Pharm 1 - Exam 2 Flashcards Preview

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Flashcards in Pharm 1 - Exam 2 Deck (94):
1

This class of anti-arrhythmics contain beta blockers.

Class II

2

Class III Anti-arrhythmics affect what channel?

K+ Channel

3

This class of Anti-arrhythmics affects Ca+ channels.

Class IV

4

This drug is a Class Ia anti-arrhythmic that affects phase 0 of the cardiac cycle

Quinidine/Quinidex

5

Describe the presentation of cinchonism (5 things)

1. blurred vision
2.n/v
3. tinnitus
4. HA
5. disorientation/psychosis

6

This drug may induce ventricular tachycardia, called Torsades des Pointes

Quinidine/Quinidex

7

Name the cardiac specific beta blocker and its class that is indicated for arrythmias.

Atenolol/Tenormin
Class II Anti-arrhythmic

8

What phase of cardiac AP do Class II and Class IV anti-arrythmics affect? What side effect might they both have?

phase 4
bradycardia because they slows AV conduction

9

What is the most common side effect of all anti-arrythmics?

another arrhythmia

10

In what class of drugs is Amiodarone/Cordarone?

Class III Anti-arrhythmic

11

This drug has the potential to produce a blue-grey coloring of the skin due to it's high iodine content.

Amiodarone/Cordarone
ami-IOD-arone = iodine

12

In what anti-arrhythmic class is Verapamil?

Class IV
Ca+ Channel Blocker

13

Name three "other" anti-arrhythmics

Adenosine/Adenocard
Atropine
Digoxin/Lanoxin

14

This is the official drug of choice for the initial treatment of PSVT (paroxysmal superventricular tachycardia)

Adenosine/Adenocard

15

Adenosine/Adenocard has a duration of action of ___________.

~15 seconds

16

This drug is indicated (for cardiac use) in life threatening bradycardia and hypotension

Atropine

17

What is the MOA of Atropine?

Anti-cholinergic/parasympolytic
Competitive inhibitor of muscarinic ACh receptors

18

Name 4 extra-cardiac uses of Atropine

1. diarrhea
2. pre-operative (decreases bronchial & salivary secretions)
3. to treat organophosphate poisoning
4. as a cycloplegic/mydriatic (paralyzes accomodation/dilates pupils)

19

What does SLUDGE stand for and what does it indicate?

Salivation
Lacrimation
Urination
Diarrhea
Gastric Distress
Emesis
ORGANOPHOSPHATE POISONING

20

What type of toxicity is described by saying: "Dry as a bone, red as a beet, hot as a hare and mad as a hatter"?

Atropine

21

What is the antidote for Atropine?

physostigmine

22

Digoxin toxicity potential is increased when combine with what other drug class?

K+ wasting drug without K+ supplementation

23

The long half-life of Digoxin may have what effect on an EKG reading?

Flattening or inversion of the T wave

24

What 4 systems are affected in Digitalis intoxication?

Cardiac (arrhythmias/bradycardia)
CNS
GI
Vision

25

What is the antidote for Digoxin?

Digoxin immune Fabs

26

What number should LDL/HDL not exceed?

2.5

27

Total Cholesterol/HDL should not exceed ___

4

28

Niacin causes what characteristic side effects?

flushing
pruritus
myositis
GI issues

29

What lab values should be watched with Niacin/Nicotinic Acid use?

Liver enzymes

30

In what patients is Niacin contraindicated?

Poorly controlled DM
Active Liver Dz
Active PUD

31

What is the safest form of niacin available?

inositol hexaniacinate (IH)

32

This drug is a Fibric Acid derivative.

GemFIBrozol/Lopid

33

This class of drugs inhibit HMG CoA Reductase

Statins!

34

Name 2 common side effects and one life-threatening side effect of statins.

Muscle soreness and muscle weakness

Rhabdomyolysis >>>> Acute Renal Failure

35

When are statins contraindicated?

Pregnancy or lactation
Liver disease or elevated liver enzymes
Heavy alcohol use

36

In what class of drugs is Atorvastin/Lipitor?

Statins

37

If a patient on a statin comes in with severe muscle pain, what lab would you want to run?

CPK, to assess potential for rhabdomyolysis

38

In what class of drugs is Chlorestyramine/Questran?

Bile acid sequestrant

39

This drug's side effects include constipation and fat soluble vitamin malabsorption.

Chlorestyramine/Questran

40

This drug inhibits cholesterol absorption at the level of the brush border.

Ezetimibe/Zetia

41

These two drugs are Category X

Atorvastin/Lipitor
Vytorin (Ezetimibe + statin)

42

These two drugs are Category C in pregnancy

Cholestyramine
Ezetimibe

43

What is Lovasa?

Ridiculous, expensive fish oil. Stupid.

44

Class I Anti-arrhythmics affect what type of channel?

Na+ Channel

45

This class of anti-hyperlipidemics is known to lower TGs and increase HDL.

Fibrates

46

Gemfibozol/Lopoid is in what class of anti-hyperlipidemics?

Fibrates

47

This drug may be used for pneumocystis prophylaxis and is effective against MRSA.

Timethorprim + Sulfamethoxazole/Bactrim

48

What is the worst case scenario skin issue that can result from the use of Sulfa drugs?

Steven Johnson Syndrome (toxic epidermal necrolysis)
3x more likely with Bactrim than with Sulfamethoxazole alone.

