Platinum FC Part 2 Flashcards
Derma Onco Hema Pulmo GI (353 cards)
1
Q
A
2
Q
What is Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV)?
A
Maximum air inhaled beyond normal tidal volume.
3
Q
What is Tidal Volume (TV)?
A
Air inhaled/exhaled in a relaxed state (~500mL).
4
Q
What is Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV)?
A
Air exhaled beyond tidal volume.
5
Q
What is Residual Volume (RV)?
A
Air remaining in lungs post-maximal exhalation.
6
Q
How is Vital Capacity (VC) calculated?
A
VC = IRV + TV + ERV.
7
Q
How is Inspiratory Capacity (IC) calculated?
A
IC = IRV + TV.
8
Q
How is Functional Residual Capacity (FRC) calculated?
A
FRC = ERV + RV.
9
Q
How is Total Lung Capacity (TLC) calculated?
A
TLC = IRV + TV + ERV + RV.
10
Q
What are the three pulmonary zones?
A
Zone 1: No blood flow, Zone 2: Intermittent blood flow, Zone 3: Continuous blood flow.
11
Q
What is the V/Q ratio at the apex of the lung?
A
3.0 (wasted ventilation).
12
Q
What is the V/Q ratio at the base of the lung?
A
0.6 (wasted perfusion).
13
Q
What happens in a V/Q ratio of 0?
A
Airway obstruction (shunt, 100% O2 does not help).
14
Q
What happens in a V/Q ratio of ∞?
A
Blood flow obstruction (dead space, e.g., PE, 100% O2 helps).
15
Q
How is oxygen transported in the blood?
A
98% bound to hemoglobin (Hb), 2% dissolved in plasma.
16
Q
How is CO2 transported in the blood?
A
70% as HCO3⁻, 23% bound to Hb, 7% dissolved in plasma.
17
Q
What causes a right shift in the O2-Hb dissociation curve?
A
CADET face RIGHT: ↑CO2, Acidosis, 2,3-BPG, Exercise, Temperature.
18
Q
What causes a left shift in the O2-Hb dissociation curve?
A
↓CO2, Alkalosis, Fetal Hb, Carbon monoxide.
19
Q
What are the main respiratory centers?
A
DRG (medulla) - Inspiration, VRG (medulla) - Expiration, Pneumotaxic center - ↑Resp. rate, Apneustic center - Prolongs inspiration.
20
Q
What is the diagnostic criterion for asthma reversibility?
A
> 12% & 200mL increase in FEV1 after bronchodilator.
21
Q
What is the hallmark of COPD?
A
Airflow obstruction.
22
Q
What is the most common cause of COPD?
A
Smoking.
23
Q
What is the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia?
A
Streptococcus pneumoniae.
24
Q
What are the primary treatments for asthma?
A
ICS, β₂-agonists, leukotriene antagonists.
25
What is the function of Meissner's Plexus?
Controls secretion in the GI tract.
26
What is the function of Auerbach's Plexus?
Controls motility in the GI tract.
27
What do Parietal Cells secrete?
HCl and Intrinsic Factor.
28
What do Chief Cells secrete?
Pepsinogen.
29
Where is iron absorbed?
Duodenum.
30
Where are carbohydrates, fats, and proteins absorbed?
Jejunum.
31
Where are vitamin B12 and bile salts absorbed?
Ileum.
32
What triggers Gastrin secretion?
Protein, stomach distension.
33
What is the function of Cholecystokinin (CCK)?
Stimulates bile secretion, slows gastric emptying.
34
What triggers Secretin secretion?
Acid and fatty acids in the duodenum.
35
What triggers Glucose-dependent Insulinotropic Peptide (GIP)?
Oral glucose intake.
36
What is the most common cause of GERD?
Lower esophageal sphincter dysfunction.
37
How is GERD diagnosed?
24-hour ambulatory pH monitoring.
38
What is the most common cause of Peptic Ulcer Disease?
H. pylori infection and NSAIDs.
39
What is the first-line treatment for Peptic Ulcer Disease?
PPI + Clarithromycin + Amoxicillin/Metronidazole.
40
What is the hallmark of cirrhosis?
Fibrosis and nodular regeneration.
41
What are complications of portal hypertension?
Varices, ascites, hepatic encephalopathy.
42
What is the treatment for hepatic encephalopathy?
Lactulose to reduce ammonia levels.
43
What is Murphy's sign indicative of?
Acute cholecystitis.
44
What is the most common cause of acute pancreatitis?
Gallstones, followed by alcohol.
45
What is the most specific enzyme for pancreatitis diagnosis?
Serum lipase (>3x normal).
