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RTT PREP > Practice Exam 5 > Flashcards

Practice Exam 5 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the half-value layer of a material used in radiation therapy?
A
The thickness of the material required to reduce the intensity of the radiation beam by half
B
The thickness of the material required to increase the intensity of the radiation beam by two
C
The time required for the material to decay to half of its original activity
D
The amount of radiation absorbed by the material

A

A
The thickness of the material required to reduce the intensity of the radiation beam by half

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2
Q

What is the first step you should take if you find a patient in cardiac arrest?
A
Check for a pulse
B
Call for help
C
Start chest compressions
D
Administer oxygen

A

B
Call for help

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3
Q

Which of the following is an important consideration when creating an advanced directive?
A
The document should be kept secret from family members to prevent conflict
B
The document should be written in technical medical terminology to ensure accuracy
C
The document should be regularly reviewed and updated as necessary
D
None of the above

A

C
The document should be regularly reviewed and updated as necessary

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3
Q

Which beam modifier is used to shape the beam to match the irregular shape of the tumor?
A
Wedge filter
B
MLC
C
Compensator
D
Bolus

A

B
MLC

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4
Q

Which of the following is an example of indirect contact transmission?
A
Coughing or sneezing
B
Touching contaminated objects
C
Sexual contact
D
Sneezing

A

B
Touching contaminated objects

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5
Q

What is fractionation?
A
The total dose of radiation delivered in multiple treatments over the course of days or weeks
B
The delivery of radiation therapy in a single fraction
C
The number of beams used in radiation therapy
D
The amount of radiation given in each fraction

A

The total dose of radiation delivered in multiple treatments over the course of days or weeks

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6
Q

What is a potential complication of radiation therapy that can affect a patient’s ability to eat and drink normally?
A
Xerostomia
B
Polyuria
C
Hyperglycemia
D
Hypokalemia

A

A
Xerostomia

hypokalemia (low potassium)
polyuria (excessive urination)
hyperglycemia (high blood sugar levels

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7
Q

What is the difference between disinfection and sterilization in the context of infection control?
A
Disinfection kills all microorganisms, while sterilization only kills some
B
Disinfection reduces the number of microorganisms, while sterilization kills all microorganisms
C
Disinfection only kills bacteria, while sterilization kills all microorganisms
D
Disinfection and sterilization are the same thing

A

B
Disinfection reduces the number of microorganisms, while sterilization kills all microorganisms

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8
Q

Which of the following is a type of contrast media that is radiopaque and used in imaging studies of the gastrointestinal tract?
A
Iodinated contrast media
B
Water-soluble contrast media
C
Barium sulfate
D
Non-ionic contrast media

A

C
Barium sulfate

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9
Q

What organ is primarily responsible for removing creatinine from the body?
A
Liver
B
Lungs
C
Pancreas
D
Kidneys

A

D
Kidneys

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10
Q

What stage of TNM staging is characterized by a large tumor that has spread to lymph nodes and other parts of the body?
A
Stage II
B
Stage III
C
Stage IV
D
Stage V
Next

A

C
Stage IV

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11
Q

Which type of contrast media is used for MRI?
A
Iodinated contrast media
B
Barium sulfate
C
Carbon dioxide
D
Gadolinium-based

A

D
Gadolinium-based

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12
Q

Which of the following is an appropriate way to disinfect equipment in radiation therapy?
A
Wiping with a dry cloth
B
Rinsing with water
C
Using a low-level disinfectant spray
D
Using a high-level disinfectant solution

A

D
Using a high-level disinfectant solution

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13
Q

Which laboratory value is an indicator of kidney function?
A
Hemoglobin
B
BUN
C
White blood cell count
D
Platelet count

A

B
BUN

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14
Q

Which of the following is a risk factor for developing severe systemic effects of contrast media?
A
Age over 50 years
B
History of asthma
C
History of hypertension
D
All of the above

A

D
All of the above

Hypertension (high blood pressure)

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15
Q

What’s a potential risk associated with the use of ionic contrast media?
A
Nephrotoxicity
B
Anaphylactic reaction
C
Gastrointestinal perforation
D
All of the above

A

B
Anaphylactic reaction

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16
Q

What is the tolerance dose of the heart?
A
30 Gy
B
40 Gy
C
50 Gy
D
60 Gy

A

B
40 Gy

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17
Q

Which of the following is a viral infection that is associated with cervical cancer?
A
Hepatitis B virus (HBV)
B
Human papilloma virus (HPV)
C
Herpes simplex virus (HSV)
D
Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)

A

B
Human papilloma virus (HPV)

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18
Q

Which of the following radioactive materials is commonly used in brachytherapy?
A
Radium-226
B
Iodine-131
C
Cobalt-60
D
Cesium-137

A

D
Cesium-137 (brachytherapy for cancer of the cervix or uterus)

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19
Q

Which of the following is an example of vector-borne transmission?
A
Contact with infected body fluids
B
Coughing or sneezing
C
Bites from infected insects or animals
D
Touching contaminated object

A

C
Bites from infected insects or animals

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20
Q

Which of the following is a legal document that outlines an individual’s preferences for medical treatment in the event they are unable to communicate those preferences themselves?
A
Living will
B
Healthcare proxy
C
Advanced directive
D
All of the above

A

D
All of the above

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21
Q

Which of the following is a type of machine-produced radiation commonly used in radiation therapy for superficial tumors?
A
Gamma rays
B
Proton beams
C
Electron beams
D
Neutron beams

A

C
Electron beams

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22
Q

What does LET stand for?
A
Linear Energy Transfer
B
Longitudinal Exposure Time
C
Low Energy Therapy
D
Long Exposure Time

A

A
Linear Energy Transfer

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23
Q

What is infiltration during IV administration?
A
The escape of blood from a ruptured blood vessel
B
The leakage of a drug into surrounding tissue during IV administration
C
The hardening of a vein due to repeated IV injections
D
The inflammation of a vein caused by a blood clot

A

B
The leakage of a drug into surrounding tissue during IV administration

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24
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of intensity-modulated radiation therapy (IMRT)?
A
Uses electrons to deliver radiation
B
Delivers constant radiation dose to the entire treatment area
C
Allows for varying radiation intensities within the treatment area
D
Is only used for superficial tumors

A

Allows for varying radiation intensities within the treatment area

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25
Q

Which process helps to generate machine-produced radiation?
A
Radioactive decay
B
Nuclear fission
C
Electron acceleration
D
Nuclear fusion

A

C
Electron acceleration

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26
Q

What is x-ray beam quality?
A
The quantity of x-rays produced by a machine
B
The energy of the x-ray photons in a beam
C
The direction of the x-ray beam
D
The speed at which the x-ray photons travel

A

B
The energy of the x-ray photons in a beam

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27
Q

What is the target material used in a linear accelerator to produce high-energy photons for radiation therapy?
A
Tungsten
B
Lead
C
Cobalt
D
Iron

A

A
Tungsten

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28
Q

What is the speed of light in a vacuum?
A
3 x 10^6 m/s
B
3 x 10^8 m/s
C
3 x 10^10 m/s
D
3 x 10^12 m/s

A

B
3 x 10^8 m/s

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29
Q

What happens to the energy of a photon as its wavelength decreases?
A
The energy decreases
B
The energy remains constant
C
The energy increases
D
It depends on the source of the photon

A

C
The energy increases

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30
Q

How does hypoxia (lack of oxygen in tissue) affect radiation therapy?
A
It has no effect on radiation therapy
B
It decreases the effectiveness of radiation therapy
C
It increases the effectiveness of radiation therapy
D
It causes more side effects from radiation therapy

A

B
It decreases the effectiveness of radiation therapy

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31
Q

If a patient is moved from a distance of 100 cm to 50 cm from the radiation source, how much will the radiation dose increase?
A
The radiation dose will double
B
The radiation dose will quadruple
C
The radiation dose will increase six times
D
The radiation dose will eight times

