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Year 3 > PHEW > Flashcards

PHEW Flashcards

1
Q

Give some examples of notifiable diseases of cattle

A

Foot and mouth, cattle plague (Rinderpest), rabies, anthrax, BSE, TB, warble fly, lumpy skin disease

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2
Q

Give some enabling powers of the Animal Health Act 1981 regarding notifiable diseases

A 
Notification of suspicion to State
Movement restrictions (farm, surrounding area, whole country)
Powers to examine and take samples
Powers to slaughter infected suspects and dangerous contacts
Cleaning and disinfection powers
Slaughter of implicated wildlife
Eradication areas and attested areas
Regulate marking and movement of animals 
Powers as to infected premises and areas
Powers of entry
Seizure of diseased animals
Slaughter in certain diseases
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3
Q

What should someone do if they suspect they have an animal with a notifiable disease?

A

Separate the animal from any others

Contact the APHA

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4
Q

Why make a disease notifiable?

A

(To prevent the introduction of specified diseases into Great Britain
To eradicate, control or prevent the spread of specified diseases of economic or public health importance)
1) To collect information (eg on prevalence, spread)
2) To confirm absence of a disease
3) To detect quickly
4) To control as part of a compulsory disease programme by the state
5) To facilitate exports
6) To prevent risks to the public

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5
Q

Which piece of legislation discusses what to do in the case of a notifiable disease?

A

The Animal Health Act 2002

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6
Q

Give some clinical signs of Bluetongue
Which species does it affect?
How is it spread?

A 
Non-contagious infectious disease of sheep caused by the bluetongue virus (BTV)
Cows can have sub-clinical infection but usually act as carriers without/ showing any clinical signs 
Spread by biting midges: Culicoides spp
Fever (up to 42oC)
Swollen lips, muzzle, oral mucosa
Nasal discharge
Inflammation of coronary bands of feet
Severe muscle pain 
Blue tongue=rare sign
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7
Q

When does Bluetongue occur?

A

Late summer-early autumn (July to October)

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8
Q

Give some notifiable diseases of sheep

A 
Scrapie
Anthrax
Sheep and goat pox
Bluetongue
Foot + mouth disease
Contagious agalactiae
Rabies
Rift valley fever
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9
Q

What are the 3 notifiable diseases of poultry?

A

Avian influenza
Newcastle disease
Pigeon paramyxovirus

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10
Q

Give some notifiable diseases of pigs

A 
Rabies
Classical swine fever
African swine fever
Pseudorabies
Anthrax
Foot and mouth disease
Porcine epidemic diarrhoea
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11
Q

Give 7 factors which are critical for success in controlling a notifiable disease

A

Knowledge of the epidemiology and ecology of the organism
Means of identifying infected animals
Ability to eliminate the pathogen once identified
Ability to stop reintroduction of the pathogen onto premises
Cooperation of all sectors of the industry
Financial Resources
Infrastructure

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12
Q

What is a notifiable disease?

A

A disease for which there is a statutory requirement to report a suspicion of a clinical case of a disease

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13
Q

Give some strategies for the control of notifiable diseases

A

Movement controls, Farm, protection and surveillance zones.
Slaughter of individual animals (BSE)
Selective slaughter of affected animals or groups (TB)
Whole herd slaughter (FMD, TB)
Vaccination (bluetongue)
Treatment (Warble Fly)

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14
Q

What is unusual about the legislation surrounding porcine epidemic diarrhoea?

A

Unlike other notifiable diseases of pigs, there is NO LEGISLATIVE REQUIREMENT for official testing, culling, movement controls or other restrictions.
Control of disease will be INDUSTRY-LED

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15
Q

What is a reportable disease?

A

A disease in which there is a statutory requirement to report lab-confirmed isolation of organisms
The report is to be made by the lab which isolate the organism

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16
Q

Name the 4 reportable diseases

A

Salmonella
Brucella (abortus, ovis, melitensis)
Trichinella
Mycobacterium bovis

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17
Q

What happens when you report a notifiable disease?

