Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

TAS > Pharmacology 2 > Flashcards

Pharmacology 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What type of receptor does salbutamol work on?

A

beta 2
as agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What class of medicine is salmetrol and what MUST it be used with?

A

Long acting beta 2 agonist
inhaled ICS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is MOA of ipatropium bromide?

A

muscarinic receptor antagonist
prevents cholinergic nerve induced bronchial constriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Name a leukotriene receptor antagonist

A

Montelukast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is MOA of theophylline ?

A

Inhibits phosphodiesterases, increasing cAMP -> bronchodilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the name of the monoclonal antibody that binds to IgE? When is it used?

A

Omalizumab
Severe Asthma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the name of the monoclonal that binds to CD20 receptors?

A

Rituximab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What needs to be screened for before starting Rituximab?

A

Hepatits B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the monoclonal antibody that targets F protein on the surface of RSV?

A

Palivizumab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Who gets Palivizumab?

A

< 6 months of age (at the start of the RSV season) + born at < 35 weeks corrected gestational age
Children < 2 years who have received treatment for bronchopulmonary dysplasia in the last 6 months
Children < 2 years of age with haemodynamically significant congenital heart disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is treatment of pseudomonas aureginosa in CF + what class is it?

A

Colomycin. Nebulised or IV
Polymixin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is medicine used to reduce viscosity of secretions in CF?

A

Dronase alfa
Breaks down free DNA in respiratory secretions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Ivacafter is used for what?

A

The 5% of CF patients with G551D mutation
Increases chloride secretion + improves cilia motility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is MOA of Enalapril/Captopril

A

Inhibits formation of angiotensin II.
BP- improved by vasodilation
HF- Reduces preload and afterload

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What part of the renal system does spironolactone work on? what’s its moa

A

DISTAL RENAL TUBULE.
Aldosterone antagonist increases water secretion whilst retaining K+ and H+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Long term activation blocks damaging effect of overactive sympathetic activity is what medicine?

A

beta blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What medication is a phosphodiesterase III inhibitor causing mycardium relaxation

A

Milrinone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How do low, medium and high doses of dopamine work?

A

low- dopamine receptor, increases splenchinic and renal blood flow
medium- beta receptor inc HR
high- alpha receptor inc SVR and BP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What medicine is a cardiac glycoside that inhibits Na/K/ATPase, that increases intracellular Na+ and Ca2+, increasing cardiac contractions?

A

Digoxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Name the ionotropes

A

Noradrenaline
adrenaline
Dopamine
Dobutamine
Milrinone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is Noradrenaline?

A

alpha adrenergic receptor agonist
Increases systemic vascular resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is adrenaline?

A

alpha and beta adrenergic receptor agonist
increases SVR, HR and contractility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What receptors do dobutamine work on?

A

B adrenergic receptor agonist
increases contractility via B1
Increases vasodliation via B2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is MOA of diazepam?

A

GABA agonist - alpha receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the side effects of Dantrolene?

A

hepatic dysfunction and blood dyscarias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is MOA of Botulinum Toxin A?

A

Cleaves SNAP-25 protein, therefore blocking acetylcholide release form synapses- chemically denervating muscle allowing it to relax.
wears off after 3-6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is MOA of Dantrolene?

A

increases Ca2+ uptake into skeletal muscle, reducing intracellular Ca2+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Name the alpha-2-adrenergic receptor agonist that works at level of spine?

A

Tizanidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What anti-spasticity medicines cause sedation?

A

Diazepam, Baclofen, Tizanidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is MOA of diazepam?

A

Gaba agonist- alpha receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is MOA of baclofen?

A

GABA agonist- beta receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What medication is a dopamine re-uptake inhibitor that increases concentration of dopamine and norepinephrine in the synaptic cleft?

A

Methylphenidate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What medicine works on norepinephrine pathway. Second line for ADHD?

A

Atomexatine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is an alpha -2-adrenergic agonist used to treat ADHD?

