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Flashcards in PharmII_Exam 1_help Deck (127):
1

What is the number 1 drug choice for trt of gonorrhea?

Ceftriaxone
Just like what we saw in trt for Oc Disease
Cefixime is also used.

2

What is an adverse effect of Cephalosporin, esp those with methyl thio-tetrazole group

Disulfiram like symptoms when take with alcohol

3

What does Fosfomycin treat?

Uncomplicated UTI in pregnant females
Take one oral dose (3g)

4

Which drug classified under cell wall synthesis inhibitors that is only effective for TB

Cycloserine.

5

Describe Tetracycline resistance

Reduce permeability.
Increased efflux by an active transport protein pump (tet-A)

6

What organisms is Tigecycline effective against?

Tetracycline resistant organisms
MRSA
MRSE
PRSP
VRE

7

Which group of organisms does Clarithromycin & Azithromycin have enhanced activity against?

Mycobacterium Avium intracellulare
Some Protozoa
(Blow that A/C on Mycobacterium)

8

Which part of bacteria does macrolides bind to?

50s subunit
They bind reversibly.

9

Is Telithromycin a ketolide or macrolide?

Ketolide.
The only drug

10

Name the only protein synthesis inhibitor that is bactericidal

Aminoglycosides

11

What category of drugs does Gentamycin belong to?
Are they more effective against aerobic gram + or - organisms?

Aminoglycosides.
Gram - more effective.

12

What condition is necessary for Gentamycin to work?

Oxygen.

13

MOA of Gentamycin

1. Blockthe formation of translation-initiation-complex
2. Misread the mRNA code
3. Disrupt the polysomes resulting in non-functional monosomes

14

What is the MOA of sulfonamides

Prevents the normal bacterial utilization of PABA for the synthesis of folic acid; anti-metabolites

15

MOA of Quinolones

Inhibits gyrase mediated DNA supercoiling.
Inhibit Topoisomerase IV in bacteria

16

Of the many things that Quinolones treat, name one of them?

Trt of UTI with pseudomonas aeruginosa
B4.
Norfloxacin is approved in the US only for UTI

17

What drug is used as the second line drug against TB?

Rifapentine

18

What is the MOA for Isoniazid?

Blocks mycolic acid
Inactivates catalase peroxidase enzyme

19

What is RIPE?

Rifampin
Isoniazid
Pyrazinamide
Ethambutol

20

Name some AE of Ethambutol?

Visual distrubances
Retinal damage
Peripheral nephritis
Headache and confusion

21

Which drug is the only cell wall synthesis inhibitor for TB?

Cycloserine

22

Which drug is the most effective against M. Leprae and inhibts bacterial folic acid synthesis?

Dapone

23

Name and what do you treat Atypical mycobacterial infections?

M. Avium complex
Azithromycin

24

How does Amphotericin B work?

Forms channels and pores by interacting with ergesterol.
Makes the membrane permeable to ions

25

MOA of flucytosine?

It gets deaminated to 5-FU; a potent antimetabolite by cytosine deaminase. 5-FU inhibits thymidylate synthase enzymes.

26

MOA of griseofulvin?

Inhibits mitotic spindle formation

27

What drugs are used in Hepatitis B?

NRTIs
Lamivudine
Telbivudine
Entecavir
Adefovir
Tenofovir

28

MOA of foscarnet

An inorganic pyrophosphate that interacts directly and inhibits viral RNA polymerase, dnA polymerase and HIV RT

29

Which drug is used for Trypanosoma Cruzi?

Melarsoprol.
A trivalent arsenic used in the later stages of CNS development

30

MOA of Nifurtimox?

Produces intracellular free radicals that kill American Trypanosomiasis

31

How do you treat Trematodes and Cestodes?

Praziquantel

32

MOA of mebendazole?

Inhibits microtubule synthesisis of the parasite.
Parasite is expelled with feces.

33

List some drugs used against pneumocystosis

TMP-SMZ
Pentamidine
Atovaquone
Dapsone
Eflornithine
NOT Tinidazole

34

What is Tinidazole used against?

Giardia
Amebiasis
Trichomoniasis

35

What is Metronidazole used against?

Giardia
Amebiasis
Trichomoniasis

36

What conditions is PCN G used for?

Clostridium Perfringens (Gas Gangrene; use with Clindamycin)
Treponema Pallidum

37

How is PCN eliminated?

Kidneys (tubular secretion)

38

What condition do you use Ampicillin for?

Listeria

39

Which of the two drugs can you only give orally: Ampicillin or Amoxicillin?

Amoxicillin

40

Which beta lactamase inhibitor is ampicillin combined with?
What do they treat?