A

Call APHA
Discuss case with duty veterinary officer
Starts off as a consultation case, may become a report case (restrictions applied)
A veterinary officer leaves within 30 mins
Suspect animals are examined/ post-mortem (you must remain on farm)
All other stock is inspected
Restrictions may be served
Blood and PM samples may be taken

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18
Q

Define animal by-products

A

Animal carcasses, parts of carcasses or products of animal origin that are not intended for human consumption.
Includes catering waste, used cooking oil, skins, hides, wool, feathers, blood, butchers and slaughterhouse waste, ova, semen, embryos etc.

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19
Q

What was the purpose of the Animal By-Products Order 1999?

A

Introduced testing for enterobacteria risks

Offence to allow access of ruminant animals to ruminant carcases

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20
Q

What is the specified risk material for cattle?

A

All ages: tonsils, intestines (duodenum to rectum), mesentery
Over 12 months: skull (excluding mandible but including brains and eyes), spinal cord
Over 30 months: vertebral column including dorsal root ganglia, but excluding tail vertebrae, spinous and transverse processes of cervical, thoracic and lumbar vertebrae, medial sacral crest, wings of sacrum

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21
Q

What is the specified risk material for sheep?

A

All ages: spleen, ileum

Over 12 months: skull including brains and eyes, tonsils, spinal cord

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22
Q

Give an example of a category 1 animal by-product
What colour must it be stained?
Where can it be found?
Where can it be disposed of?

A

Animals infected/suspected of having a TSE
Non-farm/wild animals eg zoo, pets
Experimental animals
Specified risk material/entire bodies containing specified risk material
Must be stained BLUE
Can be found at abattoir, farms, knackers yard, airports, zoos, labs
Can be disposed of via licensed incineration, rendering (must be marked with glyceroltriheptanoate-GTH)

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23
Q

Give an example of a category 2 animal by-product
What colour must it be stained?
Where can it be found?
Where can it be disposed of?

A

Manure and digestive tract contents
Animals rejected from abattoirs due to having infectious diseases
Products of animal origin containing residues of veterinary drugs
Products of animal origin from non-member countries that fail to comply with veterinary requirements
Animals that die other than being slaughtered for human consumption (eg killed to eradicate epizootic disease)
Must be stained black
Can be found: abattoirs, farms, knackers yard, airport
Can be disposed of via licensed incineration, rendering (marked with GTH), hunt kennels, maggot farms, zoos, manure can go on land

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24
Q

Give an example of a category 3 animal by-product
Where can it be found?
Where can it be disposed of?

A

Parts of slaughtered animals that are fit for human consumption but not intended for human consumption
Parts deemed ‘unfit for human consumption’ but no evidence of disease
Hides, skins, hooves, horns, pig bristles, feathers from animals slaughtered for human consumption
Raw milk from animals showing no clinical signs of disease
Fish/fish by-products
Found: egg-packing, abattoirs, butchers waste, fish manufacturing, dairies
Disposal: pet food, composting/biogas, hunt kennels, maggot farms, zoos

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25
Q

What requirements are in place for slaughterhouses regarding animal by-products?

A

Drain traps/gratings must be max. 6mm to collect category 1 and 2 material
Blood intended for pet food can only be derived from pigs/poultry that have passed ante-mortem inspection, or ruminants that have passed both ante and post-mortem inspection
If a lower risk ABP comes into contact with a higher category ABP, it must be treated as the higher category
ABP must be stored in leak-proof, lidded, marked bins which must be kept in a locked room
Disposals must be recorded

26
Q

What happens to fallen stock?

A

Ban on burial of fallen stock on farms in 2003
National collection service
All cattle over 24 months must be tested for TSE

27
Q

What is rendering?

A

The process of cooking parts of animals at high temperatures to make the material safe and reduce the water content to a storable level
Often followed by mechanical separation of tallow (fat) from the solid residue

28
Q

Which is the only rendering system that reduces the level of the scrapie agent to an undetectable amount?

A

Heating to 133oC at 3 bar pressure for at least 20 minutes

29
Q

Whose job is it to control and inspect animal by-products?

A

Veterinary officers

30
Q

Who is responsible for enforcement relating to animal by-products within slaughterhouses and cutting plants?

A

FSA

31
Q

How can you distinguish between Salmonella and E.coli on MacConkey agar?

A

E.coli ferments lactose so forms pink-red colonies, Salmonella does not

32
Q

Why is MacConkey agar used to grow enterobacteria?

A

Bile salts in it inhibit any non-enteric bacteria

33
Q

Which media is used to identify Salmonella?

A

Brilliant Green

Salmonella turns the media a red colour

34
Q

Which media is used to isolate Campylobacter?

A

Blood-based agar eg Skirrows, CCDA

Isolation must be carried out under reduced oxygen tension

35
Q

What is serotyping based on?

A

Antibody agglutination

Panels of antibodies allow differentiation of surface structures

36
Q

How are salmonella serovars subtyped?

A

By phage typing
The phage type is determined on the basis of resistance or susceptibility to a panel of lytic bacteriophages (ie if it is susceptible to a certain thing, that thing could be used to make a drug against it)

37
Q

What is multi-locus sequence testing (MLST)?

A

DNA sequencing of a number of essential ‘housekeeping’ genes
Sequences from the loci are compared using bioinformatic tools to give a sequence type
Different type for each strain

38
Q

Where do shiga-like toxins act? (humans)

A

On blood vessels in intestines -> bloody diarrhoea
Blood vessels in kidneys -> haemolytic uraemic syndrome
Severe cases: kidney failure, death
Also cause oedema and neurological damage in pigs

39
Q

Where is the main site of colonisation of E.coli in the GI tract of cattle, sheep and goats?

A

Distal rectum

40
Q

What is the estimated % of faecal shedding of E.coli from cattle?

A

5%

41
Q

How does E.coli usually end up in meat products?

A

Bacteria from the GI tract contaminates the carcass at slaughter

42
Q

How is human infection from Salmonella usually achieved?

A

Via meat or eggs from infected animals, or foodstuffs contaminated with faeces from infected people/animals

43
Q

What are the major causes of human non-typhoidal salmonellosis?

A

S.enteritidis and S.typhimurium

44
Q

Describe human non-typhoidal salmonellosis

A

12-72 hr incubation period
Initially painful abdominal cramps, then fever, headache, diarrhoea (sometimes bloody), vomiting
Symptoms usually last 4-7 days
Complications: septicaemia, septic arthritis

45
Q

How are eggs contaminated with salmonella?

A

In the ovaries/oviduct, or from infected faeces

46
Q

From when have layers been vaccinated against S.enteritidis?

A

1998

47
Q

Why are broilers not vaccinated against salmonella?

A

Too expensive, doubts over efficacy, withdrawal period

Tight biosecurity and good hygiene practices=main focus eg all in, all out system

48
Q

What are the NCP requirements for salmonella surveillance in broilers?

A

Sampling of boot swabs/socks within 3 weeks of slaughter

49
Q

What are the NCP requirements for salmonella surveillance in layers?
What does a positive test mean?

A

Chicks: chick boxes and any dead chicks are sampled
Pullets: 2 boot swabs, 2 weeks before placement
Hens: 2 boot swabs/pooled faeces at 22-26 wks old, then every 15 wks in production
Positive test means eggs can’t be sold as ‘Class A’ eggs

50
Q

What clinical signs are seen with campylobacter in humans?

