energy is:
A
Coherent scattering
B
Compton scattering
C
Photoelectric effect
D
Photonuclear reaction

A

A
Coherent scattering

Coherent scattering is a non-ionizing photon interaction with an outer shell electron.

35
Q

Tumors in the esophagus typically have histology of:
A
Squamous
B
Sarcoma
C
Adenocarcinoma
D
Transitional

A

C
Adenocarcinoma

36
Q

The most common histology of the endometrium is:
A
Squamous
B
Adenocarcinoma
C
Spindle cell
D
Transitional

A

B
Adenocarcinoma

37
Q

Which of the following is NOT a fact about electrons?
A
Rapid dose fall off
B
Scatter easily in air
C
Has skin sparing effect
D
Uses linear accelerator for treatment

A

C
Has skin sparing effect

Electron beams have rapid dose fall off, scatter easily in air, and can be treated with linacs. However, electrons treat superficially and do not have the skin-sparing effect like photons do.

37
Q

The melting point of Cerrobend is:
A
98 degrees F
B
165 degrees F
C
210 degrees F
D
300 degrees F

A

B
165 degrees F

Cerrobend has a lower melting point than lead and melts at 74C (165F).

37
Q

Which type of radiation has two protons and two neutrons, is released from an unstable heavy nuclei, and has a high LET?
A
Alpha Particle
B
Beta particle
C
X-Ray
D
Gamma Ray

A

A
Alpha Particle

Alpha particles are considered a helium nucleus (2 protons and 2 neutrons released from an unstable heavy nuclei). Alpha particles have a high LET and create a lot more damage than x-rays.

37
Q

Tumors in the esophagus typically have histology of:
A
Squamous
B
Sarcoma
C
Adenocarcinoma
D
Transitional

A

C
Adenocarcinoma

38
Q

The machine that operates at an energy range of 150-500 kV is known as:
A
Linear accelerator
B
Gamma Knife
C
Orthovoltage
D
Cobalt 60

A

C
Orthovoltage

39
Q

The organ that’s primary function is to filter blood is:
A
Gallbladder
B
Kidney
C
Adrenal gland
D
Thyroid

A

B
Kidney

40
Q

With the collimator at 0, the Y jaw will represent:
A
Superior & inferior treatment borders
B
Lateral borders of the treatment field
C
Orthogonal treatment borders
D
MLC borders

A

A
Superior & inferior treatment borders

When the collimator is positioned at 0, the Y jaws will move in the superior and inferior directions, while the X jaws will move in the lateral directions

41
Q

Which type of radiation penetrates the LEAST in human tissue?
A
Alpha particles
B
Beta particles
C
X-rays
D
Gamma rays

A

A
Alpha particles

Alphaparticles do not travel far in tissue, but create a lot of damage in the path.

42
Q

Beta Particles have a quality factor of:
A
1
B
2
C
3-10
D
20

A

A
1

X-rays, gamma rays, and beta particles have a quality factor of 1.

43
Q

Which portion of a wedge provides the LEAST amount of transmission?
A
Heel
B
Toe
C
Anterior
D
Posterior

A

A
Heel

44
Q

Which energy is most likely used for a whole brain treatment?
A
6 MV
B
15 MV
C
4 MeV
D
9 MeV

A

A
6 MV

The separation of the brain is relatively low so a low photon beam energy can be used. If a higher beam energy is used, then some of the proximal tissues can be missed.

45
Q

Which of the following is NOT involved in the Whipple procedure?
A
Pancreas
B
Gall bladder
C
Liver
D
Small bowel

A

C
Liver

The Whipple Procedure is a surgery to remove tumors in the head of the pancreas and it removes the head of the pancreas (sometimes part of the body of the pancreas), small intestine, part of the bile duct, gall bladder, lymph nodes near the pancreas, and sometimes part of the stomach.

46
Q

Areas that are restricted to 0.02 mSv/week are called:
1. Restricted areas
2. Unrestricted areas
3. Controlled areas
4. Uncontrolled areas
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
1 & 3
D
2 & 4v

A

D
2 & 4v

47
Q

The major difference between x-rays and gamma rays is:
A
LET
B
Penetration in tissue
C
Source
D
Quality

A

C
Source

X-rays and gamma rays have the same LET and quality factors. However, the differentiate in origin or source.