46
Where is erythropoietin (EPO) produced?
Interstitial cells of the peritubular capillaries.
47
What is the function of principal cells in the late distal tubule?
Absorb Na+ and H2O, secrete K+.
48
What is the function of intercalated cells in the distal tubule?
Absorb K+ and secrete H+.
49
What triggers renin release?
Low BP, low GFR detected by the macula densa.
50
What is the main function of ADH?
Inserts aquaporins in the collecting duct, increasing water reabsorption.
51
What triggers ADH release?
Increased plasma osmolarity, decreased blood volume.
52
What causes metabolic acidosis among diuretics?
Acetazolamide (carbonic anhydrase inhibitor).
53
What causes metabolic alkalosis among diuretics?
Loop diuretics and thiazides.
54
Important Etiologic Organisms for Diarrhea?
Bacillus cereus, Staphylococcus aureus, Clostridium perfringens, Vibrio cholerae, Enterotoxigenic E. coli, etc.
55
What are the causes of filariasis?
Wuchereria bancrofti, Brugia malayi.
56
Comparison of Malarial Species: Which species has a 48-hour asexual cycle?
Plasmodium falciparum, Plasmodium vivax.
57
What are the hallmark features of enteric (typhoid) fever?
Prolonged fever, Rose spots, Neuropsychiatric symptoms, Chronic carriage in some cases.;
RASH: Faint, salmon-colored, blanching, maculopapular rash (Rose spots) on the trunk and chest.
58
What is the most severe form of leptospirosis?
Weil's Syndrome (jaundice, renal dysfunction, hemorrhagic diathesis).
59
What is the prophylaxis for leptospirosis exposure?
Doxycycline.
60
What is the mainstay treatment for schistosomiasis in the Philippines?
Mass treatment with praziquantel.
61
Which antibiotic class includes bactericidal agents?
Vancomycin, Fluoroquinolones, Penicillins, Aminoglycosides, Cephalosporins, Metronidazole.
62
Which drug is used as prophylaxis for malaria in chloroquine-resistant regions?
Doxycycline.
63
What is the drug of choice for severe malaria?
Artesunate.
64
What is the hallmark of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)?
ANA positivity, Anti-dsDNA antibodies, Joint pain, Rash, Hematologic abnormalities.
65
What is the best screening test for SLE?
ANA (Antinuclear Antibody).
66
What is the most common cardiac manifestation of Rheumatoid Arthritis?
Pericarditis and mitral regurgitation.
67
What is the most common cause of death in patients with RA?
Cardiovascular disease.
68
What is the triad of Felty’s syndrome?
Neutropenia, splenomegaly, nodular RA.
69
Which drug is the DMARD of choice for RA?
Methotrexate.
70
What are the two major factors contributing to the development of osteoarthritis?
Joint loading and joint vulnerability.
71
What is the initial analgesic of choice for osteoarthritis?
Acetaminophen or Paracetamol.
72
What is the treatment for gouty arthritis during an acute attack?
NSAIDs (Indomethacin), Colchicine, or Glucocorticoids.
73
Which crystal type is found in pseudogout?
Rhomboid-shaped, weakly positively birefringent crystals.
74
What is the first-line pharmacologic treatment for ankylosing spondylitis?
NSAIDs.
75
What is the most common site of infectious arthritis?
Knee.
76
What is the most common cause of infectious arthritis in sexually active young adults?
Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
77
Which antibody is most specific for Wegener’s granulomatosis?
c-ANCA (cytoplasmic anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies).
78
What is the most serious manifestation of SLE?
Nephritis.
79
What is the best initial treatment for reactive arthritis?
NSAIDs.
80
What is the most common extra-articular manifestation of ankylosing spondylitis?
Acute anterior uveitis.
81
What is the most common presentation of infectious arthritis?
Monoarthritis.
82
What is the dreaded complication of giant cell arteritis?
Ischemic optic neuropathy.
83
What is the syndrome associated with temporal arteritis characterized by stiffness and muscle pain?
Polymyalgia rheumatica.
84
85
What mnemonic helps remember aminoglycoside side effects?
Mean GiANTS canNOT kill anaerobes (Gentamicin, Amikacin, Neomycin, Tobramycin, Streptomycin).
86
What is the major side effect of aminoglycosides?
Nephrotoxicity, Ototoxicity, Neuromuscular blockade (contraindicated in myasthenia gravis).
87
Which antibiotic inhibits protein synthesis by binding to the 50S ribosomal subunit?
Chloramphenicol, Erythromycin, Clindamycin, Linezolid.
88
89
Which cephalosporins have the best CNS penetration?