Sulbactam.
Treat intra-abdominal and gynecological infections

41

If you are in the hospital and need I.V.; should the doctor combine PCN and aminoglycosides?

NO
They do work together, but do not combine.

42

Are you allowed to use Amoxicillin for GI infections?

NO

43

What are the three beta lactamse inhibitors?

Clavulanic acid
Sulbactam
Tazobactam

44

How are cephalosporins excreted?

Kidneys - Tubular secretion

45

In what disease do we see parenteral cephalosporin usage?

Gonococcal disease

46

What drug do we see the prophylactic usage for perioperative infections?

Cephalosporins

47

First generation Cephalsporins was active against what?

PEcK
Proteus
E.coli
Klebsiella pneumoniae

48

Second generation Cephalosporins was active against what?

HENPEcK
Haemophilus influenzae
Enterobacter aerogenes
Neisseria
Proteus
E. coli
Klebsiella pneumoniae

49

Which cephalosporin drug is used as DOC for prophylaxis surgically?

Cefazolin

50

Which two cephalosporin drugs are used as first line therapy for N. Gonorrhea?

Ceftriaxone
Cefixime
Third generation (broad spectrum)

51

Which two cephalosporin drugs are excreted through the biliary tract?

Cefoperazone
Ceftriaxone
No dosage adjustment is necessary in renal insufficiency
Third generation

52

Which generation of cephalosporins are able to cross the BBB?

3rd
4th
5th

53

What generation of cephalosporins does Cefepime belong to?

4th generation

54

Which group of drugs does disulfiram like symptoms appear in due to aldehyde accumulation?

Cephalosporins

55

Which group of drugs is said to be the broadest spectrum of all cell wall synthesis inhibitors?

Carbapenems

56

Which group of drug contain a beta lactam ring without a primary ring?

Monobactam

57

T/F?
Gram positive gather 100X more erythromycin than gram negative

True

58

Which macrolide is bacteriostatic and not active against enteric gram - bacilli?

Erythromycin

59

Which macrolide is more active against M. avium than erythromycin?

Clarithromycin

60

Which macrolide contain long half lives because of extensive tissue sequestration and binding?

Azithromycin (68 hours)
There is extensive tissue distribution and high drug concentration within a cell.

61

Which group of drugs contain 2 MOA that are energy dependent and not absorbed via the GI tract?

Aminoglycosides.

62

What happens if you combine aminoglycosides and loop diuretics together?

Increase in Ototoxicity and Nephrotoxicity

63

What is the name of a semi aminoglycoside used for Gonocci?

Spectinomycin.
Only use if pt is allergic to PCN, or gonococci are resistant to other agents.

64

What drug is Gray baby syndrome associated with?

Chloramphenicol.

65

What constitutes gray baby syndrome?

Vomiting
Flaccidity
Gray color shock
Collapse

66

What is the main usage for Clindamycin?

Trt of severe infections due to anaerobes such as Bacteroides.

67

What two species of organisms is clindamycin good at getting rid of?

P. Carinii
T. Gondii

68

Name one resistance mechanism of Sulfonamides?

An increase in substrate (PABA)

69

For children with Otitis media, what is sulfisoxazole combined with?

Erythromycin.
Marketed as Pediazole, Eryzole or Pediagen

70

Which drug is converted into anti-inflammatory?

Sulfasalazine
Preferred over corticosteroids for tx of
ulcerative colitis/granulomatous colitis

71

What is the name of topical sulfonamide used for prevention of infection of burns?

Silver sulfadiazine.
Reduces microbial colonization
Mafenide as well

72

What is the name of drugs that prevents the colonizatoin of burns?

Mafenide
Silver sulfadiazine as well.

73

What does combo of Sulfadoxine and Pyrimethamine trt?

1. second line tx for malaria;
2. prophylaxis and
tx of mefloquine resistant plasmodium
falciparum

74

What is TMP-SMZ used for?

Oral Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazol
Pneumocystic Jirovecii Pneumonia
shigellosis
systemic salmonella infections, UTI, prostatitis, some ontuberculous mycobacterial infxns

75

Give me a good combo for malaria?

Proguanil + atovaquone

76

WHat is the group of drugs that inhibit bacterial topoisomerase?

Fluoroquinolones

77

What does sulfonamides cause in neonates?

Kernicterus

78

Which generations of FQ mess with QT prolongation?

2nd
3rd

79

Which drug turns urine to reddish/orange color?

Rifampin

80

Which antimycobacterial drug is used in combo for M. tuberculosis for short regimens?