A

B
The radiation dose will quadruple

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32
Q

Which photon interaction process is responsible for most of the radiation dose to the patient during KV imaging procedures?
A
Compton scattering
B
Photoelectric effect
C
Pair production
D
None of the above

A

B
Photoelectric effect

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33
Q

Which photon interaction process occurs with low-energy photons and involves the incident photon being absorbed completely by an inner-shell electron, which is then ejected from the atom?
A
Compton scattering
B
Pair production
C
Photoelectric effect
D
Photodisintegration

A

C
Photoelectric effect

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34
Q

How many rad is equal to 1 Gray?
A
10
B
100
C
1000
D
10000

A

B
100

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35
Q

What is the SI unit for equivalent dose?
A
Rad
B
Rem
C
RBE
D
Sievert

A

D
Sievert

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36
Q

Which of the following describes a linear dose-response relationship?
A
The response increases proportionally to the dose
B
The response decreases proportionally to the dose
C
The response remains constant regardless of the dose
D
There is no relationship between the response and the dose

A

A
The response increases proportionally to the dose

37
Q

Which of the following radiation units takes into account the biological effects of different types of radiation?
A
Gray
B
Sievert
C
Coulomb per kilogram
D
Becquerel

A

B
Sievert

38
Q

Which of the following is true regarding LET and RBE?
A
High LET radiation has higher RBE than low LET radiation
B
Low LET radiation has a higher RBE than high LET radiation
C
LET and RBE are unrelated
D
LET and RBE have an inverse relationship

A

A
High LET radiation has higher RBE than low LET radiation

39
Q

Which type of radiation is most affected by oxygen enhancement?
A
X-rays
B
Alpha Particles
C
Neutrons
D
Protons

A

A
X-rays

40
Q

Which of the following is a deterministic effect of radiation exposure?
A
Leukemia
B
Lymphoma
C
Cancer
D
Skin erythema

A

D
Skin erythema

Deterministic effects occur when the number of cells lost is sufficiently large and affects the function of the organ. The probability
of the effect is zero below a threshold dose, and the severity of harm also increases above this threshold dose

41
Q

Secondary barriers in radiation therapy treatment rooms are designed to protect against which of the following?
A
Scattered radiation
B
Direct radiation
C
Primary radiation
D
All of the above

A

A
Scattered radiation

42
Q

Which of the following is the primary rationale for using shielding in radiation therapy?
A
To reduce patient dose
B
To protect staff from radiation exposure
C
To reduce scatter radiation
D
All of the above

A

D
All of the above

43
Q

What is the most common type of shielding use in the walls and ceiling of a radiation therapy treatment room?
A
Lead
B
Concrete
C
Steel
D
Aluminum

A

B
Concrete

44
Q

What is the purpose of the detector array in a CT simulation machine?
A
To generate the x-ray beam
B
To record the radiation dose delivered to the patient
C
To receive the x-ray photons after they pass through the patient
D
To calculate the patient’s radiation dose

A

C
To receive the x-ray photons after they pass through the patient

45
Q

What are some examples of ALARA measures in radiation therapy?
A
Use of shielding, reducing exposure time, and increasing distance
B
Increasing exposure time, higher dose rates, decreasing distance
C
Using lower energy photons, increasing mAs, using less shielding
D
Using higher energy photons, increasing kVp, and increasing distance

A

A
Use of shielding, reducing exposure time, and increasing distance

46
Q

What is a restricted area in radiation safety?
A
An area where radiation levels are low and there are no restrictions
B
An area where radiation levels are high and only authorized personnel are allowed
C
An area where radiation levels are moderate and visitors are allowed if they where an OSL
D
An area where patients can wait for treatment

A

B
An area where radiation levels are high and only authorized personnel are allowed

47
Q

Which of the following is true regarding the effect of mAs on patient dose?
(Select all that apply)
A
Increasing mAs will decrease patient dose
B
Increasing mAs will increase patient dose
C
Decreasing mAs will decrease patient dose
D
Decreasing mAs will increase patient dose

