HTN practice

Question 1

1. What is hypertension (HTN)?
   A. Narrowing of coronary arteries
   B. Elevation of blood pressure due to increased CO or SVR
   C. Reduced systemic vascular resistance
   D. Decreased preload

Answer 1

B

Question 2

2. Primary hypertension is characterized by:
   A. An underlying disease process
   B. Idiopathic elevation of BP
   C. Acute stress reaction
   D. Renal artery stenosis

Answer 2

B

Question 3

3. Secondary hypertension results from:
   A. Unknown cause
   B. Lifestyle factors alone
   C. Anxiety, preeclampsia, tumors
   D. High sodium diet

Answer 3

C

Question 4

4. (SATA) Which are common risk factors for HTN?
   A. Smoking
   B. Male gender
   C. Vegetarian diet
   D. Obesity

Answer 4

A, B, D

Question 5

5. Hypertension is called the “silent killer” because:
   A. It causes sudden cardiac death
   B. It often has no symptoms until organ damage
   C. It immediately causes chest pain
   D. It only occurs in the elderly

Answer 5

B

Question 6

6. Severe hypertension symptoms include all except:
   A. Dyspnea
   B. Fatigue
   C. Palpitations
   D. Hyperactivity

Answer 6

D

Question 7

7. (SATA) Key nursing interventions for HTN patients include:
   A. Low-fat diet education
   B. DASH diet promotion
   C. High-intensity exercise prescription
   D. Smoking cessation counseling

Answer 7

A, B, D

Question 8

8. Why must antihypertensives not be stopped suddenly?
   A. Risk of rebound hypertension
   B. Risk of hyperkalemia
   C. Risk of bradycardia
   D. Risk of hypoglycemia

Answer 8

A

Question 9

9. Complications of untreated HTN include:
   A. COPD
   B. Hemorrhagic stroke
   C. Hypoglycemia
   D. Hyperthyroidism

Answer 9

B

Question 10

10. Peripheral artery disease from HTN results in:
    A. Hyperperfusion of extremities
    B. Decreased blood flow to extremities
    C. Bone marrow suppression
    D. Overhydration of tissues

Answer 10

B

Question 11

11. (SATA) What diagnostic tests assess for HTN effects?
    A. Lipid panel
    B. EKG
    C. Chest CT
    D. CMP

Answer 11

A, B, D

Question 12

12. A BP consistently above which value indicates hypertension?
    A. 120/80 mmHg
    B. 130/80 mmHg
    C. 140/90 mmHg
    D. 125/75 mmHg

Answer 12

B

Question 13

13. BNP elevation indicates potential:
    A. Brain ischemia
    B. Cardiac stress or HF
    C. Renal infection
    D. Hyperlipidemia

Answer 13

B

Question 14

14. What should the nurse monitor closely when administering diuretics?
    A. Heart rate
    B. Fluid overload
    C. Dehydration and electrolyte imbalances
    D. Oxygen saturation

Answer 14

C

Question 15

15. Beta blockers lower BP by:
    A. Vasodilation
    B. Diuresis
    C. Decreasing heart rate and contractility
    D. Blocking calcium channels

Answer 15

C

Question 16

16. ACE inhibitors may cause which side effect?
    A. Reflex tachycardia
    B. Severe hypoglycemia
    C. Dry cough
    D. Constipation

Answer 16

C

Question 17

17. ARBs are beneficial because they:
    A. Cause dry cough
    B. Increase SVR
    C. Avoid the dry cough seen with ACE inhibitors
    D. Cause hyperkalemia only

Answer 17

C

Question 18

18. Calcium channel blockers may cause:
    A. Edema
    B. Hyperthermia
    C. Hypoglycemia
    D. Bradyarrhythmias only

Answer 18

A

Question 19

19. Vasodilators work by:
    A. Increasing blood volume
    B. Directly relaxing vascular smooth muscle
    C. Increasing heart rate
    D. Suppressing AV node conduction

Answer 19

B

Question 20

20. What defines a hypertensive crisis?
    A. BP >160/90 mmHg
    B. Systolic >180 or diastolic >120 mmHg
    C. MAP >60 mmHg
    D. BP <90/60 mmHg

