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Pharmacology > Pharm 1 - Exam 2 > Flashcards

Pharm 1 - Exam 2 Flashcards

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1
Q

This class of anti-arrhythmics contain beta blockers.

A

Class II

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2
Q

Class III Anti-arrhythmics affect what channel?

A

K+ Channel

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3
Q

This class of Anti-arrhythmics affects Ca+ channels.

A

Class IV

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4
Q

This drug is a Class Ia anti-arrhythmic that affects phase 0 of the cardiac cycle

A

Quinidine/Quinidex

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5
Q

Describe the presentation of cinchonism (5 things)

A
  1. blurred vision
  2. n/v
  3. tinnitus
  4. HA
  5. disorientation/psychosis
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6
Q

This drug may induce ventricular tachycardia, called Torsades des Pointes

A

Quinidine/Quinidex

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7
Q

Name the cardiac specific beta blocker and its class that is indicated for arrythmias.

A

Atenolol/Tenormin

Class II Anti-arrhythmic

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8
Q

What phase of cardiac AP do Class II and Class IV anti-arrythmics affect? What side effect might they both have?

A

phase 4

bradycardia because they slows AV conduction

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9
Q

What is the most common side effect of all anti-arrythmics?

A

another arrhythmia

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10
Q

In what class of drugs is Amiodarone/Cordarone?

A

Class III Anti-arrhythmic

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11
Q

This drug has the potential to produce a blue-grey coloring of the skin due to it’s high iodine content.

A

Amiodarone/Cordarone

ami-IOD-arone = iodine

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12
Q

In what anti-arrhythmic class is Verapamil?

A

Class IV

Ca+ Channel Blocker

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13
Q

Name three “other” anti-arrhythmics

A

Adenosine/Adenocard
Atropine
Digoxin/Lanoxin

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14
Q

This is the official drug of choice for the initial treatment of PSVT (paroxysmal superventricular tachycardia)

A

Adenosine/Adenocard

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15
Q

Adenosine/Adenocard has a duration of action of ___________.

A

~15 seconds

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16
Q

This drug is indicated (for cardiac use) in life threatening bradycardia and hypotension

A

Atropine

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17
Q

What is the MOA of Atropine?

A

Anti-cholinergic/parasympolytic

Competitive inhibitor of muscarinic ACh receptors

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18
Q

Name 4 extra-cardiac uses of Atropine

A
  1. diarrhea
  2. pre-operative (decreases bronchial & salivary secretions)
  3. to treat organophosphate poisoning
  4. as a cycloplegic/mydriatic (paralyzes accomodation/dilates pupils)
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19
Q

What does SLUDGE stand for and what does it indicate?

A 
Salivation
Lacrimation
Urination
Diarrhea
Gastric Distress
Emesis
ORGANOPHOSPHATE POISONING
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20
Q

What type of toxicity is described by saying: “Dry as a bone, red as a beet, hot as a hare and mad as a hatter”?

A

Atropine

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21
Q

What is the antidote for Atropine?

A

physostigmine

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22
Q

Digoxin toxicity potential is increased when combine with what other drug class?

A

K+ wasting drug without K+ supplementation

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23
Q

The long half-life of Digoxin may have what effect on an EKG reading?

A

Flattening or inversion of the T wave

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24
Q

What 4 systems are affected in Digitalis intoxication?