49

Penicillins fall into what class of drugs?

Beta-lactams: affects bacterial cell wall

50

What is the MOA for beta-lactam drugs?

Binds to PBPs on bacteria and prevents peptidoglycan cross-linage = cytolysis and cell death

51

What is the MOA for Sulfamethoxazole with Trimethorprim/Bactrim?

Sulfamethoxazole: competitive inhibitor with enzyme that catalyzes PABA
Trimethorprim: interfaces with folic acid

52

This drug class is associated with the most severe pure drug allergies.

Penicillins

53

What is commonly added to Penicillin injections to prolong the half-life?

Procaine

54

In the drug Amoxicillin with Clavulanate/Augmentin, dose increase refers to which drug and which drug is in the same amount regardless of dose?

Amoxicillin amount increases with increased Augmentin dose.
Clavulanate is in the same amount regardless of dose.

55

In the drug Amoxicillin with Clavulanate/Augmentin, which component is most likely to cause diarrhea or pseudomembranous colitis because it is a broader spectrum drug?

Clavulanate

56

What generation of Cephalosporins is indicated with the prefix ceph-?

1st Generation

57

Are first generation Cephalosporins better to treat gram+ or gram- bacteria?

GRAM +

58

What generation(s) of Cephalosporins is indicated with the prefix cef-?

2nd-5th Generation

59

Are third generation Cephalosporins better to treat gram+ or gram- bacteria?

GRAM -

60

Erythromycin/Erythromycin and Azithromycin/Zithromax are part of what drug class?

Macrolides

61

Of the penicillins, which crosses the BBB and which is in all tissues except the CSF?

Penicillin G crosses BBB
Amoxicillin/Amoxil is distributed to all tissues but CSF

62

Macrolides and Aminoglycosides affect what bacterial organelle?

Ribosomes

63

What is the half-life of Azithromycin/Zithromax?

68 hours

64

Name two drugs that fall into the Tetracycline drug class.

Tetracycline/Sumycin
Doxycycline/Doryx

65

What are the 3 MC indications for a Tetracycline antibiotic?

Moderately severe acne
Rosacea
Chlamydia

66

These two drug classes should be avoided in pregnant women and children because they chelate Ca, staining teeth and affecting bone deposition.

Tetracyclines
Quinolones

67

This drug may is nephrotoxic and ototoxic (maybe irreversible)?

Gentamicin/Garamycin
should only really be used in life-threatening situations

68

What is the most appropriate drug to treat Chlamydia?

Azithromycin or Doxycycline

69

What is the most appropriate drug to treat Gonorrhea?

Ceftriaxone

70

What is the most appropriate drug to treat Syphilis?

Benzathine Pen G or Doxyclines

71

What would be an appropriate drug to treat Strep Throat?

Penicillin V

72

What is the initial pharmacologic treatment for acute otitis media?

Amoxicillin/Amoxil

73

What would be an appropriate drug to treat recurrent sinusitis?

Amoxicillin and clavulanate/Augmentin

74

What drug should you consider for the treatment of uncomplicated bronchitis in adults?

Azithromycin/Zithromax

75

What is a good drug class to look to in the treatment of pneumonia (covers typical and atypical CAP)?

macrolides
quniolones may also be considered

76

What is the drug of choice for treating acute cystitis?

TMP-Sulfa DS (double strength)

77

What is drug combination is used to treat PID?

Ceftriaxone AND Doxycycline
AND MAYBE Metronidazole

78

This drug may lead to spontaneous tendon rupture/damage.

Ciprofloxacin/Ciproxin

79

What is the MOA of Ciprofloxacin/Ciproxin?

Inhibits DNA replication and transcription, via DNA gyrase

80

What is the drug of choice for C. diff infection?

Metronidazole/Flagyl

81

This drug is considered a Pro-drug, meaning it is activated once absorbed by gut bacteria

Metronidazole/Flagyl

82

What enzymes does Metronidazole/Flagyl inhibit and why is this important?

Acetylaldehyde Dehydrogenase
if taken with ETOH, may cause Disulfiram-like Reaction: n/v, flushing, tachycardia

83

What would you use to treat BV or Trich infection?

Metronidazole/Flagyl

84

What class of drugs are specifically NOT recommended in the treatment of STDs and might lead to tendon rupture?

Quinolones

85

What class of drugs is Ciprofloxacin/Ciproxin?

Quinolones

86

What antibiotic covers bacteria and protozoa/parazites?

Metronidazole/Flagyl

87

What is the main indication for Macrodantin/Macrobid?

uncomplicated lower UTI

88

T/F. Vancomycin's poor bioavailability is one of the good things about it?

True. Effectively treats C. diff with low side effects

89

This may result if a patient is given Vancomycin/Vancocin too quickly via IV.

Red Man Syndroms aka Red Neck Syndrome

90

This drug may be used for prophylactic therapy against N. meningitidis and also might tinge body fluids orange.

Rifampicin/Rifampin

91

This drug is primarily used to treat traveler's diarrhea.

Rifaximin/Xifaxan (a lot like Rifampicin)

92

What is the first-line treatment for MRSA?

Clindamycin or Fluoroquinolone

93

This drug is primarily used to treat impetigo.

Mupirocin/Bactroban

94

What is the difference between Mupirocin/Bactroban and Bacitracin?

Mupirocin/Bactroban is used to treat impetigo
Bacitracin is basically Neosporin