Pharmacology Flashcards

(102 cards)

1
Q

pharmacodynamics is the relationship between what 2 things

A

how the drug effects the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

pharmacokinetics is the relationship between what 2 things

A

how the body effects the drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

allergic reaction type 1 has a quick or slow onset?

A

immediate reaction (within minutes to an hour)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

is a high therapeutic index safe

A

yes, the bigger the number the “more room for error” and the safer the drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

where are most drugs metabolized

A

liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

where are most drugs excreted

A

kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

do adrenergic drugs have sympathetic or parasympathetic effects

A

sympathetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

do cholinergic drugs have sympathetic or parasympathetic effects

A

parasympathetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is a key side effect for patients on anti-hypertensive drugs

A

risk for orthostatic hypotension if you sit them up too quickly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

name the suffix and function of this drug: beta blocker

A

-olol
-decreases cardiac output by slowing down the heartbeat and decreasing the force of the contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

how much epinephrine is okay for patients on beta blockers (specifically non selective)

A

0.04mg or 2 carts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

name the suffix and function of this drug class: diuretics

A

-ide
-blocks sodium re-uptake causing more water to be excreted from the body
-FIRST LINE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

name the suffix and function of this drug class: calcium channel blockers

A

-pine
-ihibits calcium from entering cells
-GINGIVAL HYPERPLASIA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

name the suffix and function of this drug class: ACE

A

-pril
-inhibits the production of angiotensin II which narrows blood vessels
-DRY COUGH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

name the suffix and function of this drug class: ARB

A

-tan
-blocks function of angiotensin II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what 2 agents are used for congestive heart failure

A

digoxin and spironalactone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what 3 agents are used for anti-arrythmia

A

beta blockers, calcium channel blockers, and lidocaine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is the treatable INR range

A

less than 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what are the 3 anticoagulants

A

aspirin, warfarin, and clopidogrel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

NSAIDs have what 3 properties

A

antipyretic, anti-inflammatory, and analgesic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what unwanted side effects do cox-1 inhibitor medications pose

A

gastric ulceration and renal toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what body organ do antipyretics effects