A

Clondine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What causes release of then blocks reuptake of noreadrenaline and dopamine?

A

dexamphetamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What ADHD medicine is associated with suicidal ideation and behaviour change?

A

Atomexetine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What ADHD medicine is particularly associated with sleep difficulties, weight loss, reduced growth, hypertension?

A

Methylphenidate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What medicine taken in pregnancy can cause Ebstein anomaly?

A

Lithium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What medicine taken in pregnancy can cause Sensorineural deafness?

A

streptomycin

40
Q

What medicine taken in pregnancy can cause microcephaly, neural tube defects, short limbs?

A

methotrexate

41
Q

What medicine taken in pregnancy can cause goitre/ hypothyroidism?

A

Iodine, propylthyouracil

42
Q

What medicine taken in pregnancy can cause tooth enamel hypoplasia + yellow staining of teeth?

A

Tetracyclines

43
Q

What medicine taken in pregnancy can cause nasal hypoplasia, microcephaly, optic atrophy, hydrocephalus, congenital heart defects, stippled epiphyses, purpuric rash?

A

that’s warfarin Syndrome
Warfarin

44
Q

What medicine taken in pregnancy can cause VACTERL?

A

Vertebral defects
Anorectal anomalies
Cardiac defect
Tracheo-oesphageal fistula/oesophageal atresia
Renal abnormalities
Limb abnormalities
- pogesterone apparently

45
Q

What is antidote for beta blocker overdose?

A

Glucagon

46
Q

What is pralidoxime an antidote for?

A

Organophosphates
Reactivates acetylcholinesterases

47
Q

What is treatment for lead exposure?

A

Sodium calcium edetate

48
Q

What is treatment for benzodiazepine overdose?

A

Flumenazil

49
Q

What is treatement for opioid toxicity?

A

Naloxone
Competative antagoinst for opioid receptor

50
Q

What is MOA of N-acetylcystine ?

A

Augments glutathione reserves and binds toxic metabolites

51
Q

What is treatment for digoxin toxicity?

A

digoxin specific antibody fragments

52
Q

What is MOA of PPIs?

A

Blocks proton pump H+/K+/ATPase in gastric parietal cells

53
Q

What form of delivery must you not use for nifedipine?

A

Sub-ingual

54
Q

What is MOA of ranitidine?

A

H2 receptor antagonist
Reduces gastric acid secretion by blocking H2

55
Q

What medicine can be used topivally for L sided Crohn’s?

A

Mesalazine

56
Q

What is diet change recommended for Crohn’s flare?

A

Polymeric diet
PO

57
Q

What is corticosteroid dosing for Crohns flare?

A

Full dose 2-4 weeks
Tepered over 4-8 weeks

58
Q

What is second line treatment for Crohn’s flare and what is monitoring required?

A

Azothiprine
Needs regular FBCs

59
Q

What is anti-emetic best for G.I. causes of vomiting?

A

Ondansetron

60
Q

What is anti-emetic best for Liver/toxin related nausea?

A

Domperidone
Metaclopromide

61
Q

What is anti-emetic best for vestibular/ raised CNS causes of nausea?

A

Cyclizine

62
Q

What anti-emetic is 5HT3 antagonist?

A

Ondansetron

63
Q

What anti-emetic is dopamine receptor blocker?

A

Domperidone
Metoclopramide

64
Q

What anti-emetic is an anticholinergic anti H1 receptor antagoinst?

A

cyclizine

65
Q

What is most common adverse side effect of IV salbutamol?

A

hypokalaemia

66
Q

What is MOA of furosemide?

A

Inhibit sodium–potassium–chloride cotransporter in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle.

67
Q

What is MOA of thiazide diuretics?

A

Inhibit the sodium–chloride transporter in distal convoluted tubule. Increases secretion of sodium, chloride and water. Also decrease peripheral vascular resistance with long-term use.

68
Q

What is MOA of nifedipine?

