periop practice Flashcards

(40 cards)

1
Q
  1. What is the primary goal of preoperative teaching? A. Decrease length of hospital stay B. Prevent post-op complications C. Reduce anesthesia use D. Promote early discharge
A

B

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2
Q
  1. (SATA) Components of the preoperative checklist include: A. Consent signed B. Jewelry removed C. Last oral intake recorded D. Start antibiotics after surgery | A, B, C
A
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3
Q
  1. The main focus during intraoperative care is: A. Pain management B. Infection prevention C. Airway management and patient safety D. Family education
A

C

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4
Q
  1. Which factor increases a surgical patient’s risk for complications? A. Age 30 B. Obesity C. Hemoglobin 15 g/dL D. No medication use
A

B

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5
Q
  1. Informed consent must be obtained by: A. The nurse B. The surgeon C. The anesthesiologist D. A family member
A

B

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6
Q
  1. (SATA) Which actions are within the circulating nurse’s role? A. Monitor sterile field B. Document intraoperative care C. Count sponges D. Assist with anesthesia | A, B, D
A
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7
Q
  1. A patient is NPO before surgery mainly to reduce risk of: A. Dehydration B. Aspiration C. Hypertension D. Hypoglycemia
A

B

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8
Q
  1. After surgery, the priority assessment is: A. Pain level B. Surgical dressing C. Airway patency D. Mobility | C
A
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9
Q
  1. During moderate sedation, the patient should be: A. Completely unconscious B. Able to respond to verbal stimuli C. On mechanical ventilation D. NPO for 48 hours post-op | B
A
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10
Q
  1. The purpose of incentive spirometry postoperatively is to: A. Strengthen abdominal muscles B. Prevent atelectasis C. Reduce nausea D. Promote wound healing
A

B

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11
Q
  1. (SATA) Early signs of hypoxia in the post-op client include: A. Restlessness B. Confusion C. Bradycardia D. Cyanosis | A, B
A
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12
Q
  1. What is the best indicator of return of bowel function after surgery? A. Absence of nausea B. Flatus C. Abdominal pain D. Clear vomit
A

B

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13
Q
  1. The scrub nurse is responsible for: A. Circulating sterile equipment B. Maintaining sterile technique C. Documenting vital signs D. Talking with family members
A

B

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14
Q
  1. When should a pre-op antibiotic ideally be administered? A. 1 hour before incision B. At the end of surgery C. After anesthesia wears off D. Morning of discharge
A

A

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15
Q
  1. What is the purpose of a “time-out” in surgery? A. Allow staff to rest B. Verify correct patient, procedure, and site C. Prepare instruments D. Begin anesthesia | B
A
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16
Q
  1. (SATA) Post-op interventions to prevent DVT include: A. Early ambulation B. SCD (sequential compression devices) C. High Fowler’s position D. Anticoagulant therapy | A, B, D
A
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17
Q
  1. Priority action if the patient vomits post-anesthesia: A. Administer pain meds B. Suction airway C. Give PO fluids D. Lower the bed flat
18
Q
  1. Which action by the nurse reduces surgical site infections? A. Shaving hair the night before surgery B. Administering prophylactic antibiotics on time C. Giving high-dose steroids pre-op D. Keeping wounds dry at all times
19
Q
  1. A patient with latex allergy is scheduled for surgery. Priority intervention? A. Schedule surgery first case of the day B. Delay surgery 24 hours C. Administer diphenhydramine 12 hours pre-op D. Remove IV line
20
Q
  1. What indicates readiness for discharge from PACU? A. Pain score B. Oxygen saturation > 92% C. IV fluids completed D. No urinary catheter
21
Q
  1. (SATA) Common post-op complications include: A. Hemorrhage B. Infection C. Atelectasis D. Hypokalemia | A, B, C
22
Q
  1. If a patient’s blood pressure drops significantly post-op, first action? A. Notify surgeon B. Reassess blood pressure C. Increase IV fluids per protocol D. Administer a vasopressor | B
23
Q
  1. Surgical consent must be obtained: A. Before sedatives are administered B. After sedatives C. On the way to the OR D. After the surgery
24
Q
  1. What is the first sign of malignant hyperthermia during surgery? A. Increased blood pressure B. Muscle rigidity C. Cyanosis D. Hypothermia
25
25. Which medication is given to treat malignant hyperthermia? A. Atropine B. Dantrolene C. Epinephrine D. Naloxone
B
26
26. (SATA) Signs of wound infection include: A. Redness B. Swelling C. Drainage D. Decreased temperature | A, B, C
27
27. What should the nurse monitor after spinal anesthesia? A. Respiratory depression B. Hypertension C. Diuresis D. Hyperglycemia
A
28
28. When should patient teaching ideally be started? A. Pre-op period B. After anesthesia wears off C. Day of surgery D. After discharge
A
29
29. If a patient refuses surgery after signing consent, the nurse should: A. Force them to go B. Notify the surgeon C. Call anesthesia D. Ignore and proceed | B
30
30. The Aldrete score assesses: A. Bowel function B. Recovery from anesthesia C. Urinary output D. Risk for infection
B
31
31. (SATA) Immediate post-op nursing priorities include: A. Airway B. Breathing C. Circulation D. Pain score | A, B, C
32
32. Prolonged immobility increases risk for: A. Bradycardia B. DVT C. Hypothermia D. Infection
B
33
33. What is the best position for a conscious patient recovering from anesthesia? A. Supine with pillow B. Side-lying C. Trendelenburg D. High Fowler's
B
34
34. Priority if a surgical dressing is saturated with blood: A. Remove dressing B. Reinforce dressing and notify surgeon C. Apply ice pack D. Loosen dressings completely
B
35
35. A urinary output less than ____ mL/hr may indicate renal compromise post-op: A. 15 B. 30 C. 50 D. 75
B
36
36. If a post-op patient has absent bowel sounds, first action: A. Insert NG tube B. Notify provider C. Ambulate the patient D. Withhold oral intake | D
37
37. (SATA) Risk factors for delayed wound healing include: A. Diabetes B. Smoking C. Obesity D. Youth | A, B, C
38
38. An early sign of hemorrhage post-op is: A. Hypertension B. Tachycardia C. Warm skin D. Oliguria
B
39
39. Which electrolyte is most critical to monitor after major surgery? A. Potassium B. Chloride C. Phosphate D. Bicarbonate
A
40
40. Normal wound drainage immediately post-op is expected to be: A. Purulent B. Serosanguineous C. Green D. Thick yellow
B