Ceftriaxone, Cefotaxime.
90
Which cephalosporins have pseudomonal coverage?
Ceftazidime, Cefepime, Cefoperazone.
91
Which penicillin is associated with pseudomembranous colitis?
Ampicillin.
92
92
Acute schistosomiasis in travelers infected for the first time.
katayama fever
93
eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusions in brain neurons.
negri bodies
RABIES
93
94
95
Erythematous papules, pustules, cysts, nodules, open and closed comedones on the face, chest, and upper back
Acne vulgaris
96
Hallmark lesion of acne
Comedones (closed: whiteheads, open: blackheads due to oxidation)
97
Most important consideration before initiating isotretinoin therapy for severe acne
Rule out pregnancy (isotretinoin is extremely teratogenic)
98
Erythematous pruritic or painful papules with central punctum
Insect bites
99
Erythematous macules, papules more pruritic at night located at the groin, axilla, webs of fingers, toes, elbows, and wrists; other family members with similar lesions
Scabies
100
Imaginary circle intersecting sites of involvement in scabies
Circle of Hebra
101
Slightly elevated tortuous lines in the skin with a vesicle or pustule at the end containing the mite
Burrows
102
Etiologic organism of scabies
Sarcoptes scabiei
103
Intense pruritus of the scalp, posterior cervical lymphadenopathy, excoriations, and erythematous papules at the nape of the neck and retroauricular area secondary to impetigo; nits more common in retroauricular area; common in children
Pediculosis capitis
104
Discrete extremely pruritic erythematous papulovesicles accompanied by prickling, burning, or tingling, frequently on the antecubital, popliteal, trunk, and inframammary areas; common in hot humid climates
Miliaria rubra (prickly heat)
105
Acute, round, tender, circumscribed, perifollicular, erythematous lesion that ends in central suppuration
Furuncle
106
Refers to two or more confluent furuncles
Carbuncle
107
Refers to inflammation of the follicles resulting in erythematous papules that may eventually develop pustules
Folliculitis
108
Most common causative agent of folliculitis
Staphylococcus aureus
109
Dark-red to purple skin discoloration, dusky with borders not clearly delineated, deeper tissue involvement, pain out of proportion to the physical findings, rapid progression of lesion, may have crepitus
Necrotizing fasciitis
110
History of wound or blister, erythematous area with non-distinct borders, warm, edematous, painful; may have fever; central portion of lesion may become fluctuant and may rupture and discharge purulent material
Cellulitis
111
Most common portal of entry in the leg for cellulitis
Tinea pedis
112
Erythematous plaque, heat, swelling, highly characteristic raised indurated border, fever, systemic symptoms
Erysipelas
113
Ill-defined hypopigmented macules and/or plaque, with minimal sensory loss to light touch and temperature, low AFB bacterial counts on skin biopsy, (+) Lepromin skin test
Tuberculoid leprosy
114
Macules, papules, plaques, and nodules; nerves are enlarged and tender; progressive loss of hair; high AFB bacterial counts; leonine facies; (-) Lepromin skin test
Lepromatous leprosy
115
Loss of eyebrows in leprosy
Madarosis
116
Erythematous greasy yellow-brown scaling on scalp, eyebrows, ears, and perinasal areas; dandruff; can spread beyond the hairline to the forehead
Seborrheic dermatitis
117
Most common location of seborrheic dermatitis
Scalp (presenting as dandruff)
118
In infants, yellow-brown scaling on the scalp (seborrheic dermatitis of the scalp)
Cradle cap
119
Organism implicated in seborrheic dermatitis
Pityrosporum ovale (Malassezia genus)
120
Pruritic erythematous patches and plaques, scaling, lichenification on the flexural antecubital, popliteal areas in adults; face and extensors in infants and children
Atopic dermatitis
121
Linear transverse fold below the edge of the lower eyelids
Dennie-Morgan folds
122
Discrete coin-shaped erythematous, edematous vesicular and crusted patches on the lower extremities and extensor surfaces of the arms
Nummular eczema
123
Dermatitis sudden in onset, no previous history or exposure, symptoms of pain and burning usually from acidic or alkali substances
Irritant contact dermatitis
124
Most common site of involvement of Irritant Contact Dermatitis
Hands
125
Eczematous eruption following exposure to a known or unknown allergen, usually appearing first at the site of contact; associated with plants, nickel, and other compounds
Allergic contact dermatitis
126
Most common cause of allergic contact dermatitis
Exposure to plants