A

the hypothalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

brand name of ibuprofen

A

advil and motrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

brand name of acetaminophen

A

tylenol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
brand name of naproxen
aleve
26
what properties does acetaminophen or tylenol not have
anti-inflammatory and blood coagulation effects
27
what are common opioid side effects
euphoria, sleep, respiratory depression, constipation, miosis,
28
what is naloxone or narcan used for
treat opioid overdoses
29
what is the most common opioid used in dentistry
codeine
30
list contraindications for nitrous oxide
copd, pregnancy, cystic fibrosis infections, emotional illness, and history of substance abuse
31
what color is the nitrous oxide tank
blue
32
bactericidal agents do what to the bacteria as compared to bacteriostatic agents
bactericidal agents kill the bacteria and bactericidal agents inhibit the bacterial growth
33
in pregnancy what antibiotic can you use and what should you avoid
you can use amoxicillin, but you should avoid ciprofloxacin and tetracycline
34
what antibiotics are bactericidal
penicillin, metronidazole, and cephalosporin
35
what is the first and second line antibiotic of choice
first is amoxicillin and second is clindamycin
36
what side effects to clindamycin and macrolide drugs have
gi cramps and nausea
37
what drug is arestin
minocycline HCL
38
what drug is periostat
doxycylcine capsules
39
when should tetracycline drugs not be prescribed
to children under 9 years of age, pregnant women, or nursing mothers
40
what 2 things inhibit tetracycline absorprtion
antacids and milk
41
what is the brand name of cephalexin and what drug is it similar to
keflex; similar in side effects and affect to penicillin agents so do not prescribe this drug if the patient is allergic to penicillin
42
what is the most common and effective antibiotic to treat periodontal disease
metronidazole
43
what side effects do metronidazole pose
metallic taste and black hairy tongue
44
what is more difficult to treat, a virus or bacteria
virus
45
what is acyclovir used to treat and what is its brand name
zovirax and it is used to treat HSV1, HSV2, epstein barr virus, and shingles
46
what is the brand name of docosanol and what is it used to treat
abreva and cold sores
47
what is the brand name of zidovudine and what virus is it used to treat
AZT/retrovir and it is used to treat HIV
48
what patients are more likely to get thrush
immunocompromised patients
49
what 2 agents (brand and generic) are used to treat thrush
nystatin (mycostatin) and fluconazole (diflucan)
50
what drugs are used to treat tuberculosis
isoniazid (INH), rifampin (rifadin), and pyrazinamide
51
does a positive purified protein derivative TB test mean you have active TB
no, it just means you have been exposed at some point in your life
52
what 2 neurotransmitters are in low levels in people with depression
norepinephrine and seratonin
53
name 3 most common SSRIs brand and generic
fluoxetine (prozac) citalopram (celexa) sertraline (zoloft)
54
name the brand and generic of the most common tricyclic antidepressant. what in dentistry is contraindicated in patients taking this medication. (hint: Local anesthesia)
amitriptyline (elavil); epinephrine is contraindicated
55
what is the brand and generic of the most common MAOs antidepressant
phenelzine (nardil)
56
what is the brand and generic of the most common NDRIs
bupropion (wellbutrin)
57
most common oral side effect for patients taking antidepressants, antipsychotics, and anti-anxiety agents
xerostomia
58
what medications are in the anti-psychotic class
chlorpromazine (thoracine) and clozapine (clozaril)a pine magazine for the crazies
59
what drugs are in the benzodiazepines anti-anxiety drug class
diazepam (valium), lorazepam (ativan), and alprazolam (xanax)the lamb is anxious
60
what drugs are in the hypnotics class
zolpidem (ambien) and eszopiclone (lunesta)
61
what anti-anxiety agents are most common in dentistry due to their short onset of action and half life
valium, ativan, and xanax
62
what are the 3 anticonvulsive agents to treat seizures and which one can cause gingival enlargement
phenytoin (dilantin), phenobrabital, and carbamazepine (tegretrol).phenytoin has gingival enlargement side effects
63
what common substances used in abuse are depressants
alcohol and opioids
64
what common substances used in abuse or stimulants
amphetamines, cocaine, and nicotine
65
what common substance used in abuse are hallucinates
marijuana and LSD
66
if a patient has used cocaine in the past 24 hours what should be avoided in dentistry (hint: local anesthesia)
epinephrine because they are both vasoconstrictors
67
benzodiazepines increase which calming neurotransmitter
GABA
68
name brand and generic of antihistamine drugs and what are their common side effects
diphenydramine (benadryl) and loratadine (claritin). these cause drowsiness and xerostomia.
69
corticosteroid drugs brand and generic name (2)
fluticasone (flonase) and hydrocortisone cream
70
what medication is used for preventing organ transplant rejection. What is it's red flag?
cyclosporin (sandimmune)gingival enlargement!!!
71
what are corticosteroids used for
decrease inflammation, allergic reactions, and to treat autoimmune disorders such as Addison's disease.
72
what are corticosteroid medications brand and generic and what are their side effects
prednisone (deltasone), meythlprednisone (medrol)SE: increase risk for infections, peptic ulcers, delays in healing, and osteoporosis end in -asone, put ice on your injury to reduce inflammation
73
what are corticosteroid medications brand and generic and what are their side effects
prednisone (deltasone), meythlprednisone (medrol)SE: increase risk for infections, peptic ulcers, delays in healing, and osteoporosis end in -asone, put ice on your injury to reduce inflammation
74
is symlin a natural or man made hormone
man made hormone used for type 1 diabetes
75
what medications are used to treat type 2 diabetes
biguanides aka metformin and meglitinides aka repaglinide
76
what are key concerns for type 2 diabetic patients
hypoglycemia, poor wound healing, weight gain, and infections including periodontal diseases
77
Do you want a high level of HDL or LDL
HDL
78
what are the anti-hyperlipidemic drugs
rosuvastatin (crestor), atorvastatin (lipitor), simvastatin (zocor), lovastatin (mevacor), and cholestyramine (questran)
79
what juice should antihyperlipidemic drugs not be taken with
grapefruit juice
80
hypothyroidism in children is called ____ and in adults is called____
cretinism, myxedema
81
levothyroxine or synthroid is used to treat
hypothyroidism
82
propylthioracil (PTU) and methimazole (tapazole) are drugs that require you to be cautious when using epinephrine in your local anesthetic. They are used to treat what condition
hyperthyroidism
83
inhalers used for acute asthma attacks
ventolin and proventil
84
inhalers used for long term prevention of asthma attacks
salmaterol
85
major side effects of inhaled corticosteroids
xerostomia and oral candidiasis
86
what inhaler is used for COPD
atrovent
87
what are the different categories of laxatives
bulk producing agents, lubricants, stool softeners, and stimulate laxatives
88
metamucil is what kind of laxative
bulk producing
89
docusate is what kind of laxative
stool softener
90
docusate and senna is what kind of laxative
stimulate laxative
91
h2 receptor antagonist drugs are used for what condition
dyspepsia and healing of NSAID ulcers
92
what are the common h2 receptor antagonist medications
ranitidine, cimetidine, and famotidine
93
what are the common PPI medications and what are they used for
omeprazole, esomeprazole, lansoprazole and they are used for acid reflux, dyspepsia, GERD, and h.pylori infections
94
loperamide is used for what
diarrhea
95
antacid side effects
halitosis, xerostomia, and taste alteration
96
epi is added for what purpose
bleeding control
97
MRD of epi for healthy patients is
0.2mg
98
MRD of epi for cardio involved patients
0.04mg
99
articaine is metabolized where
in the blood (artery)
100
prilocaine is metabolized where
in the lungs and kindeys (priority)
101
categroy x for pregnancy is safe or no
absolutely not
102
best trimester to treat a pregnant patient
second