PLATINUM FLASHCARDS
Neuro Endo Nephro Cardio (216 cards)
1
Q
What phase of the cardiac cycle is preceded by the P-wave and causes an increase in atrial pressure?
A
Atrial contraction
2
Q
Which wave is seen in the venous pulse curve during atrial contraction?
A
a wave
3
Q
What event marks the beginning of isovolumetric ventricular contraction?
A
Closure of the mitral valve
4
Q
During which phase of the cardiac cycle does the aortic valve close, followed by closure of the pulmonic valve?
A
Isovolumetric ventricular relaxation
5
Q
What is the longest phase of the cardiac cycle?
A
Reduced ventricular filling (diastasis)
6
Q
What is the equation for Blood Pressure?
A
Blood Pressure = Cardiac Output x Total Peripheral Resistance (TPR)
7
Q
How is Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP) calculated?
A
MAP = Diastolic BP + 1/3 (Systolic BP - Diastolic BP)
8
Q
What law describes the relationship between blood viscosity, vessel length, and radius in determining resistance?
A
Poiseuille’s Law
9
Q
What does Starling’s Equation determine?
A
Net fluid movement in capillaries
10
Q
What is the Abdominojugular Reflex and what is a positive response?
A
Sustained rise of >3 cm in JVP during firm abdominal pressure
11
Q
Which murmur is intensified during inspiration?
A
Carvallo Sign (Tricuspid regurgitation murmur)
12
Q
What is a Corrigan Pulse?
A
A rapidly rising ‘water-hammer’ pulse that collapses suddenly in aortic regurgitation
13
Q
What is the classic auscultatory finding in aortic regurgitation?
A
Diastolic decrescendo murmur
14
Q
What is Quincke’s Pulse?
A
Capillary pulsations in the nail bed seen in aortic regurgitation
15
Q
What is the most widely used test for diagnosing ischemic heart disease (IHD)?
A
12-lead ECG during exercise (stress test)
16
Q
What is the gold standard for assessing LV mass and volume?
A
MRI
17
Q
What is the diagnostic test of choice for assessing small valvular lesions like vegetations?
A
Transesophageal echocardiography
18
Q
What are the three principal ECG features of Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome?
A
Short PR interval, Delta wave, Prolonged QRS duration
19
Q
What is the most common sustained arrhythmia?
A
Atrial fibrillation
20
Q
What is the most common cause of sudden cardiac death?
A
Ventricular fibrillation
21
Q
Which arrhythmia is associated with polymorphic ventricular tachycardia and prolonged QT?
A
Torsades de Pointes
22
Q
Which medication is contraindicated in WPW syndrome?
A
Digoxin
23
Q
What are the cardinal symptoms of heart failure?
A
Fatigue and shortness of breath
24
Q
What is the most common cause of heart failure in industrialized countries?
A
Coronary artery disease and hypertension
25
What drug class is the cornerstone of pharmacologic therapy for HFrEF?
RAAS blockers (ACE inhibitors, ARBs, ARNI) and beta-blockers
26
Which diuretic class is primarily used to control congestion in HFpEF?
Loop diuretics
27
What is the hallmark auscultatory finding of mitral stenosis?
Opening snap followed by a diastolic rumbling murmur
28
What are the three cardinal symptoms of aortic stenosis?
Syncope, Angina, Dyspnea (SAD)
29
What valvular pathology is common in IV drug users?
Tricuspid regurgitation
30
What is the most common congenital heart defect recognized at birth?
Ventricular septal defect (VSD)
31
Which congenital heart defect is associated with Turner Syndrome?
Coarctation of the Aorta (CoA)
32
What is the first-line therapy for Eisenmenger Syndrome?
Pulmonary vasodilators (e.g., Sildenafil, Bosentan)
33
Which congenital heart defect is characterized by an egg-on-a-string appearance on CXR?
Transposition of the Great Arteries (TGA)
34
What is the most common cause of myocardial infarction?
Atherosclerotic plaque rupture with thrombosis
35
What is the preferred biomarker for diagnosing myocardial infarction?
Cardiac troponins (T and I)
36
What is the treatment goal for STEMI patients in PCI-capable hospitals?
Door-to-balloon time ≤90 minutes
37
What drug class is contraindicated in STEMI patients due to increased myocardial rupture risk?
NSAIDs (except aspirin) and corticosteroids
38
What is the most common cause of secondary hypertension?
Primary renal disease
39
Which lifestyle modification is the most effective for reducing hypertension?
Weight loss
40
What is the classic symptom of Peripheral Artery Disease (PAD)?
Intermittent claudication
41
What is the cutoff ABI diagnostic of PAD?
ABI <0.90
42
What is the hallmark of rheumatic carditis?
Valvular damage
43
What is the most common cause of mitral stenosis?
Rheumatic heart disease
44
What is the classic rash of acute rheumatic fever?
Erythema marginatum
45
What is the pathognomonic histological finding in rheumatic heart disease?
Aschoff bodies
46
What is the most common pathology associated with ascending aortic aneurysms?
Medial degeneration
47
What is the most common cause of secondary lymphedema worldwide?
Filariasis
48
What condition is associated with a widened mediastinum on CXR and sudden onset of tearing chest pain?
Aortic dissection
49
Which drug is used to lower triglycerides in metabolic syndrome?
Fibrates
50
What is the primary cause of out-of-hospital death in STEMI patients?
Ventricular fibrillation
51
Which medication class is the mainstay for treating Prinzmetal's angina?
Calcium channel blockers
52
What is the site of erythropoietin (EPO) production?
Interstitial cells of the peritubular capillaries.
53
What cells absorb Na+ and H2O and secrete K+ in the late distal tubule?
Principal cells.
54
What cells absorb K+ and secrete H+ in the late distal tubule?
Intercalated cells.
55
What structure detects decreased BP or decreased GFR?
Macula Densa in the distal tubule.
56
What hormone is released by juxtaglomerular (JG) cells in response to decreased BP?
Renin.
57
What enzyme converts Angiotensin I to Angiotensin II?
Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme (ACE) in the lungs.
58
What are the actions of ADH via V1 receptors?
Vasoconstriction of systemic arterioles leading to increased TPR and BP.
59
What are the actions of ADH via V2 receptors?
Insertion of aquaporins in the collecting ducts, increasing water reabsorption.
60
What triggers ADH secretion?
Increased plasma osmolarity (main trigger), decreased blood volume, decreased blood pressure.
61
What is the normal filtration fraction (FF)?
20% (FF = GFR/Renal Plasma Flow).
62
What happens to FF with efferent arteriole vasoconstriction?
FF increases.
63
What is the best imaging test for nephrolithiasis?
Helical CT scan without contrast.
64
What is the most common cause of AKI?
Prerenal Azotemia.
65
What are the hallmarks of nephrotic syndrome? (Mnemonic: EPAL)
Edema, Proteinuria (>3.5g/day), hypoAlbuminemia, hyperLipidemia.
66
What are the hallmarks of nephritic syndrome? (Mnemonic: OHHA)
Oliguria, Hematuria, Hypertension, Azotemia.
67
What is the most common renal imaging study?
Renal ultrasound.
68
What is the leading cause of ESRD?
Diabetes mellitus.
69
What is the most common form of renal replacement therapy for AKI?
Hemodialysis.
70
What is the best potential treatment for complete renal rehabilitation?
Kidney transplantation.
71
What are clear indications for dialysis in CKD patients?
Uremic pericarditis, encephalopathy, refractory hyperkalemia, volume overload.
72
What is the gold standard for diagnosis of nephrolithiasis?
Non-contrast helical CT scan.
73
What is the most common cause of acute tubular necrosis (ATN)?
Ischemia and nephrotoxins.
74
What are the three categories of acute kidney injury (AKI)?
Prerenal, Intrinsic, Postrenal.
75
What is the hallmark of AKI?
Elevated BUN and creatinine with decreased urine output.
76
What is the classic sign of rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis (RPGN)?
Crescentic glomerulonephritis.
77
What is the leading cause of nephrotic syndrome in adults?
Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis (FSGS).
78
What hormone increases blood glucose and has direct and indirect effects via IGF-1?
Growth Hormone (GH).
79
What inhibits prolactin secretion?
Dopamine (Prolactin Inhibiting Hormone, PIH).
80
What is the primary function of thyroid hormone?
Increases BMR, stimulates Na+/K+ ATPase, increases cerebration, enhances β1 receptor activity in the heart.
81
What is the main action of aldosterone?
Increases Na+ reabsorption, K+ secretion, and H+ secretion in the kidney.
82
What is the most common type of thyroid cancer?
Papillary Thyroid Carcinoma.
83
What is the gold standard for diagnosing diabetes mellitus?
HbA1c > 6.5% or Fasting Plasma Glucose (FPG) > 126 mg/dL.
84
What is the classic triad of pheochromocytoma?
Episodic headache, sweating, tachycardia.
85
What are the three ketone bodies in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?
Acetoacetate, β-hydroxybutyrate, Acetone.
86
What is the primary goal in diabetes management?
HbA1c < 7.0%.
87
What is the most common cause of hypercalcemia?
Hyperparathyroidism.
88
What is the leading cause of Cushing's syndrome?
ACTH-producing pituitary adenoma (Cushing disease).
89
What are the microvascular complications of diabetes?
Retinopathy, neuropathy, nephropathy.
90
What are the macrovascular complications of diabetes?
Coronary heart disease, peripheral arterial disease, cerebrovascular disease.
91
What is the preferred screening test for osteoporosis?
Dual Energy X-ray Absorptiometry (DXA).
92
What is the site of erythropoietin (EPO) production?
Interstitial cells of the peritubular capillaries.
93
What cells absorb Na+ and H2O and secrete K+ in the late distal tubule?
Principal cells.
94
What cells absorb K+ and secrete H+ in the late distal tubule?
Intercalated cells.
95
What structure detects decreased BP or decreased GFR?
Macula Densa in the distal tubule.
96
What hormone is released by juxtaglomerular (JG) cells in response to decreased BP?
Renin.
97
What enzyme converts Angiotensin I to Angiotensin II?
Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme (ACE) in the lungs.
98
What are the actions of ADH via V1 receptors?
Vasoconstriction of systemic arterioles leading to increased TPR and BP.
99
What are the actions of ADH via V2 receptors?
Insertion of aquaporins in the collecting ducts, increasing water reabsorption.
100
What triggers ADH secretion?
Increased plasma osmolarity (main trigger), decreased blood volume, decreased blood pressure.
101
What is the normal filtration fraction (FF)?
20% (FF = GFR/Renal Plasma Flow).
102
What happens to FF with efferent arteriole vasoconstriction?
FF increases.
103
What is the best imaging test for nephrolithiasis?
Helical CT scan without contrast.
104
What is the most common cause of AKI?
Prerenal Azotemia.
105
What are the hallmarks of nephrotic syndrome? (Mnemonic: EPAL)
Edema, Proteinuria (>3.5g/day), hypoAlbuminemia, hyperLipidemia.
106
What are the hallmarks of nephritic syndrome? (Mnemonic: OHHA)
Oliguria, Hematuria, Hypertension, Azotemia.
107
What is the most common renal imaging study?
Renal ultrasound.
108
What is the leading cause of ESRD?
Diabetes mellitus.
109
What is the most common form of renal replacement therapy for AKI?
Hemodialysis.
110
What is the best potential treatment for complete renal rehabilitation?
Kidney transplantation.
111
What are clear indications for dialysis in CKD patients?
Uremic pericarditis, encephalopathy, refractory hyperkalemia, volume overload.
112
What is the gold standard for diagnosis of nephrolithiasis?
Non-contrast helical CT scan.
113
What is the most common cause of acute tubular necrosis (ATN)?
Ischemia and nephrotoxins.
114
What are the three categories of acute kidney injury (AKI)?
Prerenal, Intrinsic, Postrenal.
115
What is the hallmark of AKI?
Elevated BUN and creatinine with decreased urine output.
116
What is the classic sign of rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis (RPGN)?
Crescentic glomerulonephritis.
117
What is the leading cause of nephrotic syndrome in adults?
Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis (FSGS).
118
What hormone increases blood glucose and has direct and indirect effects via IGF-1?
Growth Hormone (GH).
119
What inhibits prolactin secretion?
Dopamine (Prolactin Inhibiting Hormone, PIH).
120
What is the primary function of thyroid hormone?
Increases BMR, stimulates Na+/K+ ATPase, increases cerebration, enhances β1 receptor activity in the heart.
121
What is the main action of aldosterone?
Increases Na+ reabsorption, K+ secretion, and H+ secretion in the kidney.
122
What is the most common type of thyroid cancer?
Papillary Thyroid Carcinoma.
123
What is the gold standard for diagnosing diabetes mellitus?
HbA1c > 6.5% or Fasting Plasma Glucose (FPG) > 126 mg/dL.
124
What is the classic triad of pheochromocytoma?
Episodic headache, sweating, tachycardia.
125
What are the three ketone bodies in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?
Acetoacetate, β-hydroxybutyrate, Acetone.
126
What is the primary goal in diabetes management?
HbA1c < 7.0%.
127
What is the most common cause of hypercalcemia?
Hyperparathyroidism.
128
What is the leading cause of Cushing's syndrome?
ACTH-producing pituitary adenoma (Cushing disease).
129
What are the microvascular complications of diabetes?
Retinopathy, neuropathy, nephropathy.
130
What are the macrovascular complications of diabetes?
Coronary heart disease, peripheral arterial disease, cerebrovascular disease.
131
What is the preferred screening test for osteoporosis?
Dual Energy X-ray Absorptiometry (DXA).
132
Alpha-1 Receptors (α1) mechanism of action
Gq protein, increased IP3/Ca2+, causes smooth muscle contraction
133
Alpha-2 Receptors (α2) mechanism of action
Gi protein, decreased cAMP, reuptake of NE or smooth muscle relaxation
134
Beta-1 Receptors (β1) mechanism of action
Gs protein, increased cAMP, excitation in the heart and kidneys
135
Beta-2 Receptors (β2) mechanism of action
Gs protein, increased cAMP, smooth muscle relaxation
136
Nicotinic receptor (NM)
Found in skeletal muscle MEP, binds with ACh, opens Na-K channel
137
Nicotinic receptor (NN)
Found in autonomic ganglia (dendrites of postganglionic neurons), opens Na-K channel
138
Muscarinic receptor (M1)
Located in CNS, binds with ACh, Gq, increases IP3/Ca2+
139
Muscarinic receptor (M2)
Located in the heart, binds with ACh, Gi, decreases cAMP
140
Muscarinic receptor (M3)
Located in glands and smooth muscles, binds with ACh, Gq, increases IP3/Ca2+
141
Neurotransmitter used in neuromuscular junction and autonomic nervous system
Acetylcholine
142
Neurotransmitter secreted by postganglionic sympathetic neurons
Norepinephrine
143
Neurotransmitter mainly secreted by the adrenal medulla with greater β2 effect
Epinephrine
144
Neurotransmitter secreted by the substantia nigra for fine-tuned movement and by the hypothalamus to decrease prolactin
Dopamine
145
Neurotransmitter derived from tryptophan, associated with depression when low
Serotonin
146
Neurotransmitter that is a permeant gas, inhibitory NT, and vasodilator
Nitric Oxide (NO)
147
Main inhibitory neurotransmitter of the spinal cord
Glycine
148
Main inhibitory neurotransmitter of the brain
GABA
149
Main excitatory neurotransmitter of the brain
Glutamate
150
Cranial nerve responsible for eyelid opening, most extraocular muscle contraction, accommodation, and pupillary constriction
CN III (Oculomotor nerve)
151
Cranial nerve responsible for taste in the anterior 2/3 of the tongue
CN VII (Facial nerve)
152
Cranial nerve responsible for general sensation of the anterior 2/3 of the tongue
CN V (Trigeminal nerve)
153
Most common primary headache syndromes
Migraine, tension-type headache, and cluster headache
154
Most disabling headache
Migraine
155
Core feature of cluster headache
Periodicity
156
Most serious cause of secondary headache
Subarachnoid hemorrhage
157
Most common malignant brain tumor in childhood
Medulloblastoma
158
Most common malignant brain tumor overall
Glioblastoma (Grade IV astrocytoma)
159
Most common cause of brain metastases
Lung and breast cancer
160
Most common metastatic tumor associated with intracerebral hemorrhage
Choriocarcinoma, melanoma, renal cell carcinoma
161
Best imaging modality for brain metastases
MRI
162
Classic clinical triad of meningitis
Fever, headache, nuchal rigidity
163
Most common bacterial cause of meningitis in adults >20 years
Streptococcus pneumoniae
164
Most common cause of viral meningitis
Enteroviruses
165
Most common symptom of brain abscess
Headache
166
Most common seizure type resulting from metabolic derangements
Generalized tonic-clonic seizures
167
Most common focal seizure syndrome
Mesial Temporal Lobe Epilepsy Syndrome
168
Best initial choice for generalized tonic-clonic seizures
Valproic acid, Lamotrigine, Levetiracetam
169
Most common cause of stroke
Hypertension
170
Gold standard imaging for stroke
MRI with diffusion-weighted imaging
171
Most common cause of hypertensive hemorrhage
Putamen (Sentinel sign: contralateral hemiparesis)
172
Most common cause of peripheral neuropathy
Diabetes mellitus
173
Most common cranial mononeuropathy in diabetes
Facial nerve palsy (CN VII)
174
Most common movement disorder
Essential tremor
175
Most common cause of Parkinsonism
Parkinson’s Disease (PD)
176
Mainstay therapy for Parkinson’s Disease
Levodopa-Carbidopa
177
Most common form of hyperkinetic drug reaction
Dystonia
178
Gold standard test for Wilson’s Disease
Liver biopsy
179
Most frequently abused drug
Ethanol
180
Antidote for benzodiazepine overdose
Flumazenil
181
Most common side effect of dipyridamole
Headache
182
Most common toxic side effect of chemotherapy after myelosuppression
Neurotoxicity
183
First-line drugs for Generalized Tonic-Clonic Seizures
Lamotrigine, Valproic acid
184
Alternative drugs for Generalized Tonic-Clonic Seizures
Zonisamide, Phenytoin, Levetiracetam, Carbamazepine, Oxcarbazepine, Topiramate, Phenobarbital, Primidone, Felbamate
185
First-line drugs for Focal Seizures
Lamotrigine, Carbamazepine, Oxcarbazepine, Phenytoin, Levetiracetam
186
Alternative drugs for Focal Seizures
Zonisamide, Brivaracetam, Topiramate, Valproic acid, Tiagabine, Gabapentin, Lacosamide, Phenobarbital, Primidone, Felbamate
187
First-line drugs for Typical Absence Seizures
Valproic acid, Ethosuximide, Lamotrigine
188
Alternative drugs for Typical Absence Seizures
Lamotrigine, Clonazepam
189
First-line drugs for Myoclonic and Atypical Absence Syndromes
Valproic acid, Lamotrigine, Topiramate
190
Alternative drugs for Myoclonic and Atypical Absence Syndromes
Clonazepam, Felbamate, Clobazam, Rufinamide
191
Effects of GABA-A receptor
Increases Cl- influx, hyperpolarization, inhibition of neuronal firing
192
Effects of GABA-B receptor
Increases K+ efflux, decreases Ca2+ influx, inhibits neurotransmitter release
193
Drugs causing Disulfiram-like reactions
Chlorpropamide, CefoPerazone, CefaMandole, CefoTetan, Procarbazine, Metronidazole
194
Mechanism of Disulfiram-like reaction
Inhibition of aldehyde dehydrogenase leading to accumulation of acetaldehyde
195
Most common form of Parkinsonism
Parkinson's Disease (PD)
196
Most common cause of Familial PD
Mutations of the LRRK2 gene
197
Most common cause of secondary Parkinsonism
Dopamine blocking agents
198
Mainstay of therapy for Parkinson’s Disease
Levodopa-Carbidopa
199
Most common cause of peripheral neuropathy
Diabetes mellitus
200
Most common movement disorder
Essential tremor
201
Most common systemic disorder that causes chorea
Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)
202
Most common acute hyperkinetic drug reaction
Dystonia
203
Most common subacute drug reaction
Akathisia
204
Gold standard test for Wilson’s Disease
Liver biopsy
205
Most common primary headache syndromes
Migraine, tension-type headache, and cluster headache
206
Most serious cause of secondary headache
Subarachnoid hemorrhage
207
Classic triad of meningitis
Fever, headache, nuchal rigidity
208
Most common bacterial cause of meningitis in adults
Streptococcus pneumoniae
209
Most common cause of viral meningitis
Enteroviruses
210
Most common seizure type in epilepsy
Generalized tonic-clonic seizures
211
Most common focal seizure syndrome
Mesial Temporal Lobe Epilepsy Syndrome
212
Most common cause of ischemic stroke
Atherosclerosis
213
Most common cause of hypertensive hemorrhage
Putamen (Sentinel sign: contralateral hemiparesis)
214
Gold standard imaging for stroke
MRI with diffusion-weighted imaging
215
Most common site of hypertensive intracerebral hemorrhage
Basal ganglia (putamen, thalamus, pons, cerebellum)
216
Best imaging modality for brain metastases
MRI