Pyrazinamide

81

MOA of Imidazoles?

inhibits ergosterol synthesis by
Inhibiting 14 alpha demethylase
Disrupts the packing of phospholipids

82

Which drug is used as oral troche for oropharyngeal candidiasis?

Clotrimazole
Better tasting than Nystatin

83

Which drug is used for cryptococcal meningitis?

Fluconazole in combo with Amphotericin B

84

Which drug is used for cutaneous candidiasis and vulvovaginitis?

Miconazole

85

What is the problem with Nystatin

Foul taste
Very toxic parenterally

86

Which drug is used for invasive candidiasis and aspergillis?

Caspofungin

87

Which drug is an anti-herpetic used for CMV retinitis?

Ganciclovir

88

Which drug is an anti-herpetic that is an inorganic pyrophosphate?

Foscarnet

89

Which drug is used for influenza A and B, Hep C and RSV bronchiolitis and pneumonia;
also prevents capping of viral mRNA?

Ribavirin

90

Which drug is used as an antisense mechanism?

Fomivirsen

91

At what stage is NRTI initially used for HIV?

CD4 is less than 500

92

What drug is an oral for pediatrics greater than 3 months?

Emtricitabine

93

Name a couple of nucleotide analogues for HIV and HBV?

Tenofovir and Adefovir

94

What do all protease inhibitors end with?

"navir"

95

Which drug is a non-peptide protease inhibitor that has the least resistance?

Tipranavir

96

Which drug is a fusion inhibitor that binds to GP41?

Enfuvirtide

97

Which drug is an Entry inhibitor that binds to CCR5?

Maroviroc

98

Which drug is an integration inhibitor?

Raltegravir

99

Which drug treats influenza and is used for parkinsonism?

Amantadine

100

Which "vir" drug is used intransally & orally

Zanamivir
Oseltamivir

101

WHich thingy majig causes african sleeping sickness?

Trypanosomiasis

102

Which thingy majig causes SA and chagas disease?

Trypanosome Cruzi

103

MOA of Malarsoprol?

Inhibits parasitic enzymes

104

What drug is used for unwanted facial hair in women?

Vaniqa

105

What is DOC for T. Cruzi (chagas)?

Nifirtimox

106

Which drug dreats Giardia/Trichomoniasis?

Metronidazole.

107

Which drug is the best choice for taxoplasmosis?

Pyrimethamine
Sulfonamide

108

Which drug is the number one anti-malarial?

Malarone.
Combo of Atovaquone + Proguanil

109

What is MOA/usage/CI of Mebendazole

Inhibits microtubule synthesis
Nematodes
Pregnancy

110

Talk about Praziquantel

Treats all species
Only choice for trematodes
CI in cysticercosis

111

How is Cefepime so much diff from 3rd generation drugs like Cefaperazone/Ceftriaxone?

More resistnt to beta lactamase produced by enterobacter.

112

What is a major side effect of carbapenem?

Excessive levels in pts w/ renal impairment
can lead to seizures

113

Among Meropenem and Imipenem, which is less likely to cause side effect?

Meropenem.

114

Are macrolides eliminated from renal or biliary methods?

Biliary

115

What enzyme do babies lack that result in gray baby syndrome?

hepatic glucuronosyl-transferase
drug is not eliminated

116

MOA & Uses for Acyclovir?

Inhibits viral DNA polymerase
HSV & CMV
Topical, oral and IV

117

Idoxuridine and Trifluridine is specific for which HSV?

HSV 1.
Acyclovir is 10X more potent than this drug.
Topical

118

Which was first drug that was discovered used to treat Herpes?

Vidarabine.
Acyclovir is 160X more potent than this drug.

119

Uses of Fomivirsen?

-IV for CMV retinitis in AIDs pts

120

MOA of Fomivirsen

-Olgionucleotide
-Inhibits CMV through antisense
mechanism ! inhibits protein synthesis

121

T/F?
Zanamivir is taken intranasally?

True

122

T/F?
Oseltamivir(tamiflu) is taken orally?

True

123

T/F?
Amantadine is useful in the trt of Parkinsonism (potentiates CNS dopaminergic responses)?

True

124

Amantine/Rimantine inhibit virus entry into the cell(Messes with the M2 protein).
Zanamivir/Oseltamivir inhibit virus exit out of cell

Laura story

125

Name the two Respiratory SYncyial virus drugs?

Ribavirin
Palivizumab

126

What can't you use -navir with?

Rifampin

127

Which drugs Do not compete with nucleoside
triphosphates nor require phosphorylation
to be active

Nevirapine, Delavirdine, Efavirenz
These are NNRTI
Very selective for HIV-1