A

B
Increasing mAs will increase patient dose
C
Decreasing mAs will decrease patient dose

48
Q

What is the role of a radiation safety officer?
A
To operate radiation therapy equipment
B
To ensure that radiation safety guidelines are followed
C
To measure radiation levels after every treatment
D
To create proper radiation therapy plans using ALARA principles

A

B
To ensure that radiation safety guidelines are followed

49
Q

Which of the following is a recommended practice for personnel monitoring in radiation therapy, according to the NCRP?
A
Monitoring should be done only for workers who are likely to receive high doses of radiation
B
Monitoring should be done regularly for all workers who are expected to receive 10% of effective dose equivalent
C
Monitoring should be done only for workers who handle radioactive sources
D
Monitoring is not necessary in radiation therapy due to the shielding requirements

A

B
Monitoring should be done regularly for all workers who are expected to receive 10% of effective dose equivalent

50
Q

Which of the following is a source of public exposure to ionizing radiation?
A
Nuclear medicine imaging
B
Radioactive waste disposal
C
Cosmic radiation
D
All of the above

A

D
All of the above

51
Q

What is the maximum permissible dose for a member of the public of the US in a year who is not often around radiation sources?
A
1 mSv
B
5 mSv
C
50 mSv
D
100 mSv

A

B
5 mSv

52
Q

Which of the following organs is not part of the digestive system?
A
Liver
B
Pancreas
C
Spleen
D
Stomach

A

C
Spleen

53
Q

According to the NCRP, what is the recommended maximum annual dose limit for occupational exposure to ionizing radiation?
A
5 rem
B
10 rem
C
25 rem
D
50 rem

A

B
10 rem

54
Q

Which of the following is a hallmark feature of Hodgkin lymphoma?
A
Reed-Sternberg cells
B
Bence Jones proteins
C
Starry-sky appearance
D
Hypersegmented neutrophils

A

A
Reed-Sternberg cells

55
Q

What is the function of the waveguide in the linac?
A
To shape and focus the electron beam
B
To produce X-rays
C
To convert electrons to X-rays
D
To increase the energy of the electron beam

A

D
To increase the energy of the electron beam

56
Q

The most common primary brain tumor in adults is:
A
Glioblastoma
B
Meningioma
C
Schwannoma
D
Ependymoma

A

A
Glioblastoma

57
Q

The brainstem consists of which three structures?
A
Medulla oblongata, pons, cerebellum
B
Medulla oblongata, pons, midbrain
C
Pons, midbrain, cerebellum
D
Medulla oblongata, midbrain, cerebellum

A

B
Medulla oblongata, pons, midbrain

Descending order
Midbrain, pons, and medulla oblongata

58
Q

Which of the following lymph node groups is commonly involved in head and neck cancer?
A
Axillary lymph nodes
B
Inguinal lymph nodes
C
Cervical lymph nodes
D
Popliteal lymph nodes

A

C
Cervical lymph nodes

59
Q

Which agency regulates the disposal of radioactive materials in the United States?
A
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
B
Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC)
C
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
D
Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

A

B
Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC)

60
Q

What is the Gross Tumor Volume (GTV) in radiation therapy?
A
The visible tumor on imaging studies
B
The area surrounding the tumor
C
The area where the tumor has spread
D
The area that may contain microscopic disease

A

A
The visible tumor on imaging studies

61
Q

The most common type of head and neck cancer is:
A
Adenocarcinoma
B
Small cell carcinoma
C
Squamous cell carcinoma
D
Neuroendocrine carcinoma

A

C
Squamous cell carcinoma

62
Q

Which of the following is the most common type of breast cancer?
A
Ductal carcinoma in situ
B
Inflammatory breast cancer
C
Invasive ductal carcinoma
D
Lobular carcinoma in situ

A

C
Invasive ductal carcinoma

63
Q

Which of the following parameters in CT simulation is responsible for determining image brightness?
A
mA
B
Slice thickness
C
Window level
D
Window width

