PharmII_Exam 1_help Flashcards
(127 cards)
1
Q
What is the number 1 drug choice for trt of gonorrhea?
A
Ceftriaxone
Just like what we saw in trt for Oc Disease
Cefixime is also used.
2
Q
What is an adverse effect of Cephalosporin, esp those with methyl thio-tetrazole group
A
Disulfiram like symptoms when take with alcohol
3
Q
What does Fosfomycin treat?
A
Uncomplicated UTI in pregnant females
Take one oral dose (3g)
4
Q
Which drug classified under cell wall synthesis inhibitors that is only effective for TB
A
Cycloserine.
5
Q
Describe Tetracycline resistance
A
Reduce permeability.
Increased efflux by an active transport protein pump (tet-A)
6
Q
What organisms is Tigecycline effective against?
A
Tetracycline resistant organisms MRSA MRSE PRSP VRE
7
Q
Which group of organisms does Clarithromycin & Azithromycin have enhanced activity against?
A
Mycobacterium Avium intracellulare
Some Protozoa
(Blow that A/C on Mycobacterium)
8
Q
Which part of bacteria does macrolides bind to?
A
50s subunit
They bind reversibly.
9
Q
Is Telithromycin a ketolide or macrolide?
A
Ketolide.
The only drug
10
Q
Name the only protein synthesis inhibitor that is bactericidal
A
Aminoglycosides
11
Q
What category of drugs does Gentamycin belong to?
Are they more effective against aerobic gram + or - organisms?
A
Aminoglycosides.
Gram - more effective.
12
Q
What condition is necessary for Gentamycin to work?
A
Oxygen.
13
Q
MOA of Gentamycin
A
- Blockthe formation of translation-initiation-complex
- Misread the mRNA code
- Disrupt the polysomes resulting in non-functional monosomes
14
Q
What is the MOA of sulfonamides
A
Prevents the normal bacterial utilization of PABA for the synthesis of folic acid; anti-metabolites
15
Q
MOA of Quinolones
A
Inhibits gyrase mediated DNA supercoiling.
Inhibit Topoisomerase IV in bacteria
16
Q
Of the many things that Quinolones treat, name one of them?
A
Trt of UTI with pseudomonas aeruginosa
B4.
Norfloxacin is approved in the US only for UTI
17
Q
What drug is used as the second line drug against TB?
A
Rifapentine
18
Q
What is the MOA for Isoniazid?
A
Blocks mycolic acid
Inactivates catalase peroxidase enzyme
19
Q
What is RIPE?
A
Rifampin
Isoniazid
Pyrazinamide
Ethambutol
20
Q
Name some AE of Ethambutol?
A
Visual distrubances
Retinal damage
Peripheral nephritis
Headache and confusion
21
Q
Which drug is the only cell wall synthesis inhibitor for TB?
A
Cycloserine
22
Q
Which drug is the most effective against M. Leprae and inhibts bacterial folic acid synthesis?
A
Dapone
23
Q
Name and what do you treat Atypical mycobacterial infections?
A
M. Avium complex
Azithromycin
24
Q
How does Amphotericin B work?
A
Forms channels and pores by interacting with ergesterol.
Makes the membrane permeable to ions
25
MOA of flucytosine?
It gets deaminated to 5-FU; a potent antimetabolite by cytosine deaminase. 5-FU inhibits thymidylate synthase enzymes.
26
MOA of griseofulvin?
Inhibits mitotic spindle formation
27
What drugs are used in Hepatitis B?
```
NRTIs
Lamivudine
Telbivudine
Entecavir
Adefovir
Tenofovir
```
28
MOA of foscarnet
An inorganic pyrophosphate that interacts directly and inhibits viral RNA polymerase, dnA polymerase and HIV RT
29
Which drug is used for Trypanosoma Cruzi?
Melarsoprol.
| A trivalent arsenic used in the later stages of CNS development
30
MOA of Nifurtimox?
Produces intracellular free radicals that kill American Trypanosomiasis
31
How do you treat Trematodes and Cestodes?
Praziquantel
32
MOA of mebendazole?
Inhibits microtubule synthesisis of the parasite.
| Parasite is expelled with feces.
33
List some drugs used against pneumocystosis
```
TMP-SMZ
Pentamidine
Atovaquone
Dapsone
Eflornithine
NOT Tinidazole
```
34
What is Tinidazole used against?
Giardia
Amebiasis
Trichomoniasis
35
What is Metronidazole used against?
Giardia
Amebiasis
Trichomoniasis
36
What conditions is PCN G used for?
```
Clostridium Perfringens (Gas Gangrene; use with Clindamycin)
Treponema Pallidum
```
37
How is PCN eliminated?
Kidneys (tubular secretion)
38
What condition do you use Ampicillin for?