48
Q

Daily variations in patient positioning is accounted for in this treatment volume:
A
Clinical target volume
B
Internal target volume
C
Gross tumor volume
D
Planning target volume

A

D
Planning target volume

The Planning Target Volume (PTV) is the CTV (or ITV if available) plus a margin for any uncertainty of patient motion or setup discrepancies.

49
Q

The most sensitive critical structure to take into consideration when planning for a lung tumor is:
A
Esophagus
B
Kidney
C
Contralateral lung
D
Spinal cord

A

C
Contralateral lung

  1. Lung tissue is the most radiosensitive organ listed according to the TD 5/5 list
50
Q

The hinge angle of parallel opposed fields is:
A
45 degrees
B
90 degrees
C
270 degrees
D
180 degrees

A

D
180 degrees

51
Q

Telling a patient your coworker is not a good therapist is an example of:
A
Libel
B
Slander
C
Battery
D
Assault

A

B
Slander

Slander is the verbal defamation of character.

52
Q

A bone marrow transplant from a sibling is known as:
A
Autologous
B
Allogenic
C
Graft
D
Synonymous

A

B
Allogenic
Allogenic bone marrow transplants replace bone marrow with healthy stem cells from a related donor who is not an identical twin.

Synonymous: (for those with an identical sibling)

Autologous The patient’s own marrow or peripheral blood is used.

53
Q

To create a more homogenous dose distribution when treating with paired fields with a hinge angle less than 180 degrees, we should use a:
A
Wedge
B
Spoiler
C
Compensator
D
Bolus

A

A
Wedge

Wedges are used with hinge angles less than 180 degrees to reduce areas of hot spots and to create a more homogenous dose distribution within the patient.

54
Q

Decreases skin sparing:
1. Bolus
2. Wedge
3. Compensator
4. Beam spoiler
A
1 & 2
B
1 & 4
C
1, 3 & 4
D
1, 2, 3 & 4

A

B
1 & 4

  1. Bolus and beam spoilers are beam modifiers that decrease skin sparing intentionally to treat more superficially.
55
Q

The treatment accessory used for total body irradiation is:
A
Bolus
B
Wedge
C
Compensator
D
Beam spoiler

A

D
Beam spoiler

The beam spoiler is used during total body irradiation to reduce skin sparing.

56
Q

The treatment accessory that was replaced by IMRT
A
Bolus
B
Wedge
C
Compensator
D
Beam spoiler

A

C
Compensator

Compensators help to create a more homogenous dose distribution based on the variety of tissue differences; however, this was mainly replaced by IMRT.

57
Q

What technique(s) could be used to avoid overlap of fields?
1. Beam spoiler
2. Compensators
3. Half-beam block
4. Couch kicks
A
1 & 2
B
2 & 3
C
3 & 4
D
1, 2, 3, 4

A

C
3 & 4

When treating adjacent fields, half-beam blocking or couch rotations to match area of beam divergence can be used to avoid overlap.

58
Q

The main purpose of gaps when treating CSI is to avoid hotspots to this organ at risk:
A
Spinal cord
B
Lung
C
Kidney
D
Superior vena cava

A

A
Spinal cord

CSI (craniospinal irradiation) treatments incorporate skin gap techniques to avoid overlap or hotspots to the spinal cord.

59
Q

Aside from collimating jaws, scatter also occurs with:
A
Patient thickness
B
Flattening filter
C
Bending magnet
D
Dynamic wedges

A

B
Flattening filter

Scatter that contributes to the patient dose can occur with collimating jaws and the flattening filter.

60
Q

A treatment with a wedge would require more MU than the same treatment without the wedge.
A
True
B
False

A

A
True

Wedges naturally “harden” the beam because they absorb some of the useful beam. Therefore, more MU is required.

61
Q

The breast tissue located close to the axilla is called:
A
Areola
B
Cooper’s ligaments
C
Tail of spence
D
IMN

A

C
Tail of spence

Wedges naturally “harden” the beam because they absorb some of the useful beam. Therefore, more MU is required.

62
Q

A rectangular field size measures 22 x 12 cm. What is the equivalent square?
A
12 x 12 cm
B
15.5 x 15.5 cm
C
17.4 x 17.4 cm
D
22 x 22 cm

A

Equivalent square can be found by the equation 2ab/(a+b)= 2x22x12/(22+12) = 15.5 x 15.5 cm

63
Q

What is the minimum testing frequency for leaf position accuracy?
A
Daily
B
Weekly
C
Monthly
D
Annually

A

C
Monthly

64
Q

What is the tolerance for daily photon output constancy?
A
1%
B
2%
C
3%
D
5%

A

C
3%

Daily photon output tolerance is 3%. Monthly tolerances are stricter (2%).

65
Q

Patient A has C. Diff. and the treatment couch was not cleaned after their treatment. Patient B touched the treatment couch and then contracted C. Diff. The treatment couch is considered a:
A
Vector
B
Block
C
Host
D
Fomite

A

D
Fomite

The couch would be the vehicle that transmitted the infectious agent indirectly. Inanimate objects are more specifically called a fomite.

66
Q

What is the dmax for a 9 MeV beam?
A
1.5 cm
B
2.2 cm
C
2.8 cm
D
3.2 cm

A

B
2.2 cm

67
Q

Which of the following is NOT a phase of CML:
A
Chronic
B
Accelerated
C
Blast crisis
D
Latent

A

D
Latent

CML has three stages: chronic, accelerated, and blast crisis.

68
Q

For an SAD treatment, the SSD reads 86 cm. The field size on the patient’s skin measure 8x8cm. What is the field size at the isocenter?
A
5.9 x 5.9 cm
B
6.9 x 6.9 cm
C
9.3 x 9.3 cm
D
10.8 x 10.8 cm

A

C
9.3 x 9.3 cm

Direct proportion. Assume isocenter = 100 cm. 8/86= x/100 =9.3 x 9.3 cm

69
Q

A 3-field rectum is to be treated with a total dose of 250 cGy per fraction. The arrangement is right lateral, PA, & left lateral with field weighting of 2:1:1.5 respectively. What dose will the left lateral field receive in one fraction?
A
55 cGy
B
83 cGy
C
111 cGy
D
250 cGy

A

B
83 cGy

Field weighting: 250 x 1.5/4.5=83 cGy

70
Q

What is the equivalent square of a 24 x 12 cm field that has a blocked area of 9 x 5 cm?
A
6.4 x 6.4 cm
B
12.4 x 12.4 cm
C
15.6 x 15.6 cm
D
16.0 x 16.0 cm

A

C
15.6 x 15.6 cm
Blocked eq. sq. = √((area of open field)-(area of blocked field) ) = √((24 x 12)-(9 x 5) )=15.6 x 15.6 cm

71
Q

What is the hinge angle of a treatment plan with a 15 degree wedge?
A
82.5 degrees
B
120 degrees
C
150 degrees
D
180 degrees

A

C
150 degrees

Hinge angle = 180°-(wedge angle x 2) = 180°-(15 x 2)=150 degrees

72
Q

A patient’s medical record is considered a legal document.
A
True
B
False

A

A
True

73
Q

I-131 has a half-life of 8 days. How many days will it take for the activity to reduce to less than 2%?
A
8 days
B
16 days
C
32 days
D
48 days

A

D
48 days

Determine # of half-lives: 100%/2=50/2=25/2=12.5/2=6.25/2=3.125/2=1.5625 (6 half-lives). 6x8= 48 days

74
Q

After a total dose of 3200 cGy to the parotid, the effect would be:
A
Ulceration
B
Perforation
C
Nerve damage
D
Xerostomia

A

D
Xerostomia

According to TD 5/5, when the parotid gland receives 3200 cGy, the effect is xerostomia.

75
Q

When electrons are used for treatment, what is not being used by the linear accelerator? (choose all that apply)
(Select all that apply)
A
Scattering foil
B
Flattening Filter
C
Bending magnet
D
Target

A

B
Flattening Filter
D
Target

During electron treatments, scattering foil and bending magnets are used. Flattening filters and targets are removed from the beam path.

RTT PREP (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions