Policies And Procedures Flashcards
(258 cards)
1
Q
Who is unit officer?
A
Highest ranking ices certified person assigned to fire rescue unit
2
Q
NFIRS
A
National fires incident reporting system
3
Q
Short forms are to be kept in secure place until entered into epcr, and then sent to ___ in sealed envelope
A
Records custodian
4
Q
Hard copies of incident reports or NFIRS forms should be ____ after completing incident and unit reports
A
Shredded and destroyed
5
Q
Requests for ems reports must be transmitted in writing to _____
A
MCFRS records custodian
6
Q
Who is responsible for ensuring a unit completes their unit report?
A
Station Officer
7
Q
Who is the official custodian of records?
A
Fire chief
8
Q
At what time must station officer query RMS to ensure reports are complete?
A
1900
9
Q
Reports must be completed by —-
A
End of shift
10
Q
Ems reports must be posted before
A
Unit leaves hospital
11
Q
In mass casualty situations, an epcr report must be completed for each ptient no greater than ____ after the incident. Unless authorized in writing by incident commander
A
24 hours
12
Q
Under extenuating circumstances the battalion or lfrd chief may grant an extension to complete unit and incident reports no greater than ___
A
7 days
13
Q
Q when transferring ot to hospital and using short forms you must
A
-leave short form at hospital
- complete epcr within 7 days
- send short form with signatures to records custodian at PSHQ
14
Q
Is employee eligible for disability leave for injury obtained while volunteering in county?
A
No
15
Q
Employees can not volunteer where they work
A
True
16
Q
Can employees participate in LOSAP?
A
Yes
17
Q
Can an employee volunteer on a specialty team in county?
A
No
18
Q
If employee is receiving workers comp for injury obtained while volunteering, they must be placed in ___ status
A
LWOP
19
Q
Employees must complete ____ annually before volunteering
A
Application for volunteer service
20
Q
Executive regulation
A
Approved by county council
21
Q
Draft documents must be circulated to division chiefs for comments and returned to document control officer within ____ days
A
30 days
22
Q
Signed fcgo’s are sent to___ commission for approval or fisdap rogal
A
fire and emergency services FESC
23
Q
Critical injury/illness
A
Illness or injury that requires admission to hospital or extensive recoup time.
24
Q
When not possible to notify family by one’s self ____ is to make the notification
A
Supervisory or Chief officer
25
Class A uniform
Cap, cap badge, dress blouse, long sleeve dress shirt, tie, dress pants, belt, black shoes, badge, collar insignia, pins, name plate, raincoat
26
Class b
Same as a WITHOUT DRESS BLOUSE AND DRESS HAT
27
Class c
Outermost garmet must have collar
1030-2100
28
Class d
Business attire
29
Class E
PT
can be worn to FROMS ipe, work details, hose testing as approved by battalion chief
30
Mock turtleneck
Short neck, can’t be worn as outer garmet unless class E uniform
31
Cap
Not be worn when conducting inspections, meeting public during non emergency situations or while in any building other than fire rescue station
32
Lost stolen or damaged property up to ____ must have a police report filed?
100$
33
Property request forms must be approved by supervisor (not used during standard allotment)
True
34
No two patches on one sleeve except the ___ on the ___ sleeve
Honor guard, left sleeve
35
Award pin placement
Above nameplate
36
Mark uniform with ____ not visible on outside of uniform
Fire department id number
37
You may return newly issued items within ____ days
30 days
38
Those who seperate from the department have ____ days to turn in all issued uniform after seperation date.
7
39
Picking up allotment for another employee.
Same station, sign receipt form, give to other employee and have them sign receipt form and inter office mail it back.
40
Station Officer
Senior officer
41
Station officers must schedule ___ activity periods per shift. What are they. How long?
4. App checks, morning, afternoon, evening. 1-2 hours.
May include: PT, Drills, Fire prevention, Pub Ed, training, maintenance etc
42
When must lineup be conducted?
0700 or when significant personnel changes occur during the shift
43
Log book day
0001-2400
44
Accidental death
Due to trauma or injury that does not appear suspicious
45
Natural death
Appears to be from a Previously known Medical condition
46
SIDS age
Less than 1 year
47
Suspicious death
May have been from violence abuse neglect or foul play
48
Serious violation
Threat to public or personnel safety. Undermines public trust and confidence in fire rescue service
Example: negligent act, omission, theft, assault, battery
49
Unbecoming conduct
Improper behavior
50
Obey supervisor order UNLESS
Require you to commit illegal, reckless, unethical act
51
If supervisory issues order that conflicts with previously issued order….
Call attention to conflicting order. If conflicting order is not riscinded, it will stand.
52
Fire administrator must begin investigating serious violation within ____ of notification of violation
24 hours
53
If fire administrator is not please with result of serious violation by Dfrs or lfrd, they must notify in writing within ____ of notice of action take
30 days
54
And disposition determined unsatisfactory by fire administrator must be referred to ____. Who will ____
Internal affairs officer
Present finding of facts to fire administrator who will then take appropriate action
55
The subject of a serious Serious violation complaint must be promptly notified of the allegation UNLESS
Allegations of criminal conduct, sexual harassment, title 7 violations, or other conduct which investigation procedures are covered by another law, regulation or policy
56
During investigation where subject is notified, they may have a representative present during investigative review so long as representation would not ____
Unreasonably delay the proceeding.
57
Two types of MCFRS incidents
Basic
Complex
58
Basic incidents
-unit officer can manage all aspects of call from start to finish
-does not require more than 1 outside agency
-no threat of harm to large numbers of people
-No special operations components
-can be resolved in less than 1 hour
-span of control 5 units or less
59
Complex incident
Where any 1 of basic incident principles is not true
60
Incident priorities
Life safety, incident stabilization, property conservation
61
All operations must be directed toward ____
Clearly defined and attainable objective
62
Risk
Relationship between hazards and harm
63
Unit officers are responsible for
- knowing location and action of all crew members
- developing and communicating action plan to unit
-acting in support of incident objectives and team effort
64
No personnel may enter hazard area before
-intervention teams in place
-size up conducted
-risk assessments conducted
-objectives developed and communicated
65
Demands of operational environment
Moral, mental, physical
66
Three core operational values
Commitment to duty
Respect for others and organization
Integrity
67
Effective leadership
-Decisive
-Recognize duty to act
-Accountable
-Refuse unnecessary risk but not risk averse
-Engaged in continuous learning
68
Defense in depth (scaled response)
As risk or complexity increases, so to resources
69
First arriving unit officer sets tone for incident operations. Subsequent operations must focus on _____
Supporting initial decision makers
70
Initiative
Action in the absence of orders
71
Situational awareness
Ability to identify, process and comprehend critical elements of information about what is happening at the incident
72
Two incident strategies
Offensive
Defensive
73
Offensive
Actively attempting to correct problem
Example: directing hose stream into burning structure, plugging leak
74
Defensive
Contain problem
Example: putting hose stream on threatened exposure, build containment around leak
75
Must not rule out suvivability of Al compartments based on conditions in ___
Single compartment
76
Operational success is
Application of operational doctorine, policies, procedures, training and education to create solutions
77
Incident Management System is intended to promote _____
Communication, coordination, accountability, effective action
78
MCFRS uses a ____ and ____ Incident management system
Modular and Scalable
79
Incident command process begins with ____
Scene size up
80
Operations must be directed toward ____
Clearly defined and attainable objectives
81
Second CCO primary role is to
Enhance situational awareness and cognitive bandwidth of IC
82
6 basic incident management functions
Situational awareness
Accountability
Effective communication
Risk assessment
Established objectives
Intiating and monitoring action
83
When ems unit officer establishes command, first arriving primary unit officer must ____
Assume command
84
One primary unit officer can not assume command from ____
Another primary unit officer
85
If command is passed from one primary unit officer to another, The new primary unit must have _____ command
stationary
86
Command can be passed ____ from primary unit to primary unit
Once
87
Maintaining stationary command from ______ is an option of last resort
Officer seat of the fire aparatus
88
Branch directors are responsible for ____, ____, and ____ of all assigned resources
Command, control, accountability
89
Groups
Function
90
Divisions
Geographical area
91
First use must be provided ___ mins after dispatch, and intervals not greater than ____ mins
10 mins, 10 mins
92
Tactical staging
Take assigned position, lay lines, provide required size up reports, remain in aparatus
93
Remote staging
Without passing last water source stage 600 ft or 2 blocks away. (Whichever is greater). Without passing last available water source
94
Base staging
Report to specific location determined by the incident commander
95
Who will be staging area manager?
First primary unit to arrive in staging
96
Staging manager responsibilities
Account for resources assigned to staging, assign units as appropriate to command when requested
97
In absence of direction from command on where to stage, units will ____ until called upon command
Remote stage
98
In a multip story structure, which floors are considered the exposures?
Two above and 1 below
99
Par checks are to be conducted at intervals not greater than ____ mins
20 mins
100
Five objectives common to initial actions on structure fires
Provide continued survival of occupants who may be trapped
Ensure immediate care of those on fireground in need of medical care
Prevent fire from spreading from its current location
Control movement of smoke
Reduce property loss
101
The structure fire appendix is optimized for
Residential compartment fires
102
How many command officers are in the standard response plan for a structure fire?
4 (2 must respond)
103
Rural response
6 engines, 3 tankers
104
Unit assignments for structure fire SOP are based on ____ not ____
Order of dispatch not order of arrival
105
3 types of occupant status
Accounted for
Not accounted for
Known to be trappped
106
The backup line must be charged regardless of ___
The status of water supply
107
When descending stairs during a basement fire, command must be notified and you must prepare to relocate if you experience
Flame, fire, or high heat along entry pathway not immediately suppressed by water flow
108
Whenever an interior attack is utilized a ___ of the structure must occur
Search
109
4 types of search
Primary- fire control ongoing
Secondary- after fire knocked preferably when you can see
Directed- credible information that somebody is trapped
High risk- directly above uncontrolled fire or below attic fire without protection of charged hose line
110
You must notify command and be acknowledged before initiating ____ and ____ searches
Directed and high risk
111
When must sprinklers be charged? (Should be charged immediately if they are part of the standpipe)
Visible smoke or fire
Water flow alarm
OIC directs them charged
112
What 2 things must the first due engine driver notify command via radio?
When supply line is charged.
When fire protection systems are charged.
113
On rural assignments what does the second due engine do?
Pump tank water to attack tanker
114
If the 1st or 3rd due engine takes their own hydrant, what should the 2nd and 4th due engines be or spared to do?
Augment their water supply
115
3rd due truck highrise box and designate ventilation stairwell
Pressurize all remaining stairwells
Develop ventilation plan
116
First due tanker job after collocating
Connect supply line to intake, connect discharge to 1st engine, connect supply line from 2nd engine to intake
117
2nd and 3rd tankers
Supply clappered Siamese with tank water
118
All crew members operating inside a structure fire must carry a ___and a ___
Hand light and a radio
119
First due truck must pressurize the ___
Attack stairwell
120
When fire is above 9th floor, consider placing fans ___ floors below the fire and at the base of the stairs
2 floors below
121
Who designates ventilation stairwell?
3rd due truck
122
When can personnel not use an elevator?
Location of fire is unknown
123
After completing lowest levels check, third due engine should move to ___
Floor above fire
124
When it is determined a fire is wind driven, it is forbidden from doing what two things?
Opening door from apartment to corridor
Opening door from corridor to stairwell
125
When corridor is clear, the door to the fire apartment should remain closed until…
Apartments immediately adjacent to the fire apartments are searched
Corridor is confirmed free of occupants
All doors to the hallway are confirmed closed
126
If necessary, Who designates the fire attack stairwell?
1st due engine
127
Ventilation stairwell is used to exhaust smoke from fire apartment out stairwell. It must be …..
Checked for occupants on all floors above the fire floor before ventilation begins
128
Who designates the attack stairwell?
First due engine
129
Elevators are not to be used if
Fire smoke or heat detected in the hoist way, shaft or elevator machine room
Hoist way smoke or heat detector indicator is activating
Fireman’s service is unavailable
Any incident ON OR BELOW the 5th floor
If in independant service mode
Non emergency service providers are on board
130
Before entering elevator, personnel must
Check hoistway
Note location of nearest stairwell
Note location and operation of emergency stop switch
Wear full PPE wit facepiece on ready to clip in
Ensure sufficient room for all to clip in
131
While using elevator, personnel must
Stop halfway to test fireman’s service, check orientation and recheck shaft
Connect facepiece if elevator fails to stop
132
If hydraulic ventilation is not successful, the next option is to …
Use apartment on opposite side to exhaust smoke through
133
Two categories of water supply
Urban rural
134
What is the critical flow rate?
The amount of water in GPM to suppress a fire in 30 seconds
135
Percentage of class a foam in initial suppression according to RIP F
0.25%
136
Which engine operates as a “defense in depth” for water supply operations?
5th due engine
137
The attack tanker operation (1st 2nd engine and 1st tanker) Carry’s between ____ and ____ gallons of water
4000 and 5000
138
Attack tanker operations are limited to ____GPM fire flow
500 GPM
139
In order to call “own hydrant” you must
Use preconnected soft sleeve
140
When must first arriving engine officer consider laying dual lines?
If they believe the fire may require master streams
141
Must the 3rd due engine lag dual lines if the first due does?
No
142
Which system should be charged first? Standpipe or sprinkler?
Standpipe
143
Who announces full site location?
First due engine
144
Whenever practical, who should develop the dump site?
3rd engine and second tanker
145
A relay may be attempted when there is a reliable water source at least ____ feet from the ____
3000 ft from the clappered Siamese
146
When should laying dual lines be considered in a relay?
Lengthy of relay exceeds 2000 ft
Required fire flow exceeds 1000 gpm
147
Cisterns less than ____ gallons can not be used as only fill site location
30,000 gallons
148
Each full site should be able to fill tankers at a rate of at least ____ GPM
1000
149
By ___ minute mark of aircraft emergency, crews should have located the scene of the emergency
20 min mark
150
ACRE
Assess
Control
Rescue
Evacuate
151
Initial emphasis in aircraft emergencies is on creating an _____
Evacuation corridor
152
Potomac TRACON
Potomac terminal Radar Approach Control Facility
153
Who is responsible for search operations within the county?
MCPD
154
Afrcc
Air Force Rescue Coordination Center
155
Initial entry crew aircraft emergency
First due engine first due special service
Isolate incident and establish rescue corridors
156
Appriach fixed wing aircraft from ____ degree angle from the nose or wing tip and rotary aircraft from ____ degree angle from the nose
Fixed 45
Rotary 90
157
ELT
emergency locator transmitter
158
What must be announced on aircraft incident when immediate life hazard is present?
Declare radio silence
Announce prescence of hazard
Announce number of personnel entering Hazard zone and their objective
Announce when personnel are clear
159
Who makes I total entry team and who is initial entry team leader for aircraft emergencies?
First engine first truck. First engine officer
160
Radio procedure for closing an airfield
Request airport manager, Potomac tracon, and ECC to announce “the runway at _____ is unsafe”
The IC should transmit the message on aircraft aviation radio via UNICOM channel
Message should be transmitted at 5 min intervals
161
What is the framework for thinking through initial moments of a mayday?
Pause, listen, look, light
162
4 tiers of rapid intervention
2 out
Ric
Rig
Special teams
163
2 out
Must be on scene and prepared to act before entry is made
One member of 2 out must maintain contact with initial entry team visually, verbally, or by radio as an ONLY FOCUS
2nd member must have gear on and scba immediately available
Second member may move hose outside of structure or place ladders
164
Ric
At least 2 firefighters
Must be on scene and prepared to act before 2 out is relieved
Primary purpose is to BEGIN RAPID INTERVENTION SIZEUP
May NOT engage in activities such as laddering or removing egress hazards unless necessary to immediately save a life or prevent an emergency from occurring
165
RIG
Rescue squad, aerial, als provider, second ems unit (if als provider is in chase car)
Once rig is compiled, may engage in proactive tasks as long as members are immediately available if needed
166
Tier 2 and higher teams must be led by a minimum of a ____ but preferably a ____
FireIII, Officer
167
Ems units from RID MUST remain available to render ems care to sick or injured persons
True
168
Who must bring rit bags to command post?
Units dispatched after initial alarm that hve rit bags
169
When may 2 out be forgone?
Known life hazard exists
170
If initial officer decides to forego 2 out they must make radio announcement saying what
Identifying units involved, their mission, and location
171
Once known life hazard has been resolved when 2 out is forgone, what must occur?
Units withdraw until 2 out is assembled
172
When must 2 out duties not be assigned to ems units?
If people require medical care
173
4 primary planning considerations for the RIG
Search
Protection
Building preparation
Extraction
174
When a mayday is called, when will the RIG engage?
When ordered to by IC. Must not engage until ordered
175
Initial search team of rig is composed of ___ personnel and their objectives are …..
3-4 personnel
Locate
Mark
Provide air
Prepare
Plan
176
When mayday is declared ECC will notify command ____ mins into mayday. At this time mark, command should do what?
15 mins into mayday. Should rotate rapid intervention crews
177
4 basic types of technical rescue
Rope, trench, confined space, structural collapse
178
4 objectives common to all technical rescue incidents?
Assess
Control
Rescue
Evacuate
179
General methods to reduce and mitigate risk for initial responding units during technical rescue
Establish IC
Identify and mark isolation zones
Develop and communicate incident objectives
Hazard ID and control
180
Control zones for
Trench
Rope
Confined space
Structural collapse
Trench
Hot 100’ from trench
Warm 100-250’ from trench
Cold beyond 250’ from trench
Rope
Varies based on fall hazards, debris etc
Confined space
Varies based on fall hazards, debris etc
Structural collapse
Minimum of 250’
Structures 4 stories or greater 500’ in all directions
181
When may first responder personnel enter a trench?
Protective systems are in place and there is no failure of these systems,
Atmosphere has been checked at multiple elevations and is clear,
Victems condition requires immediate extrication
182
First responder personnel may execute ___ rescues which are less than ___ degrees
Low angle, 45 degrees
183
Rappelling from any component of an aerial is prohibited
True
184
Fall arresting systems must be in place for anyone operating within ____ ft if an exposed area with a fall risk of greater than ___ ft
Within 10 ft, greater than 6 ft
185
Who is responsible for establishing and maintaining isolation zones?
Aerial
186
Role of squad in TRT calls
Make access to victems and calm and reassure them
187
Csx Mileposts preceded with letters _ _ for metropolitan subdivision
BA
188
Diseal electric locomotives diseal tank ____ gallons. Weight of cars ____
5,000 gallons, weighs over 100 tons
189
Left and right sides of car are determined by standing at ___ end and looking at ___ end. The ___ end has the handbrakes
B looking at A. B end has brakes
190
Document that says what train is carrying. Carried by ____
Consist, or shipping papers. Carried by conductor
191
Which commuter rail service accounts for number of passengers and crews aboard?
Amtrak
192
All requests for train stoppage must be made through ___ which is based out of ___
CSX, Jacksonville FL
193
After request to stop trains has been made, personnel should anticipate train movement for at least ___ mins
10 mins
194
According to heavy rail policy, what area is considered the roadway
Any area between fences or within 20 ft from track bed
195
No apparatus should be closer than ___ ft from the roadway at any time
30 ft
196
Unless there is a known life hazard, personnel must remain ___ ft away from roadway until train traffic has been controlled and there are lookouts in both directions ___ miles from the incident
30 ft
2 miles
197
When operating around a train, personnel should remain at least ____ ft from ends of train
20 ft
198
When fire involves locomotives personnel should ___
Activate fuel cutoff switch
Not enter locomotive engine room without permission of IC with consult of railroad personnel
Not direct hose down exhaust stack
199
Railroad lookouts must be equipped with ___ ___ min flares. Personnel should not be closer than ___ ft from trackbed
3, 30 min, 30 ft
200
If train is spotted, spotters must wave flares ____ until ____
Horizontally accross body
Until engineer acknowledges with 2 short horn blasts
201
If train fails to stop for lookout, activate EB and declare priority message of train not stopping
202
Who is responsible for locating the train conductor and escorting him to IC?
2nd due engine
203
Who is initial on scene lookout for heavy rail?
1st due aerial
204
Who is responsible for securing upright cars with handbrake in case of derailment and for choking switches?
1st due aerial
205
Rescue squad assignments on heavy rail
Begin process of rescue, assist with pt movements
206
Units aside from ____ should stage and wait orders of IC during heavy rail incidents
First 2 Engines, first aerial, rescue squad
207
3 types of swift water rescue
Swift water, flat water, ice
208
Swift vs flat water
Swift water moves faster than average person comfortably walks. Flat moves slower than average person comfortably walks
209
Three common occurances that form basis for water rescue IRP
Urban street flooding
Creek flooding
Flat water emergencies
210
Non swrt personnel are not permitted to connect pfd to rope unless ___
They are operating on ice
211
Incident has discretion to allow coats worn in warm zone (within 10 ft from waters edge) during
Ice rescue
212
Shallow water crossings are less than ___ inches deep, and must be minimum of ___
18 inches, boat crew
213
Only ___ may participate in ice rescue of animals
Swrt
214
Rescue sequence
Yell
Reach
Throw
Row
Go
215
Minimum PPE for water entry
Helmet, pfd, whistle, dry suit (if air water temp combo less than 120 degrees or water is contaminated)
216
Keyless ignition key fobs should be placed at least ___ ft from the vehicle
15 ft
217
A charged hosine of at least ____ diameter must be deployed during any extrication or when flammable liquids are present
1.5 inches
218
a group of ___ or more firefighters is considered a crew
2 or more
219
Downstream safety consists of teams of ____
Teams of 2 with water rescue ppe, radios, 2 throw bags each
220
Core operational approach for MCFRS operating on structure fires is
Fast water coordinated ventilation
221
According to definitions irp, what is the speed of flat water?
Less than 1 knot
222
Floor of care. What interventions are secondary to floor of care?
Assessment of rhythm, shocking, cpr, ventilations.
Other interventions secondary to floor of care: iv lines, meds
223
High rise definition
Structure 6 or more stories in height or 75 ft above to lowest fire sept vehicle access
224
Define inner circle
Work area around vehicles 10-15 ft in all directions
225
Definitions Keyless ignition- may be activists if key fob is within ___ ft of the vehicle
5 ft
226
Definitions known life hazard
Can see or hear person in distress or recieved information from ECC or bystander than person is in idlh atmosphere
227
Definitions Low angle rescue- rescuer and victem primarily supported by ___ not ___
Surface not tensioned rope system
228
Definitions roadway (metro)
Whithin tunnel walls, tlbetween fences, between safety railings, on aerial structures, in track areas of metro yards
229
Definitions roadway heavy rail
Area between fences or WITHIN 20 FT of track bed
230
Definitions Shallow water crossing pole
Round hard wood pole 1-2 inches diameter. 6-8 ft long. highly visible painting for first 18 inches on both sides
231
Spasm
S Stop
P Press
A Apply pads
S elect paddles
M metronome on
232
Define Still water
Not moving at all
233
Define Swift water
Moving greater than 1 knot. Takes less that 30 seconds to travel 50 ft
234
Trenches in excess of ___ ft must have protective systems in place prior to entry
5ft
235
Upstream spotters consist of teams of ____
2
236
Pats should be conducted every ___ mins for units operating in idlh environments
20 min intervals
237
If all are accounted for after a par the unit officer is to respond with ____
Even
238
What is the next step after the hot wash?
The initial written AAR (after action review)
239
What are the 4 levels of AARs
Hotwash
Written AAR
Enhanced AAR
Significant Incident Investigative Report
240
How does enhanced AAR vary from initial written AAR?
Enhanced Includes all elements of Initial with additional media, site plans, additional details
241
Who can order an enhanced AAR
Duty operations chief, operations division chief, fire chief
242
Significant Incident Investigative Report
Comprehensive report produced by a panel appointed by the Fire Chief
243
Cpr boss is to announce when there are ___ and ___ seconds prior to a rhythm check
30 and 15 seconds
244
What is the standard staffing for all primary units
4 personnel
245
To meet minimum staffing standards for engines trucks and rescue squads, personnel must be ___ years old and a minimum of a fire ___
17 years, fire 2.
246
To count as minimum staffing on als or bls units, personnel must be ___ years and a maryland ___
18 years, maryland EMT
247
Firefighter I’s may be used as ____ staffing but do not count as ____ staffing
Supplemental staffing, minimum staffing
248
Standard staffing
Primary units
Als bls units
Chase cars
Tankers
Brush trucks
Special units
Standard staffing
Primary units 4
Als bls units 3
Chase cars 2
Tankers 2
Brush trucks 2
Special units 2
249
On units responding with Fire II as the officer, personnel must not engage in IDLH firefighting until an entry team of ___ personnel with at least a ____ as the supervisor is assembled
Team of 2, FFIII
250
According to substance abuse testing and rehab, a substance abuse test will occur after a crash if there is an estimate of at least ____ dollars in damage caused by the accident
$2500
251
Personnel charged or convicted of a drug/alcohol related offense must report any charge or conviction to their supervisor within __ calendar days
5
252
Is drug test is possitive then what
Gc/ms test will be performed on the same sample.
If that is positive, employee can be placed on sick, annual, comp, or LWOP pending conclusion of matter.
253
Within 30 calendar days of positive drug test employee is provided with
Copy of test
Copy of this policy
Written notice of departments intent
Notice of right to request independant testing
254
Employee may request specimen is independently tested by another laboratory upon receipt of positive test results.
True
255
Voluntary exit from employee assistance program will require random drug testing for up to ___ months
60 months
256
The fire chief will assess job performance in individuals placed on a random testing schedule not to exceed ____
24 months
257
Employees that complete rehab are subject to random testing for ____ years
5 years
258
Any employee found to be abusing drugs or alcohol after two rehabs or withdraws from the second rehab is ____
Subject to termination