Listeria
39
Which of the two drugs can you only give orally: Ampicillin or Amoxicillin?
Amoxicillin
40
Which beta lactamase inhibitor is ampicillin combined with?
| What do they treat?
Sulbactam.
| Treat intra-abdominal and gynecological infections
41
If you are in the hospital and need I.V.; should the doctor combine PCN and aminoglycosides?
NO
| They do work together, but do not combine.
42
Are you allowed to use Amoxicillin for GI infections?
NO
43
What are the three beta lactamse inhibitors?
Clavulanic acid
Sulbactam
Tazobactam
44
How are cephalosporins excreted?
Kidneys - Tubular secretion
45
In what disease do we see parenteral cephalosporin usage?
Gonococcal disease
46
What drug do we see the prophylactic usage for perioperative infections?
Cephalosporins
47
First generation Cephalsporins was active against what?
PEcK
Proteus
E.coli
Klebsiella pneumoniae
48
Second generation Cephalosporins was active against what?
```
HENPEcK
Haemophilus influenzae
Enterobacter aerogenes
Neisseria
Proteus
E. coli
Klebsiella pneumoniae
```
49
Which cephalosporin drug is used as DOC for prophylaxis surgically?
Cefazolin
50
Which two cephalosporin drugs are used as first line therapy for N. Gonorrhea?
Ceftriaxone
Cefixime
Third generation (broad spectrum)
51
Which two cephalosporin drugs are excreted through the biliary tract?
Cefoperazone
Ceftriaxone
No dosage adjustment is necessary in renal insufficiency
Third generation
52
Which generation of cephalosporins are able to cross the BBB?
3rd
4th
5th
53
What generation of cephalosporins does Cefepime belong to?
4th generation
54
Which group of drugs does disulfiram like symptoms appear in due to aldehyde accumulation?
Cephalosporins
55
Which group of drugs is said to be the broadest spectrum of all cell wall synthesis inhibitors?
Carbapenems
56
Which group of drug contain a beta lactam ring without a primary ring?
Monobactam
57
T/F?
| Gram positive gather 100X more erythromycin than gram negative
True
58
Which macrolide is bacteriostatic and not active against enteric gram - bacilli?
Erythromycin
59
Which macrolide is more active against M. avium than erythromycin?
Clarithromycin
60
Which macrolide contain long half lives because of extensive tissue sequestration and binding?
Azithromycin (68 hours)
| There is extensive tissue distribution and high drug concentration within a cell.
61
Which group of drugs contain 2 MOA that are energy dependent and not absorbed via the GI tract?
Aminoglycosides.
62
What happens if you combine aminoglycosides and loop diuretics together?
Increase in Ototoxicity and Nephrotoxicity
63
What is the name of a semi aminoglycoside used for Gonocci?
Spectinomycin.
| Only use if pt is allergic to PCN, or gonococci are resistant to other agents.
64
What drug is Gray baby syndrome associated with?
Chloramphenicol.
65
What constitutes gray baby syndrome?
Vomiting
Flaccidity
Gray color shock
Collapse
66
What is the main usage for Clindamycin?
Trt of severe infections due to anaerobes such as Bacteroides.
67
What two species of organisms is clindamycin good at getting rid of?
P. Carinii
| T. Gondii
68
Name one resistance mechanism of Sulfonamides?
An increase in substrate (PABA)
69
For children with Otitis media, what is sulfisoxazole combined with?
Erythromycin.
| Marketed as Pediazole, Eryzole or Pediagen
70
Which drug is converted into anti-inflammatory?
Sulfasalazine
Preferred over corticosteroids for tx of
ulcerative colitis/granulomatous colitis
71
What is the name of topical sulfonamide used for prevention of infection of burns?
Silver sulfadiazine.
Reduces microbial colonization
Mafenide as well
72
What is the name of drugs that prevents the colonizatoin of burns?
Mafenide
| Silver sulfadiazine as well.
73
What does combo of Sulfadoxine and Pyrimethamine trt?
1. second line tx for malaria;
2. prophylaxis and
tx of mefloquine resistant plasmodium
falciparum
74
What is TMP-SMZ used for?
Oral Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazol
Pneumocystic Jirovecii Pneumonia
shigellosis
systemic salmonella infections, UTI, prostatitis, some ontuberculous mycobacterial infxns
75
Give me a good combo for malaria?
Proguanil + atovaquone
76
WHat is the group of drugs that inhibit bacterial topoisomerase?
Fluoroquinolones
77
What does sulfonamides cause in neonates?
Kernicterus
78
Which generations of FQ mess with QT prolongation?
2nd
| 3rd
79
Which drug turns urine to reddish/orange color?