A

Painful diarrhoea which is profuse but self-limiting
Increasingly invasive disease, especially in over-65s, patients with bowel cancer or receiving proton-pump inhibitors
Neuropathological complications occur in some patients eg Guillian-Barre syndrome (muscle weakness)

51
Q

Why is the broiler chicken so associated with Campylobacter?

A

Core temp of 41-42oC suits the thermophilic bug
Low O2 tension in gut suits microaerophiles
High levels of growth supported in caeca (main site of C.jejuni colonisation)
High level of faecal and caecal shedding + coprophagic behaviour -> rapid spread through houses
Birds can be infected with many different strains

52
Q

What is specified risk material?

A

Tissues of ruminants that can’t be used for human consumption as BSE prions concentrate there

53
Q

Give some responsibilities of an OV (official veterinarian)

A

Make sure that the FBO (food business operator) is complying with their own procedures on:
Good hygiene practices (eg water/temp/pest control)
HACCP (hazard analysis, eg identifying hazards, corrective actions)
ABP handling (including SRM)
Animal identification
Health and welfare of animals
Ongoing protocols which are species-specific eg trichinella, TSE
Must check that the operator’s procedures guarantee that meat is free from patho-physiological abnormalities/contamination/SRM

54
Q

When are cattle tested for BSE?

A

All cattle over 30 months that are sent for slaughter for human consumption
All cattle over 48 months that are sent for emergency slaughter, fallen stock, or found to be sick in an inspection after death

55
Q

When is a ‘withheld health mark’ used at the abattoir?

A

When an OV declares meat to be unfit for human consumption:
Failure of post/ante-mortem inspection
Presence of SRM
Waiting for a test result
Contamination/gross pathology
Where residues or contaminants are suspected
Water supply is contaminated, and a risk to public health
Animal has notifiable disease

56
Q

What makes an animal unfit for transport for emergency slaughter?

A

(a) unable to move independently without pain or to walk unassisted
(b) present a severe open wound, or prolapse
(c) pregnant females for whom 90% or more of the expected gestation period has already passed (ie last four weeks of pregnancy for cattle), or females who have given birth in the previous week
(d) they are newborn and the navel has not completely healed
(e) calves of less than ten days of age (unless they are transported less than 100 km)

57
Q

Sick or injured animals may be considered fit for transport if they are what?

A

(a) transport would not cause additional suffering
(b)transported for the purposes of Council Directive 86/609/EEC8 if the
illness or injury is part of a research programme
(c) transported under veterinary supervision for or following veterinary
treatment or diagnosis. However, such transport shall be permitted only where no unnecessary suffering or ill treatment is caused to the animals concerned
(d) have been subjected to veterinary procedures in relation to farming practices (eg dehorning or castration), provided that wounds have completely healed

58
Q

What are the requirements for animals slaughtered on farm?

A

Must be inspected at ante-mortem by an OV or approved veterinarian within 3 days of slaughter
Bodies must be transported without delay; if journey takes over 2 hours it should be under refrigeration

59
Q

What happens from start to finish when a cow is slaughtered?

A

Race -> stunning -> bleeding out -> removal of hide and feet -> evisceration (removal of organs) -> splitting of carcass and removal of SRM -> inspection of carcass and offal

60
Q

Give 2 differences in the slaughter of a cow and pig

A

Cow has hide removed, pig undergoes de-hairing and scalding

Cow is stunned with captive bolt, pig is stunned by electrical stunning or gas

61
Q

How can you tell how old a cow is at slaughter without looking at its tag/passport?

A

Dentition:
All deciduous incisors: 24 months
8 permanent incisors erupted: > 30 months

62
Q

How would you inspect the head of a cattle at slaughter?

A

Visual inspection of head and throat
Incision of retropharyngeal, sub-maxillary and parotid lymph nodes
External masseters: 2 incisions made parallel to mandible
Internal masseters: incise along one plane
Remove tonsils (SRM)
Free the tongue and inspect

Year 3 (28 decks)

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