A

Cardiac (arrhythmias/bradycardia)
CNS
GI
Vision

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25
What is the antidote for Digoxin?
Digoxin immune Fabs
26
What number should LDL/HDL not exceed?
2.5
27
Total Cholesterol/HDL should not exceed ___
4
28
Niacin causes what characteristic side effects?
flushing pruritus myositis GI issues
29
What lab values should be watched with Niacin/Nicotinic Acid use?
Liver enzymes
30
In what patients is Niacin contraindicated?
Poorly controlled DM Active Liver Dz Active PUD
31
What is the safest form of niacin available?
inositol hexaniacinate (IH)
32
This drug is a Fibric Acid derivative.
GemFIBrozol/Lopid
33
This class of drugs inhibit HMG CoA Reductase
Statins!
34
Name 2 common side effects and one life-threatening side effect of statins.
Muscle soreness and muscle weakness Rhabdomyolysis >>>> Acute Renal Failure
35
When are statins contraindicated?
Pregnancy or lactation Liver disease or elevated liver enzymes Heavy alcohol use
36
In what class of drugs is Atorvastin/Lipitor?
Statins
37
If a patient on a statin comes in with severe muscle pain, what lab would you want to run?
CPK, to assess potential for rhabdomyolysis
38
In what class of drugs is Chlorestyramine/Questran?
Bile acid sequestrant
39
This drug's side effects include constipation and fat soluble vitamin malabsorption.
Chlorestyramine/Questran
40
This drug inhibits cholesterol absorption at the level of the brush border.
Ezetimibe/Zetia
41
These two drugs are Category X
Atorvastin/Lipitor | Vytorin (Ezetimibe + statin)
42
These two drugs are Category C in pregnancy
Cholestyramine | Ezetimibe
43
What is Lovasa?
Ridiculous, expensive fish oil. Stupid.
44
Class I Anti-arrhythmics affect what type of channel?
Na+ Channel
45
This class of anti-hyperlipidemics is known to lower TGs and increase HDL.
Fibrates
46
Gemfibozol/Lopoid is in what class of anti-hyperlipidemics?
Fibrates
47
This drug may be used for pneumocystis prophylaxis and is effective against MRSA.
Timethorprim + Sulfamethoxazole/Bactrim
48
What is the worst case scenario skin issue that can result from the use of Sulfa drugs?
Steven Johnson Syndrome (toxic epidermal necrolysis) | 3x more likely with Bactrim than with Sulfamethoxazole alone.
49
Penicillins fall into what class of drugs?
Beta-lactams: affects bacterial cell wall
50
What is the MOA for beta-lactam drugs?
Binds to PBPs on bacteria and prevents peptidoglycan cross-linage = cytolysis and cell death
51
What is the MOA for Sulfamethoxazole with Trimethorprim/Bactrim?
Sulfamethoxazole: competitive inhibitor with enzyme that catalyzes PABA Trimethorprim: interfaces with folic acid
52
This drug class is associated with the most severe pure drug allergies.
Penicillins
53
What is commonly added to Penicillin injections to prolong the half-life?
Procaine
54
In the drug Amoxicillin with Clavulanate/Augmentin, dose increase refers to which drug and which drug is in the same amount regardless of dose?
Amoxicillin amount increases with increased Augmentin dose. | Clavulanate is in the same amount regardless of dose.
55
In the drug Amoxicillin with Clavulanate/Augmentin, which component is most likely to cause diarrhea or pseudomembranous colitis because it is a broader spectrum drug?
Clavulanate
56
What generation of Cephalosporins is indicated with the prefix ceph-?
1st Generation
57
Are first generation Cephalosporins better to treat gram+ or gram- bacteria?
GRAM +
58
What generation(s) of Cephalosporins is indicated with the prefix cef-?
2nd-5th Generation
59
Are third generation Cephalosporins better to treat gram+ or gram- bacteria?
GRAM -
60
Erythromycin/Erythromycin and Azithromycin/Zithromax are part of what drug class?
Macrolides
61
Of the penicillins, which crosses the BBB and which is in all tissues except the CSF?
Penicillin G crosses BBB | Amoxicillin/Amoxil is distributed to all tissues but CSF
62
Macrolides and Aminoglycosides affect what bacterial organelle?
Ribosomes
63
What is the half-life of Azithromycin/Zithromax?
68 hours
64
Name two drugs that fall into the Tetracycline drug class.
Tetracycline/Sumycin | Doxycycline/Doryx
65
What are the 3 MC indications for a Tetracycline antibiotic?
Moderately severe acne Rosacea Chlamydia
66
These two drug classes should be avoided in pregnant women and children because they chelate Ca, staining teeth and affecting bone deposition.
Tetracyclines | Quinolones
67
This drug may is nephrotoxic and ototoxic (maybe irreversible)?
Gentamicin/Garamycin | should only really be used in life-threatening situations
68
What is the most appropriate drug to treat Chlamydia?
Azithromycin or Doxycycline
69
What is the most appropriate drug to treat Gonorrhea?
Ceftriaxone
70
What is the most appropriate drug to treat Syphilis?
Benzathine Pen G or Doxyclines
71
What would be an appropriate drug to treat Strep Throat?
Penicillin V
72
What is the initial pharmacologic treatment for acute otitis media?
Amoxicillin/Amoxil
73
What would be an appropriate drug to treat recurrent sinusitis?
Amoxicillin and clavulanate/Augmentin
74
What drug should you consider for the treatment of uncomplicated bronchitis in adults?
Azithromycin/Zithromax
75
What is a good drug class to look to in the treatment of pneumonia (covers typical and atypical CAP)?
macrolides | quniolones may also be considered
76
What is the drug of choice for treating acute cystitis?
TMP-Sulfa DS (double strength)
77
What is drug combination is used to treat PID?
Ceftriaxone AND Doxycycline | AND MAYBE Metronidazole
78
This drug may lead to spontaneous tendon rupture/damage.
Ciprofloxacin/Ciproxin
79
What is the MOA of Ciprofloxacin/Ciproxin?
Inhibits DNA replication and transcription, via DNA gyrase
80
What is the drug of choice for C. diff infection?
Metronidazole/Flagyl
81
This drug is considered a Pro-drug, meaning it is activated once absorbed by gut bacteria
Metronidazole/Flagyl
82
What enzymes does Metronidazole/Flagyl inhibit and why is this important?
Acetylaldehyde Dehydrogenase | if taken with ETOH, may cause Disulfiram-like Reaction: n/v, flushing, tachycardia
83
What would you use to treat BV or Trich infection?
Metronidazole/Flagyl
84
What class of drugs are specifically NOT recommended in the treatment of STDs and might lead to tendon rupture?
Quinolones
85
What class of drugs is Ciprofloxacin/Ciproxin?
Quinolones
86
What antibiotic covers bacteria and protozoa/parazites?
Metronidazole/Flagyl
87
What is the main indication for Macrodantin/Macrobid?
uncomplicated lower UTI
88
T/F. Vancomycin's poor bioavailability is one of the good things about it?
True. Effectively treats C. diff with low side effects
89
This may result if a patient is given Vancomycin/Vancocin too quickly via IV.
Red Man Syndroms aka Red Neck Syndrome
90
This drug may be used for prophylactic therapy against N. meningitidis and also might tinge body fluids orange.
Rifampicin/Rifampin
91
This drug is primarily used to treat traveler's diarrhea.
Rifaximin/Xifaxan (a lot like Rifampicin)
92
What is the first-line treatment for MRSA?
Clindamycin or Fluoroquinolone
93
This drug is primarily used to treat impetigo.
Mupirocin/Bactroban
94
What is the difference between Mupirocin/Bactroban and Bacitracin?
Mupirocin/Bactroban is used to treat impetigo | Bacitracin is basically Neosporin

Pharmacology (8 decks)

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