Rifampin
80
Which antimycobacterial drug is used in combo for M. tuberculosis for short regimens?
Pyrazinamide
81
MOA of Imidazoles?
inhibits ergosterol synthesis by
Inhibiting 14 alpha demethylase
Disrupts the packing of phospholipids
82
Which drug is used as oral troche for oropharyngeal candidiasis?
Clotrimazole
| Better tasting than Nystatin
83
Which drug is used for cryptococcal meningitis?
Fluconazole in combo with Amphotericin B
84
Which drug is used for cutaneous candidiasis and vulvovaginitis?
Miconazole
85
What is the problem with Nystatin
Foul taste
| Very toxic parenterally
86
Which drug is used for invasive candidiasis and aspergillis?
Caspofungin
87
Which drug is an anti-herpetic used for CMV retinitis?
Ganciclovir
88
Which drug is an anti-herpetic that is an inorganic pyrophosphate?
Foscarnet
89
Which drug is used for influenza A and B, Hep C and RSV bronchiolitis and pneumonia;
also prevents capping of viral mRNA?
Ribavirin
90
Which drug is used as an antisense mechanism?
Fomivirsen
91
At what stage is NRTI initially used for HIV?
CD4 is less than 500
92
What drug is an oral for pediatrics greater than 3 months?
Emtricitabine
93
Name a couple of nucleotide analogues for HIV and HBV?
Tenofovir and Adefovir
94
What do all protease inhibitors end with?
"navir"
95
Which drug is a non-peptide protease inhibitor that has the least resistance?
Tipranavir
96
Which drug is a fusion inhibitor that binds to GP41?
Enfuvirtide
97
Which drug is an Entry inhibitor that binds to CCR5?
Maroviroc
98
Which drug is an integration inhibitor?
Raltegravir
99
Which drug treats influenza and is used for parkinsonism?
Amantadine
100
Which "vir" drug is used intransally & orally
Zanamivir
| Oseltamivir
101
WHich thingy majig causes african sleeping sickness?
Trypanosomiasis
102
Which thingy majig causes SA and chagas disease?
Trypanosome Cruzi
103
MOA of Malarsoprol?
Inhibits parasitic enzymes
104
What drug is used for unwanted facial hair in women?
Vaniqa
105
What is DOC for T. Cruzi (chagas)?
Nifirtimox
106
Which drug dreats Giardia/Trichomoniasis?
Metronidazole.
107
Which drug is the best choice for taxoplasmosis?
Pyrimethamine
| Sulfonamide
108
Which drug is the number one anti-malarial?
Malarone.
| Combo of Atovaquone + Proguanil
109
What is MOA/usage/CI of Mebendazole
Inhibits microtubule synthesis
Nematodes
Pregnancy
110
Talk about Praziquantel
Treats all species
Only choice for trematodes
CI in cysticercosis
111
How is Cefepime so much diff from 3rd generation drugs like Cefaperazone/Ceftriaxone?
More resistnt to beta lactamase produced by enterobacter.
112
What is a major side effect of carbapenem?
Excessive levels in pts w/ renal impairment
| can lead to seizures
113
Among Meropenem and Imipenem, which is less likely to cause side effect?
Meropenem.
114
Are macrolides eliminated from renal or biliary methods?
Biliary
115
What enzyme do babies lack that result in gray baby syndrome?
hepatic glucuronosyl-transferase
| drug is not eliminated
116
MOA & Uses for Acyclovir?
Inhibits viral DNA polymerase
HSV & CMV
Topical, oral and IV
117
Idoxuridine and Trifluridine is specific for which HSV?
HSV 1.
Acyclovir is 10X more potent than this drug.
Topical
118
Which was first drug that was discovered used to treat Herpes?
Vidarabine.
| Acyclovir is 160X more potent than this drug.
119
Uses of Fomivirsen?
-IV for CMV retinitis in AIDs pts
120
MOA of Fomivirsen
-Olgionucleotide
-Inhibits CMV through antisense
mechanism ! inhibits protein synthesis
121
T/F?
| Zanamivir is taken intranasally?
True
122
T/F?
| Oseltamivir(tamiflu) is taken orally?
True
123
T/F?
| Amantadine is useful in the trt of Parkinsonism (potentiates CNS dopaminergic responses)?
True
124
Amantine/Rimantine inhibit virus entry into the cell(Messes with the M2 protein).
Zanamivir/Oseltamivir inhibit virus exit out of cell
Laura story
125
Name the two Respiratory SYncyial virus drugs?
Ribavirin
| Palivizumab
126
What can't you use -navir with?
Rifampin
127
Which drugs Do not compete with nucleoside
triphosphates nor require phosphorylation
to be active
Nevirapine, Delavirdine, Efavirenz
These are NNRTI
Very selective for HIV-1