A

C
Window level

64
Q

Which of the following is not a risk factor for lung cancer?
A
Smoking
B
Radon exposure
C
Air pollution
D
Alcohol consumption

A

D
Alcohol consumption

65
Q

What is the primary difference between external beam radiation therapy and brachytherapy?
A
External beam radiation therapy is delivered from inside the body, while brachytherapy is delivered from outside the body
B
External beam radiation therapy is delivered from outside the body, while brachytherapy is delivered from inside the body
C
External beam radiation therapy is only used for certain types of cancer, while brachytherapy can be used for any type of cancer
D
External beam radiation therapy is always administered in a single dose, while brachytherapy is administered over several weeks.

A

B
External beam radiation therapy is delivered from outside the body, while brachytherapy is delivered from inside the body

66
Q

Which of the following statements about leukemia is true?
A
Leukemia is a type of lymphoma
B
Leukemia only affects children
C
Leukemia only affects adults
D
Leukemia is a cancer of the white blood cells

A

D
Leukemia is a cancer of the white blood cells

67
Q

Which of the following is a potential complication of breast cancer treatment?
A
Lymphedema
B
Hyperthyroidism
C
Diabetes mellitus
D
Hypertension

A

A
Lymphedema (swelling of lymph node) Lymphedema is most commonly caused by lymph node removal or damage due to cancer treatment.

Hyperthyroidism: overproduction of hormones in the thyroid

Hypertension: also known as high or raised blood pressure,

68
Q

Which grading system is commonly used to grade prostate cancer?
A
Gleason grading system
B
Ann Arbor grading system
C
Nottingham grading system
D
Duke’s grading system

A

A
Gleason grading system

69
Q

Which staging system is used for ovarian cancer?
A
Gleason
B
Nottingham
C
FIGO
D
TNM

A

C
FIGO

70
Q

What does the “T” in TNM staging stand for?
A
Tumor size
B
Tumor grade
C
Tumor type
D
Tumor location

A

A
Tumor size

71
Q

What is the purpose of image-guided radiation therapy (IGRT)?
A
To deliver radiation in multiple small doses over a longer period of time
B
To deliver a high dose of radiation to a specific area while minimizing damage to surrounding healthy tissue
C
To track the position of the tumor before treatment and adjust the patient position as needed
D
To monitor the surface of the patient during treatment

A

C
To track the position of the tumor before treatment and adjust the patient position as needed

72
Q

How does beam energy effect radiation therapy?
A
Higher energy beams penetrate deeper into the body
B
Higher energy beams have less skin sparing
C
Lower energy beams penetrate deeper into the body
D
Lower energy beams have more skin sparing

A

A
Higher energy beams penetrate deeper into the body

73
Q

What does the “N” in TNM staging stand for?
A
Nerve involvement
B
Lymph node involvement
C
Tumor necrosis
D
Tumor nodularity

A

B
Lymph node involvement

74
Q

What is the difference between IMRT and VMAT?
A
IMRT fields are stationary, while VMAT fields move around the patient
B
VMAT fields are stationary, while IMRT fields move around the patient
C
IMRT fields use moving MLCs, while VMAT uses stationary MLCs
D
VMT fields use moving MLCs, while IMRT uses stationary MLCs

A

A
IMRT fields are stationary, while VMAT fields move around the patient

75
Q

What is the main purpose of intensity-modulated radiation therapy (IMRT)?
A
To deliver a high dose of radiation to a specific area while minimizing damage to surrounding healthy tissue
B
To deliver radiation in multiple small doses over a longer period of time
C
To deliver a lower dose of radiation to a larger area to prevent cancer from spreading
D
To deliver radiation in a single high dose to eliminate cancer cells quickly.