Answer 20

B

Question 21

21. (SATA) Common causes of hypertensive crisis include:
    A. Poor medication adherence
    B. Cocaine use
    C. Regular low-sodium diet
    D. Amphetamine use

Answer 21

A, B, D

Question 22

22. A patient presents with severe headache, nausea, and blurred vision. These are signs of:
    A. Left-sided HF
    B. Hypertensive crisis
    C. Hypoglycemia
    D. Stroke only

Answer 22

B

Question 23

23. Bounding pulses and hypoactive bowel sounds are symptoms of:
    A. Ischemic stroke
    B. Peripheral arterial disease
    C. Hypertensive emergency
    D. Renal calculi

Answer 23

C

Question 24

24. Important intervention during hypertensive crisis includes:
    A. Administering oral medications immediately
    B. Gradually lowering BP
    C. Allowing BP to normalize naturally
    D. Rapid diuresis

Answer 24

B

Question 25

25. (SATA) Critical assessments during hypertensive crisis management include: A. Respiratory status B. Neurologic assessment C. Skin turgor D. Cardiovascular evaluation

Answer 25

A, B, D

Question 26

26. Why is an arterial line preferred in hypertensive emergencies? A. To draw blood gases B. For continuous BP monitoring C. For easier medication delivery D. To infuse vasodilators faster

Answer 26

B

Question 27

27. Medications during hypertensive crisis are titrated based on: A. Weight and age B. Systolic BP and MAP C. Heart rate alone D. Potassium level

Answer 27

B

Question 28

28. Which drug rapidly reduces BP and requires close monitoring? A. Labetalol B. Nicardipine C. Sodium nitroprusside D. Hydralazine

Answer 28

C

Question 29

29. What is a major risk with sodium nitroprusside use? A. Reflex tachycardia B. Profound hypotension C. Hypokalemia D. Heart block

Answer 29

B

Question 30

30. Labetalol primarily acts by: A. Reducing systemic vascular resistance and heart rate B. Increasing CO C. Stimulating alpha receptors D. Dilating coronary arteries only

Answer 30

A

Question 31

31. Nicardipine lowers BP by: A. Decreasing preload B. Reducing myocardial oxygen consumption C. Relaxing arterial smooth muscle D. Increasing HR

Answer 31

C

Question 32

32. Which symptom indicates target organ damage in hypertensive crisis? A. Sinus tachycardia B. Pulmonary crackles C. Retinal hemorrhage D. Finger clubbing

Answer 32

C

Question 33

33. A priority lab to trend during hypertensive crisis is: A. Hemoglobin B. BNP C. Creatinine D. Calcium

Answer 33

C

Question 34

34. After IV antihypertensive initiation, the nurse must monitor: A. BP q1–2h B. MAP q5min C. BP q15min D. MAP hourly

Answer 34

C

Question 35

35. Sudden cessation of antihypertensives could lead to: A. Hypotensive shock B. Rebound hypertension C. Ventricular fibrillation D. Bradyarrhythmia

Answer 35

B

Question 36

36. What action should the nurse take for a patient with blurred vision and BP 210/125? A. Administer oral antihypertensives B. Insert arterial line and start IV medications C. Place patient in Trendelenburg D. Administer 500mL bolus

Answer 36

B

Question 37

37. Proper BP monitoring education includes: A. Measure after meals B. Measure immediately after smoking C. Rest quietly 5 minutes before measuring D. Exercise immediately before measuring

Answer 37

C

Question 38

38. Which medication class can cause rebound hypertension if abruptly discontinued? A. Calcium channel blockers B. Diuretics C. Beta blockers D. Vasodilators

Answer 38

C

Question 39

39. DASH diet recommendations for HTN include: A. High sodium B. High saturated fat C. High fruits and vegetables D. High caffeine intake

Answer 39

C

Question 40

40. An EKG change in severe hypertension could reveal: A. Prolonged QTc B. Ventricular hypertrophy C. Sinus bradycardia D. Increased P wave amplitude

Answer 40

B