127
Erythematous papules and plaques covered with silvery scales on elbows, knees, and scalp; nail pits and other nail changes
Psoriasis
128
Pinpoint bleeding spots from exposure of dermal papillae when scales are scraped off in psoriasis
Auspitz sign
129
Major histopathologic findings in psoriasis
Test tubes on a rack (rete pegs, Munro microabscesses, Spongiform pustule of Kogoj)
130
Psoriasis involving the folds, recesses, and flexor areas such as axillae, groin, inframammary folds
Inverse psoriasis
131
Abrupt eruption of psoriasis lesions following acute infection such as streptococcal pharyngitis
Guttate psoriasis
132
Circular sharply circumscribed slightly erythematous dry scaly hypopigmented patches with advancing scaly border and central clearing producing annular outlines
Tinea
133
Most common fungal disease
Tinea pedis
134
Causes majority of tinea pedis
Trichophyton rubrum
135
Infection of the nail plate
Onychomycosis
136
Multiple scaly hyper- or hypopigmented macules over the chest, back, abdomen, and proximal extremities
Tinea versicolor
137
Etiologic cause of Tinea versicolor
Malassezia furfur
138
Classical microscopic finding in Tinea versicolor of short thick fungal hyphae and large numbers of variously sized spores
Spaghetti and meatballs
139
Salmon-colored macules and papules, collarette of scaling, scales tend to fold along the long axis of the line of stretch follows skin lines (hanging curtain or 'Christmas tree' sign), herald patch
Pityriasis rosea
140
Symmetrical, generalized, maculopapular eruptions, polymorphous, usually over the face, shoulders, flanks, and palms and soles with scaling, with suggestive sexual history, painless genital ulcer
Secondary syphilis
141
Papular lesions located on folds of moist skin usually around genitals and anus, may become hypertrophic, forming soft red mushroom-like mass, moist weeping gray surface
Condylomata lata
142
Most frequent manifestation of orolabial herpes
Fever blister or cold sore
143
Dew drop on rose petal, teardrop on an erythematous base, starting with macules progressing to vesicles, pustules, and crusting, examination of lesions shows different ages of healing usually starting on the trunk spreading centripetally outward
Varicella
144
Most common complication of varicella
Secondary bacterial infection
145
Erythema, papules, and plaques initially, mild pain a few days before, subsequently developing vesicles and blisters following a dermatomal distribution, painful
Herpes zoster
146
Vesicles on the side and tip of nose indicative of ophthalmic zoster
Hutchinson's sign
147
Involvement of the facial and auditory nerves by varicella zoster virus
Ramsay-Hunt syndrome
148
Large tense blisters on flexor surfaces, groin, axillae, and trunk, subepidermal blister, anti-hemidesmosome antibodies (Bullous pemphigoid antigens), linear IF pattern
Bullous pemphigoid
149
Suprabasal blisters, anti-desmosome (desmogleins) antibodies, lace-like IF pattern
Pemphigus vulgaris
150
Papules, vesicles, and pustules with honey-colored crusts
Impetigo contagiosa
151
Variant of impetigo, inadequately treated leading to punched-out ulcerative lesions
Ecthyma
152
Blisters, epidermal detachment resulting from epidermal necrosis, target lesions, dusky purpuric macules with mucosal involvement, <10% body surface area involved
Steven Johnson's Syndrome
153
>30% involvement of body surface area
Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis (TEN)
154
10-30% involvement of body surface area
SJS-TEN Overlap
155
Drugs commonly associated with SJS-TEN
Sulfa drugs, anticonvulsants, nevirapine, allopurinol, lamotrigine, oxicam NSAIDs
156
Multiple erythematous plaques with target or iris lesion morphology, usually precipitated by recent new drug ingestion, often triggered by mycoplasma pneumonia and HSV
Erythema multiforme
157
Manual pressure to the skin may elicit separation of the epidermis (found in staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome, SJS, TEN, and pemphigus vulgaris)
Nikolsky's sign
158
Most common pattern of drug-induced reaction
Morbilliform or maculopapular
159
Young children with individual lesions of smooth-surfaced, firm, dome-shaped, pearly, fleshy papules with central umbilication
Molluscum contagiosum
160
Numerous small eosinophilic and basophilic inclusion bodies found in histology of molluscum contagiosum
Henderson-Paterson bodies
161
Brown-black plaques with adherent greasy scales, stuck-on appearance
Seborrheic keratosis
162
Sudden appearance of multiple seborrheic keratoses suggestive of visceral and hematologic malignancy
Sign of Leser-Trélat
163
Erythematous macules and papules, macerated skin areas and satellite lesions, white friable patches on mucosal surfaces, immunocompromised states
Candidal infection
164
Increased thickness of the stratum corneum
Hyperkeratosis
165
Hyperkeratosis with retention of nuclei in the stratum corneum
Parakeratosis
166
Epidermal accumulation of edematous fluid in intracellular space
Spongiosis
167
Process referring to loss of cohesion between epidermal cells
Acantholysis
168
Violaceous flat-topped papules and plaques with gray lines (Wickham's striae)
Lichen planus
169
Condition in dermatological diseases wherein traumatized areas tend to develop new lesions (found in verruca and psoriasis)
Koebner phenomenon
170
Class 1 (Superpotent) corticosteroids
Clobetasol propionate (0.05%), Betamethasone dipropionate gel/ointment (0.05%), Fluocinonide cream (0.1%), Halobetasol propionate (0.05%)
171
Class 2 (High Potency) corticosteroids
Betamethasone dipropionate (0.05%), Clobetasol propionate solution (0.05%), Fluocinonide (0.05%), Mometasone furoate ointment (0.1%), Triamcinolone acetonide ointment (0.5%)
172
Class 3 (Medium-High Potency) corticosteroids
Betamethasone valerate ointment (0.1%), Fluticasone propionate ointment (0.005%), Triamcinolone acetonide cream (0.5%)
173
Class 4 (Medium Potency) corticosteroids
Fluocinolone acetonide ointment (0.025%), Mometasone furoate cream/lotion (0.1%)
174
Class 5 (Lower-Medium Potency) corticosteroids
Betamethasone dipropionate lotion (0.05%), Betamethasone valerate cream/lotion (0.1%), Fluocinolone acetonide cream (0.025%), Fluticasone propionate cream/lotion (0.05%), Triamcinolone acetonide ointment (0.025%)
175
Class 6 (Low Potency) corticosteroids
Desonide gel/ointment/cream/lotion (0.05%), Fluocinolone acetonide cream/solution (0.01%), Triamcinolone acetonide cream/lotion (0.025%)
176
Class 7 (Least Potent) corticosteroids
Topicals with hydrocortisone
177
178
What are the sites of fetal erythropoiesis and their respective timeframes?
Yolk sac (3-8 weeks), Liver (6 weeks-birth), Spleen (10-28 weeks), Bone marrow (18 weeks-adult)
179
What is the last RBC stage capable of mitosis?
Polychromatic erythroblast
180
What is the last stage of RBC development that retains a nucleus?
Orthochromatic erythroblast
181
What are immature RBCs released by the bone marrow into the blood called?
Reticulocytes
182
What hormone stimulates erythropoiesis, and where is it produced?
Erythropoietin (EPO), produced by the kidneys
183
What protein transfers iron in the blood?
Transferrin
184
What is the primary storage protein for iron?
Ferritin
185
What is the supplemental storage protein for iron?
Hemosiderin
186
What lab value distinguishes between iron deficiency anemia and anemia of chronic disease?
Serum ferritin (low in IDA, normal/high in ACD)
187
Which granulocyte releases histamine and heparin and is involved in allergic reactions?
Basophils
188
Which WBC increases in allergies and parasitic infections?
Eosinophils
189
Which WBC is primarily involved in bacterial infections and acute inflammation?
Neutrophils
190
What are the tissue-specific names for macrophages?
Osteoclasts (bone), Kupffer cells (liver), Histiocytes/Langerhans cells (skin), Microglia (brain), Alveolar macrophages (lungs)
191
What WBC abnormality is characteristic of Chediak-Higashi syndrome?
Giant granules in neutrophils due to microtubule dysfunction
192
What are platelets derived from, and how long do they last?
Derived from megakaryocytes; lifespan is 8-10 days
193
What is required for platelet adhesion?
Glycoprotein Ib and von Willebrand Factor
194
What is required for platelet aggregation?
Glycoprotein IIb-IIIa and fibrinogen
195
What clotting factors are dependent on vitamin K?
Factors II, VII, IX, and X
196
Which immunoglobulin is the largest and is involved in primary response?
IgM (Pentameric)
197
Which immunoglobulin is the smallest, involved in the secondary response, and crosses the placental barrier?
IgG
198
Which immunoglobulin is found in secretions such as saliva and Peyer’s patches?
IgA
199
Which immunoglobulin is involved in allergic reactions?
IgE
200
What are Auer rods, and what condition are they associated with?
Needle-like azurophilic granules in myeloblasts; seen in Acute Myelogenous Leukemia (AML)
201
What are Reed-Sternberg (RS) cells, and what disease are they characteristic of?
Giant B-cells with bilobed nuclei and prominent inclusions ('owl’s eye'); seen in Hodgkin’s Lymphoma
202
What histopathologic finding is characteristic of multiple myeloma?
Rouleaux formation of RBCs
203
What RBC shape is seen in hereditary spherocytosis?
Spherocytes (small, hyperchromic RBCs without central pallor)
204
What RBC abnormality is seen in G6PD deficiency?
Heinz bodies and Bite cells
205
What RBC shape is seen in sickle cell anemia?
Sickled cells
206
What RBC shape is characteristic of lead poisoning?
Basophilic stippling
207
What is the key enzyme deficiency in porphyria?
Uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase (UROD)
208
Which bleeding disorder is characterized by decreased platelet count and prolonged bleeding time, but normal PT/PTT?
Immune Thrombocytopenic Purpura (ITP)
209
Which bleeding disorder has prolonged PT and PTT but normal platelet count?
Vitamin K Deficiency
210
Which bleeding disorder has normal platelet count but prolonged PTT?
Hemophilia A, B, or C
211
Which bleeding disorder has decreased platelets and prolonged PT, PTT, and bleeding time?
Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)
212
What is the most abundant form of hemoglobin in adults?
Hemoglobin A
213
What hemoglobin form is measured for long-term glucose control?
HbA1c (>6.5% indicates diabetes)
214
What form of hemoglobin binds CO with high affinity?
Carboxyhemoglobin
215
What is the fetal hemoglobin composition?
α2γ2 (Fetal Hemoglobin)
216
What hemoglobinopathy results in gamma-tetramers?
Hemoglobin Barts (seen in alpha-thalassemia major)
217
What is the most significant risk factor for cancer overall?
Age.
218
What is the most common cancer worldwide and the most common cause of cancer death?
Lung cancer.
219
What is the second most common cancer worldwide?
Breast cancer.
220
What are tumor suppressor genes?
Genes involved in restraining cell growth; loss of function mutations lead to tumorigenesis.
221
What are oncogenes?
Mutated forms of genes involved in normal cellular growth, characterized by uncontrolled proliferation.
222
What is the most effective means of treating cancer?
Surgery.
223
What is teletherapy?
Delivery of radiation therapy from a distance.
224
What is brachytherapy?
Encapsulated sealed sources of radiation implanted directly or adjacent to a tumor.
225
What is systemic radiation therapy?
Radionuclides targeted to the site of the tumor.
226
What is the most significant risk factor for head and neck cancer?
Alcohol and smoking.
227
What is the most commonly used treatment for head and neck cancers?
Chemoradiotherapy.
228
What are the most effective drugs against highly emetogenic agents?
Serotonin receptor antagonists (e.g., ondansetron).
229
At what age should colorectal cancer screening start with sigmoidoscopy?
≥50 years, every 5 years.
230
At what age should colorectal cancer screening start with colonoscopy?
≥50 years, every 10 years.
231
At what age should women start Pap smear screening?
21 years old, every 3 years.
232
At what age should women start mammography for breast cancer screening?
Women 45-54 years: annually, Women ≥55: biennially or annually.
233
At what age should men discuss prostate cancer screening with a doctor?
≥50 years, earlier (45 years) if high risk.
234
Which tumor marker is associated with gastrointestinal stromal tumors (GIST)?
c-KIT (CD117).
235
Which tumor marker is associated with medullary thyroid cancer?
Calcitonin.
236
Which tumor marker is associated with hepatocellular carcinoma?
AFP (alpha-fetoprotein).
237
Which tumor marker is associated with prostate cancer?
PSA (prostate-specific antigen).
238
Which oncogene is associated with CML and ALL?
BCR-ABL.
239
Which tumor suppressor gene is associated with retinoblastoma and osteosarcoma?
Rb (Governor of the Cell Cycle).
240
Which virus is associated with Burkitt’s lymphoma?
Epstein-Barr virus (EBV).
241
Which carcinogen is associated with mesothelioma?
Asbestos.
242
Which type of lung cancer is most associated with smoking?
Small cell and squamous cell lung cancer.
243
What is the most common type of lung cancer overall?
Adenocarcinoma of the lung.
244
What syndrome results from lung tumors in the apex affecting C8 and T1-T2 nerve roots?
Pancoast syndrome.
245
Which lung cancer is associated with hypercalcemia due to ectopic PTH production?
Squamous cell carcinoma.
246
What is the treatment of choice for small cell lung cancer?
Chemotherapy.
247
What immunostains are used for adenocarcinoma of the lung?
TTF-1, napsin A.
248
What immunostains are used for mesothelioma?
CK5/6, calretinin, WT-1.
249
Which condition increases the risk of breast cancer?
Early menarche, late menopause, late first full-term pregnancy.
250
What is the best time for breast examination?
Days 5-7 of the menstrual cycle.
251
What is the most important prognostic variable in breast cancer?
Tumor stage.
252
Which monoclonal antibody is used for HER2-positive breast cancer?
Trastuzumab.
253
Which esophageal cancer is related to smoking and alcohol?
Squamous cell carcinoma.
254
Which type of gastric adenocarcinoma is characterized by linitis plastica?
Diffuse type.
255
Which gastric cancer metastasizes to the ovary?
Krukenberg tumor.
256
What is the primary treatment for gastric MALT lymphoma?
Eradication of H. pylori.
257
What is the most common site of metastasis for colon cancer?
Liver.
258
What is the chemotherapeutic backbone for colon cancer?
5-Fluorouracil (5-FU).
259
Which pancreatic cancer risk factor is the most significant?
Smoking.
260
Which primary liver cancer is common in young adults and children without liver disease?
Fibrolamellar HCC.
261
Which benign liver tumor is most common?
Hemangioma.
262
Which parasite is associated with cholangiocarcinoma?
Clonorchis sinensis.
263
What is the standard surgical procedure for pancreatic head tumors?
Whipple’s procedure.
264
What is the most common histologic type of bladder cancer?
Urothelial carcinoma.
265
Which parasite can cause squamous cell carcinoma of the bladder?
Schistosoma haematobium.
266
Which renal cancer histology is most common?
Clear cell carcinoma.
267
What is the classic triad of renal cell carcinoma?
Hematuria, abdominal pain, palpable abdominal mass.
268
Which therapy is used for prostate cancer risk reduction?
5-alpha reductase inhibitors (finasteride, dutasteride).
269
What is the Gleason scoring system used for?
Measuring histologic aggressiveness of prostate cancer.
270
What is the most common presentation of soft tissue sarcomas?
Asymptomatic mass.
271
What is the most common malignant bone tumor?
Plasma cell tumors.
272
Which primary bone tumor is common at the metaphysis of long bones?
Osteosarcoma.
273
What is the hallmark x-ray finding in osteosarcoma?
Codman triangle or sunburst pattern.
274
What is the single greatest determinant of melanoma metastasis?
Depth of invasion (Breslow thickness).
275
Which skin cancer is the most common?
Basal cell carcinoma.
276
Which skin cancer is associated with chronic sun exposure?
Squamous cell carcinoma.
277
Which chemotherapy drug is associated with hemorrhagic cystitis?
Cyclophosphamide (antidote: MESNA).
278
Which chemotherapy drug is associated with nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity?
Cisplatin (antidote: amifostine).
279
Which chemotherapy drug causes pulmonary fibrosis?
Bleomycin, Busulfan.
280
Which chemotherapy drug inhibits dihydrofolate reductase?
Methotrexate (antidote: leucovorin).
281
Which chemotherapy drug inhibits thymidylate synthase?
5-Fluorouracil (antidote: uridine).
282
Which chemotherapy drug causes dose-dependent sensory neuropathy?
Oxaliplatin.
283
283
283
283
What is the most significant risk factor for cancer overall?
Age.
284
What is the most common cancer worldwide and the most common cause of cancer death?
Lung cancer.
285
What is the second most common cancer worldwide?
Breast cancer.
286
What are tumor suppressor genes?
Genes involved in restraining cell growth; loss of function mutations lead to tumorigenesis.
287
What are oncogenes?
Mutated forms of genes involved in normal cellular growth, characterized by uncontrolled proliferation.
288
What is the most effective means of treating cancer?
Surgery.
289
What is teletherapy?
Delivery of radiation therapy from a distance.
290
What is brachytherapy?
Encapsulated sealed sources of radiation implanted directly or adjacent to a tumor.
291
What is systemic radiation therapy?
Radionuclides targeted to the site of the tumor.
292
What is the most significant risk factor for head and neck cancer?
Alcohol and smoking.
293
What is the most commonly used treatment for head and neck cancers?
Chemoradiotherapy.
294
What are the most effective drugs against highly emetogenic agents?
Serotonin receptor antagonists (e.g., ondansetron).
295
At what age should colorectal cancer screening start with sigmoidoscopy?
≥50 years, every 5 years.
296
At what age should colorectal cancer screening start with colonoscopy?
≥50 years, every 10 years.
297
At what age should women start Pap smear screening?
21 years old, every 3 years.
298
At what age should women start mammography for breast cancer screening?
Women 45-54 years: annually, Women ≥55: biennially or annually.
299
At what age should men discuss prostate cancer screening with a doctor?
≥50 years, earlier (45 years) if high risk.
300
Which tumor marker is associated with gastrointestinal stromal tumors (GIST)?
c-KIT (CD117).
301
Which tumor marker is associated with medullary thyroid cancer?
Calcitonin.
302
Which tumor marker is associated with hepatocellular carcinoma?
AFP (alpha-fetoprotein).
303
Which tumor marker is associated with prostate cancer?
PSA (prostate-specific antigen).
304
Which oncogene is associated with CML and ALL?
BCR-ABL.
305
Which tumor suppressor gene is associated with retinoblastoma and osteosarcoma?
Rb (Governor of the Cell Cycle).
306
Which virus is associated with Burkitt’s lymphoma?
Epstein-Barr virus (EBV).
307
Which carcinogen is associated with mesothelioma?
Asbestos.
308
Which type of lung cancer is most associated with smoking?
Small cell and squamous cell lung cancer.
309
What is the most common type of lung cancer overall?
Adenocarcinoma of the lung.
310
What syndrome results from lung tumors in the apex affecting C8 and T1-T2 nerve roots?
Pancoast syndrome.
311
Which lung cancer is associated with hypercalcemia due to ectopic PTH production?
Squamous cell carcinoma.
312
What is the treatment of choice for small cell lung cancer?
Chemotherapy.
313
What immunostains are used for adenocarcinoma of the lung?
TTF-1, napsin A.
314
What immunostains are used for mesothelioma?
CK5/6, calretinin, WT-1.
315
Which condition increases the risk of breast cancer?
Early menarche, late menopause, late first full-term pregnancy.
316
What is the best time for breast examination?
Days 5-7 of the menstrual cycle.
317
What is the most important prognostic variable in breast cancer?
Tumor stage.
318
Which monoclonal antibody is used for HER2-positive breast cancer?
Trastuzumab.
319
Which esophageal cancer is related to smoking and alcohol?
Squamous cell carcinoma.
320
Which type of gastric adenocarcinoma is characterized by linitis plastica?
Diffuse type.
321
Which gastric cancer metastasizes to the ovary?
Krukenberg tumor.
322
What is the primary treatment for gastric MALT lymphoma?
Eradication of H. pylori.
323
What is the most common site of metastasis for colon cancer?
Liver.
324
What is the chemotherapeutic backbone for colon cancer?
5-Fluorouracil (5-FU).
325
Which pancreatic cancer risk factor is the most significant?
Smoking.
326
Which primary liver cancer is common in young adults and children without liver disease?
Fibrolamellar HCC.
327
Which benign liver tumor is most common?
Hemangioma.
328
Which parasite is associated with cholangiocarcinoma?
Clonorchis sinensis.
329
What is the standard surgical procedure for pancreatic head tumors?
Whipple’s procedure.
330
What is the most common histologic type of bladder cancer?
Urothelial carcinoma.
331
Which parasite can cause squamous cell carcinoma of the bladder?
Schistosoma haematobium.
332
Which renal cancer histology is most common?
Clear cell carcinoma.
333
What is the classic triad of renal cell carcinoma?
Hematuria, abdominal pain, palpable abdominal mass.
334
Which therapy is used for prostate cancer risk reduction?
5-alpha reductase inhibitors (finasteride, dutasteride).
335
What is the Gleason scoring system used for?
Measuring histologic aggressiveness of prostate cancer.
336
What is the most common presentation of soft tissue sarcomas?
Asymptomatic mass.
337
What is the most common malignant bone tumor?
Plasma cell tumors.
338
Which primary bone tumor is common at the metaphysis of long bones?
Osteosarcoma.
339
What is the hallmark x-ray finding in osteosarcoma?
Codman triangle or sunburst pattern.
340
What is the single greatest determinant of melanoma metastasis?
Depth of invasion (Breslow thickness).
341
Which skin cancer is the most common?
Basal cell carcinoma.
342
Which skin cancer is associated with chronic sun exposure?
Squamous cell carcinoma.
343
Which chemotherapy drug is associated with hemorrhagic cystitis?
Cyclophosphamide (antidote: MESNA).
344
Which chemotherapy drug is associated with nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity?
Cisplatin (antidote: amifostine).
345
Which chemotherapy drug causes pulmonary fibrosis?
Bleomycin, Busulfan.
346
Which chemotherapy drug inhibits dihydrofolate reductase?
Methotrexate (antidote: leucovorin).
347
Which chemotherapy drug inhibits thymidylate synthase?
5-Fluorouracil (antidote: uridine).
348
Which chemotherapy drug causes dose-dependent sensory neuropathy?
Oxaliplatin.