A

A
To deliver a high dose of radiation to a specific area while minimizing damage to surrounding healthy tissue

76
Q

What does SGRT stand for?
A
Surface Guided Radiation Therapy
B
Stereotactic Guided Radiation Therapy
C
Systematic Guided Radiation Therapy
D
Symptomatic Guided Radiation Therapy

A

A
Surface Guided Radiation Therapy

77
Q

Which of the following imaging techniques is commonly used to show cross-sectional images?
A
X-ray
B
MRI
C
CT
D
PET

A

B
MRI
C
CT

78
Q

What is the purpose of classifying radiation areas?
A
To limit the amount of radiation exposure to personnel and the public
B
To determine which areas need to be cleaned more frequently
C
To ensure disposal of radioactive materials
D
To limit who can enter the hospital

A

A
To limit the amount of radiation exposure to personnel and the public

79
Q

Which type of contrast media is used for imaging blood vessels in CT simulation?
A
Iodinated contrast media
B
Barium sulfate
C
Gadolinium-based
D
Carbon dioxide

A

A
Iodinated contrast media

80
Q

Which lymph node group is commonly involved in lung cancer metastasis?
A
Axillary lymph nodes
B
Inguinal lymph nodes
C
Mediastinal lymph nodes
D
Cervical lymph nodes

A

C
Mediastinal lymph nodes

81
Q

Which of the following might be a main risk of using iodinated contrast?
(Select all that apply)
A
Allergic reaction
B
Kidney damage
C
Liver damage
D
Heart damage

A

A
Allergic reaction
B
Kidney damage

82
Q

What is gating in radiation therapy?
A
The use of metal shields to protect healthy tissue from radiation
B
The use of a device to measure radiation dose during treatment
C
The process of adjusting the position of the radiation beam during treatment
D
The use of a breathing device to monitor patient respiration during treatment

A

D
The use of a breathing device to monitor patient respiration during treatment

83
Q

The spinal cord ends at which vertebral level in adults?
A
L1-L2
B
L2-L3
C
L3-L4
D
L4-L5

A

A
L1-L2

84
Q

What is the purpose of using a window width in a CT simulation?
A
To determine the thickness of the slice
B
To determine the orientation of the slice
C
To determine the range of CT numbers displayed
D
To determine the amount of contrast media used

A

C
To determine the range of CT numbers displayed or the contrast on a CT Image

The effect of a wide window will decrease contrast media

85
Q

What is the main difference between kV imaging and MV imaging in a LINAC?
A
The energy of the photons used
B
The number of photons used
C
The imaging duration
D
Only kV imaging can be used for IGRT

A

A
The energy of the photons used

86
Q

What is the total target dose in radiation therapy?
A
The dose given in a single treatment session
B
The dose given at the end of each week of treatment
C
The dose given at the start of each week of treatment
D
The cumulative dose delivered over the entire treatment course

A

D
The cumulative dose delivered over the entire treatment course

87
Q

Which of the following are true about SSD and SAD?
(Select all that apply)
A
SSD is the distance from the source to the surface of the patient, while SAD is the distance from the source to the axis of rotation
B
SSD is the distance from the source to the axis of rotation, while SAD is the distance from the source to the surface of the patient
C
SSD would require TMR for MU calculations, while SAD would require SSD for MU calculations
D
SSD would require PDD for MU calculations, while SAD would require TMR for MU calculations

A

A
SSD is the distance from the source to the surface of the patient, while SAD is the distance from the source to the axis of rotation
D
SSD would require PDD for MU calculations, while SAD would require TMR for MU calculations

88
Q

Which beam modifier is used near the source of radiation to deliver a more uniform dose to the target volume while accounting for tissue inhomogeneities?
A
MLC
B
Compensator
C
Bolus
D
Beam spoiler

A

B
Compensator

89
Q

What is the Clinical Target Volume (CTV) in radiation therapy?
A
The visible tumor on imaging studies
B
The area surrounding the tumor
C
The area that may contain microscopic disease
D
The area where the tumor has spread

A

C
The area that may contain microscopic disease

90
Q

Which beam modifier is used to increase the dose to the skin surface and shallow tumors?
A
Wedge filter
B
MLC
C
Bolus
D
Compensator

A

C
Bolus

RTT PREP (8 decks)

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