A

Binds to L type Ca2+ channels in cardiac myocytes reducing conduction velocity and myocardial contractility.
Cause smooth muscle relaxation decreasing PVR.

69
Q

What is MOA of hydralazine?

A

Vasodilator, smooth muscle relaxant

70
Q

What is MOA of propranolol in managing BP?

A

Bind to beta-adrenoceptors in cardiac nodal tissue, conducting system and myocytes preventing the action of adrenaline or noradrenaline at these sites (reduce sympathetic tone).

71
Q

What are the names of medications that are angotensin II receptor antagonist?

A

Candestartan/Losartan

72
Q

what is MOA of allopurinol?

A

inhibits xanthine oxidase enzyme, thus reducing production of uric acid

73
Q

what is MOA of rasburicase?

A

Recombinant form of urate-oxidase enzyme used to treat hyperuricemia.
catalyzes enzymatic oxidation of uric acid into an inactive and soluble metabolite (allantoin).

74
Q

What is the topical steroid ladder?

A

hydrocrotisone, eumovate, betnovate, dermovate

75
Q

What is MOa of hyoscine butylbromide?

A

competative antagonist/inhibitor of mucarinic receptor

76
Q

How many half lives does a drug need to go through before it can be considered clincally irrelevant ?

A

4-5

77
Q

What is MOA of IVIG in treating hyperbilirubinaemia?

A

Blocks fragment crystalisable (Fc) receptors of circulating antibodies, decreasing haemolysis

78
Q

What is MOA of oxybutinin?

A

murscarinic receptor antagonist
Smooth muscle relaxant

79
Q

What medications cannot be given to someone with myasthenia gravis?

A

Amikacin/ gentamicin

80
Q

To what part of the ear is gentamycin toxic?

A

vestibular duct of the inner ear
it is a fluid filled duct that coducts sound to the cochlea

81
Q

What do you need to monitor if giving Iv quinine?

A

glucose
it causes hypoglycaemia
(also s.e. is tinnitus)

82
Q

What is the treatment for malignant hyperthermia?

A

Dantorlene

83
Q

What is MOA of isoniazid?

A

inhibition of mycolic acid synthesis, affects cell-walll synthesis

84
Q

What is MOA of ethambutol?

A

inhibition of arabinosyltranferases which prevents formation of cell wall

85
Q

What is MOA of rifampicin

A

inhibition of DNA dependent RNA polymerases, causing cell death

86
Q

what is moa of pyrazinamide?

A

inhibition of fatty acid synthase, affects ability to grow

87
Q

What is MOA of heparin?

A

Bind to antithrombin, improving antithrobin’s ability to prevent conversion of thobin to prothrombin via factor Xa

88
Q

What is MOA of infliximab?

A

IgG monoclonal antibody that binds to TNF alpha with high affinity, preventing inflammation cascade

89
Q

What is MOA of adenosine?

A

A1 and A2 adenosine receptor agonist.
inhibits calcium influx and promotes calcium efflux therefore reduces conduction time at AV node.

90
Q

What is half life of adenosine and why is that important?

A

10 seconds!
Give in large vein near heart

91
Q

What is MOA of atropine?

A

Blocks vagal impulse

92
Q

What is MOA of aminophylline ?

A

Phosphodiesterase III AND IV antagonist
bronchodilation

93
Q

List enzyme inducers and explain what that means

A

they induce the breakdown of the second drug, i.e. they break it down to quickly and it doesnt work, the combined oral contraceptive pill is a good example.
Carbamazepine
Rifampicin
Alcohol (chronic)
Phenytoin
Griseofulvin
Phenobarbitone
Sulfonylureas

94
Q

What medicine classically induces itself?

A

carbamazepine
i.e. it breaks itself dwon so you need to increase the dose.

95
Q

What medications require multi dosing of acrivated charcoal?

A

Drugs that have an enterohepatic circulation
carbamazepine, dapsone, phenobarbital, quinine, theophylline

TAS (18 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions